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• I do I iterate the records in a database using LINQ when I have already built the LINQ DB code?

  - by Seth Spearman

  I asked on SO a few days ago what was the simplest quickest way to build a wrapper around a recently completed database. I took the advice and used sqlmetal to build linq classes around my database design. Now I am having two problems. One, I don't know LINQ. And, two, I have been shocked to realize how hard it is to learn. I have a book on LINQ (Linq In Action by Manning) and it has helped some but at the end of the day it is going to take me a couple of weeks to get traction and I need to make some progress on my project today. So, I am looking for some help getting started. Click HERE To see my simple database schema. Click HERE to see the vb class that was generated for the schema. My needs are simple. I have a console app. The main table is the SupplyModel table. Most of the other tables are child tables of the SupplyModel table. I want to iterate through each of Supply Model records. I want to grab the data for a supply model and then DoStuff with the data. And I also need to iterate through the child records, for each supply model, for example the NumberedInventories and DoStuff with that as well. I want to only iterate the SupplyModels that are have IDs that are in an array of strings containing the IDs. I need help doing this in VB rather than C# if possible. Thanks for your help. Seth

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• Linq Query to Update Nested Array Items?

  - by Brett

  I have an object structure generated from xsd.exe. Roughly, it consists of 3 nested arrays: protocols, sources and reports. The xml looks like this: <protocols> <protocol> <source> <report /> <report /> </source> <source> <report /> <report /> </source> </protocol> <!-- more protocols --> </protocols> I need to update a single "Report" within the data structure. A brute force algorithm is shown below. I know that this could be done using XDocument and Linq, but I'd prefer to update the data structure and then serialize the structure back to disk. Thoughts? Brett bool updated = false; foreach (ProtocolsProtocol protocol in protocols.Protocol) { if (updated) break; foreach (ProtocolsProtocolSource source in protocol.Source) { if (updated) break; for (int i = 0; i < source.Report.Length; i++) { ProtocolsProtocolSourceReport currentReport = source.Report[i]; if (currentReport.Id == report.Id) { currentReport.Attribute1 = report.Attribute1; currentReport.Attribute2 = report.Attribute2; updated = true; break; } } } }

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• AST with fixed nodes instead of error nodes in antlr

  - by ahe

  I have an antlr generated Java parser that uses the C target and it works quite well. The problem is I also want it to parse erroneous code and produce a meaningful AST. If I feed it a minimal Java class with one import after which a semicolon is missing it produces two "Tree Error Node" objects where the "import" token and the tokens for the imported class should be. But since it parses the following code correctly and produces the correct nodes for this code it must recover from the error by adding the semicolon or by resyncing. Is there a way to make antlr reflect this fixed input it produces internally in the AST? Or can I at least get the tokens/text that produced the "Tree Node Errors" somehow? In the C targets antlr3commontreeadaptor.c around line 200 the following fragment indicates that the C target only creates dummy error nodes so far: static pANTLR3_BASE_TREE errorNode (pANTLR3_BASE_TREE_ADAPTOR adaptor, pANTLR3_TOKEN_STREAM ctnstream, pANTLR3_COMMON_TOKEN startToken, pANTLR3_COMMON_TOKEN stopToken, pANTLR3_EXCEPTION e) { // Use the supplied common tree node stream to get another tree from the factory // TODO: Look at creating the erronode as in Java, but this is complicated by the // need to track and free the memory allocated to it, so for now, we just // want something in the tree that isn't a NULL pointer. // return adaptor->createTypeText(adaptor, ANTLR3_TOKEN_INVALID, (pANTLR3_UINT8)"Tree Error Node"); } Am I out of luck here and only the error nodes the Java target produces would allow me to retrieve the text of the erroneous nodes?

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• HTML - Correct way of coding a checkbox with a Label.

  - by egarcia

  I've been using formtastic in order to generate HTML forms on rails applications. My question, however, is really HTML-related. Today I found a strange behaviour on the way formtastic generates checkboxes (fields of type :boolean on formtastic lingo). The rest of the fields (non-checkboxes) are generated this way: <li> <label for="my_textbox_field">My TextBox</label> <input id="my_textbox_field" type="text" ... > </li> Checkboxes, however, are enclosed inside their <label> tags completely - like this: <li> <label for="my_boolean_field"> <input id="my_boolean_field" type="checkbox" ... > This is my boolean field </label> </li> Formtastic phylosophy seems to be based on the Learning to Love Forms presentation. In effect, on slide 36 of that presentation this structure is suggested for checkboxes. I guess in the presentation itself the presenter explained why this was done, but it is not written on the slides. Can anyone tell me why enclosing checkboxes inside their <label> tag might be a good idea, as opposed to putting them outside, like with textboxes?

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• Raytraced Shadows Problem

  - by Mat

  Hey There! I've got a problem with shadowrays in my raytracer. Please have a look at the following two pictures 3D sMax: My Raytracer: The scene is lit by a very bright light, shining from the back. It's so bright that there is no gradient in the shading, just either white or dark (due to the overexposure). both images were rendered using 3DStudioMax and both use the exact same geometry, just in one case the normals are interpolated across the triangles. Now consider the red dot on the surface. In the case of the unsmoothed version, it lies in a dark area. this means that the light source is not visible from this triangle, since it's facing away from it. In the smoothed version however, it lies in the lit area, because the interpolated normal would suggest, that the light would be visible at that point (although the actual geometry of the triangle is facing away from the lightsource). My problem now is when raytraced shadows come in. if a shadowray is shot into the scene, from the red dot, to test whether the light-source is visible or not (to determine shadowing), the shadowray will return an intersection, independent of whether normals are interpolated or not (because intersections only depend on the geometry). Therefore the pixel would be shaded dark. 3dsamx is handling the case correctly - the rendered image was generated with Raytraced shadows turned on. However, my own Raytracer runs exactly into this problem when i turn on raytraced shadows (in my raytracer, the point is dark in both cases, because raytraced shadows determine the point lying in the shadow), and i don't know how to solve it. I hope someone knows this problem and how to deal with it.. thanks!

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• Can't submit new object to WCF DataService because of Primary Key constraint

  - by Rob

  I've got a SQL database that uses Guid's for PK's and upon insert, it generates a NewId(). I have an EF data context setup pointing to that database with the primary keys setup with the Entity key:true, Setter:private and StoreGeneratedPattern:Identity because I want the DB to manage the keys and not have code set the PK property. I have an OData (System.Web.Data.Services.DataService) endpoint to access this data (just like: Hanselman did. I have another app that has a service reference to this service. Upon trying to create a new object from this reference (i.e. Product), the ProductId Primary Key is being defaulted to Guid.Empty when doing var serviceEntities = new ServiceEntities(serviceUri); //OData endpoint var product = new Product(); product.Name = "New Product"; serviceEntities.AddToProducts(product); serviceEntities.SaveChanges(); // error happens here When debugging, I look at the Product.ProductId property and it's set to Guid.Empty. When called SaveChanges, I do not want the ProductId field to be sent to the service. The response I get is: Error processing request stream. Property 'ProductId' is a read-only property and cannot be updated. Please make sure that this property is not present in the request payload. Is there a way to do this or what can I do to get this setup correctly and still have the DB generated the keys. Here is the same setup as the Product example above.

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• How to generate comments in hbm2java created POJO?

  - by jschoen

  My current setup using hibernate uses the hibernate.reveng.xml file to generate the various hbm.xml files. Which are then turned into POJOs using hbm2java. We spent some time while designing our schema, to place some pretty decent descriptions on the Tables and there columns. I am able to pull these descriptions into the hbm.xml files when generating them using hbm2jhbmxml. So I get something similar to this: <class name="test.Person" table="PERSONS"> <comment>The comment about the PERSONS table.</comment> <property name="firstName" type="string"> <column name="FIRST_NAME" length="100" not-null="true"> <comment>The first name of this person.</comment> </column> </property> <property name="middleInitial" type="string"> <column name="MIDDLE_INITIAL" length="1"> <comment>The middle initial of this person.</comment> </column> </property> <property name="lastName" type="string"> <column name="LAST_NAME" length="100"> <comment>The last name of this person.</comment> </column> </property> </class> So how do I tell hbm2java to pull and place these comments in the created Java files? I have read over this about editing the freemarker templates to change the way code is generated. I under stand the concept, but it was not to detailed about what else you could do with it beyond there example of pre and post conditions.

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• XMLBeans - xsi:type stripped using Axis2 and Tomcat?

  - by Matthew Gamble

  I’m new to XMLBeans and have been trying to use it to create an XML document as part of an axis2 web service. When I run my code as a standard Java application or as a standard servlet, the XML is correctly generated: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <c:BroadsoftDocument protocol="OCI" xmlns:c="C"> <sessionId>000000001</sessionId> <command xsi:type="AuthenticationRequest" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <userId>admin</userId></command> </c:BroadsoftDocument> However, when the exact same code is run under Axis2 & Tomcat in a servlet I get: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <c:BroadsoftDocument protocol="OCI" xmlns:c="C"> <sessionId>000000001</sessionId> <command> <userId>admin</userId></command> </c:BroadsoftDocument> This of course isn’t valid – the xsi:type of the “command” element is stripped when the code is run under Tomcat. Does anyone have any suggestions of what I could be doing wrong that would cause this type of issue only when running under Axis2? At first I thought it was a Tomcat issue, but after creating a generic servlet and running the exact same code I don't have any issues. I've tried playing with the XMLOptions for XMLBeans, but couldn't seem to resolve the problem. The options I'm currently using are: xmlOptions = new XmlOptions(); xmlOptions.setCharacterEncoding("UTF-8"); xmlOptions.setUseDefaultNamespace(); xmlOptions.setSaveAggressiveNamespaces(); xmlOptions.setSavePrettyPrint();

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• Benchmarking a UDP server

  - by Nicolas

  I am refactoring a UDP listener from Java to C. It needs to handle between 1000 and 10000 UDP messages per second, with an average data length of around 60 bytes. There is no reply necessary. Data cannot be lost (Don't ask why UDP was decided). I fork off a process to deal with the incoming data so that I can recvfrom as quickly as possible - without filling up my kernel buffers. The child then handles the data received. In short, my algo is: Listen for data. When data is received, check for errors. Fork off a child. If I'm a child, do what I with the data and exit. If I'm a parent, reap any zombie children waitpid(-1, NULL, WNOHANG). Repeat. Firstly, any comments about the above? I'm creating the socket with socket(AF_INET, SOCK_DGRAM, IPPROTO_UDP), binding with AF_INET and INADDR_ANY and recvfrom with no flags. Secondly, can anyone suggest something that I can use to test that this application (or at least the listener) can handle more messages than what I am expecting? Or, would I need to hack something together to do this. I'd guess the latter would be better, so that I can compare data that is generated versus data that is received. But, comments would be appreciated.

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• jQuery: loading reCaptcha into a div via ajax

  - by abdullah kahraman

  Hello, I want to create a form that has a div with id "captcha". When the user enters a wrong password, following code is generated in "login.php" $myCaptcha=recaptcha_get_html($publickey, $error); $xml="<captcha><![CDATA[".$myCaptcha ."]]></captcha>"; echo $xml; recaptcha_get_html($publickey, $error); generates this: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://www.google.com/recaptcha/api/challenge?k=xxxx"></script> <noscript> <iframe src="http://www.google.com/recaptcha/api/noscript?k=xxxx" height="300" width="500" frameborder="0"></iframe><br/> <textarea name="recaptcha_challenge_field" rows="3" cols="40"></textarea> <input type="hidden" name="recaptcha_response_field" value="manual_challenge"/> </noscript> I want to get this code with $.post() and insert it into div "captcha". Doing something like this: $.post("login.php", {requestCaptcha:"yes"}, function(returned){ $("#captcha").html($(returned).text(),"xml"); }); In IE, it does nothing. In Chrome, it clears up whole page and there is only the called reCaptcha script working like a charm. Any ideas?

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• Fluent config not generating mapping files

  - by rboarman

  Hello, I am trying to get Fluent nHibernate to generate mappings so I can take a look at the files and the sql. My code is based on this post and on what I can glean from the documentation. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1375146/fluent-mapping-entities-and-classmaps-in-different-assemblies I am using the latest code from git. Here’s my config code: Configuration cfg = new Configuration(); var ft = Fluently.Configure(cfg); //DbConnection by fluent ft.Database ( MsSqlConfiguration .MsSql2008 .ConnectionString("……") .ShowSql() .UseReflectionOptimizer() ); //get mapping files. ft.Mappings(m => { //set up the mapping locations m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<Entity>() .ExportTo(@"C:\temp"); m.Apply(cfg); }); I also tried: var sessionFactory = Fluently.Configure() .Database(MsSqlConfiguration .MsSql2008 .ShowSql() .ConnectionString(“……")) .Mappings(p => p.FluentMappings .AddFromAssemblyOf<Entity>() .ExportTo(@"c:\temp\")) .BuildSessionFactory(); I have verified that the connection string is correct. The issue is that no mapping files show up in the ExportTo folder and no sql code shows up in the output window or in the log file. No errors or exceptions are generated either. I have no idea where to go from here. Thank you in advance. Rick

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• GlassFish can't find persistence provider for EntityManager

  - by Xorty

  Hi, I am building Spring MVC project (2.5). It runs on GlassFish v3 server and I am using Hibernate for ORM mapping from Derby database. I am having trouble with deployment - GlassFish says : No Persistence provider for EntityManager named mvcspringPU. Here is how I create EntityManagerFactory : emf = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory("mvcspringPU"); And here is my configuration file persistence.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <persistence version="1.0" xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence/persistence_1_0.xsd"> <persistence-unit name="mvcspringPU" transaction-type="JTA"> <provider>org.hibernate.ejb.HibernatePersistence</provider> <jta-data-source>CarsDB</jta-data-source> <properties> <property name="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto" value="update"/> </properties> </persistence-unit> </persistence> I am building with NetBeans 6.8, so things like build paths should be alright (generated by IDE itself).

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• JAX-WS and JPA, how to load stub objects using JPA?

  - by opensas

  I'm trying to develope a soap web service that has to access a mysql db. I have to replicate an existing service, so I created all the stub object from it's wsdl file Netbeans created all the necessary stuff for me (new, web service from wsdl), it works ok... Now I'm trying to use JPA to load all those objects from the database. So far I was going fine, I created the classes using (new, entity class from database), and then copied all the annotations to the classes generated by wsimport, and it was working fine. The problem is that netbeans insists on running wsimport again, and then I loose all my annotations... Is there some way to tell netbeans not to regenerate those files? I think this situation shoulb be pretty common, I mean developing a web service from a wsdl and then having to fill those objects with data using JPA. what would be the correct aproach to this kind of situation? thanks a lot saludos sas I've also tried inheriting from the stubs, and addign there the persistence annotations, but I had troubles with overlaping members, I'm redeclaring protected properties...

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• How to escape the character entities in XML?

  - by Chetan Vaity

  I want to pass XML as a string in an XML attribute. <activity evt="&lt;FHS&gt; &lt;act&gt; &lt;polyline penWidth=&quot;2&quot; points=&quot;256,435 257,432 &quot;/&gt; &lt;/act&gt; &lt;/FHS&gt; /> Here the "evt" attribute is the XML string, so escaping all the less-than, greater-than, etc characters by the appropriate character entities works fine. The problem is I want a fragment to be interpreted as is - the character entities themselves should be treated as simple strings. When the "evt" attribute is read and an XML is generated from it, it should look like <FHS> <act> &lt;polyline penWidth=&quot;2&quot; points=&quot;256,435 257,432 &quot;/&gt; </act> </FHS> Essentially, I want to escape the character entities. How is this possible?

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• Using datetime float representation as primary key

  - by devanalyst

  From my experience I have learn that using an surrogate INT data type column as primary key esp. an IDENTITY key column offers better performance than using GUID or char/varchar data type column as primary key. I try to use IDENTITY key as primary key wherever possible. But recently I came across a schema where the tables were horizontally partitioned and were managed via a Partitioned view. So the tables could not have an IDENTITY column since that would make the Partitioned View non updatable. One work around for this was to create a dummy 'keygenerator' table with an identity column to generate IDs for primary key. But this would mean having a 'keygenerator' table for each of the Partitioned View. My next thought was to use float as a primary key. The reason is the following key algorithm that I devised DECLARE @KEY FLOAT SET @KEY = CONVERT(FLOAT,GETDATE())/100000.0 SET @KEY = @EMP_ID + @KEY Heres how it works. CONVERT(FLOAT,GETDATE()) gives float representation of current datetime since internally all datetime are represented by SQL as a float value. CONVERT(FLOAT,GETDATE())/100000.0 converts the float representation into complete decimal value i.e. all digits are pushed to right side of ".". @KEY = @EMP_ID + @KEY adds the Employee ID which is an integer to this decimal value. The logic is that the Employee ID is guaranteed to be unique across sessions since an employee cannot connect to an application more than once at the same time. And for the same employee each time a key will be generated the current datetime will be unique. In all an unique key across all employee sessions and across time. So for Emp Ids 11 and 12, I have key values like 12.40046693321566357, 11.40046693542361111 But my concern whether float data type as primary key offer benefits compared to choosing GUID or char/varchar as primary keys. Also important thing is because of partitioning the float column is going to be part of a composite key.

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• SqlException: User does not have permission to perform this action.

  - by Oskar Kjellin

  I have been using my website (ASP.NET MVC) in visual studio but now I want to host it on my server. I published from visual studio onto the network share to be used. The server is running Windows Home Server, IIS 6 and SQL Server 2008 R2 (express). In Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio, I've attached the database and made sure that the user IUSR_SERVER is owner of the db. I also made sure that the user Network Service has access. The Web Site is configured in IIS to run anonymously as IUSR_SERVER. I have granted write and read access to IUSR_SERVER as well as Network Service and made sure that nothing is read only. The web.config has this connectionstring: <connectionStrings> <remove name="ApplicationServices" /> <add name="ApplicationServices" connectionString="Data Source=.\SQLExpress;Integrated Security=True;Initial Catalog=MyDatebase" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> </connectionStrings> However, I cannot browse my web site. I only get this error: Server Error in '/' Application. User does not have permission to perform this action. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: User does not have permission to perform this action. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [SqlException (0x80131904): User does not have permission to perform this action.] System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) +4846887 System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj) +194 Feels like I've tried everything. Would be very grateful for your aid in this.

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• Weird error running com-exposed assembly

  - by Bernabé Panarello

  I am facing the following issue when deploying a com-exposed assembly to my client's. The COM component should be consummed by a vb6 application. Here's how it's done 1) I have one c# project which has a class with a couple of methods exposed to COM 2) The project has references to multiple assemblies 3) I compile the project, generating a folder (named dllcom) that contains the assembly plus all the referenced dlls 4) I include in the folder a .bat which does the following: regasm /u c:\dllcom\LibInsertador.dll del LibInsertador.tlb regasm c:\dllcom\LibInsertador.dll /tlb:c:\dllcom\LibInsertador.tlb /codebase c:\dllcom\ pause 5) After running the bat locally in many workstations of my laboratory, i'm able to consume the generated tlb from my vb6 application without any problems. I'm even able to update the dll by only means of running this bat, without having to recompile the vb6 application. I mean that im not having issues of vb6 fiding and invoking the exposed com object. The problem 6) I send the SAME FOLDER to my client 7) They execute the .bat locally, without any errors 8) They execute the vb6 application, vb6 finds the main assembly, the .net code seems to run correctly (it's even able to generate a log file) until it has to intantiate it's first referenced assembly. Then, they get the following exception: "Could not load type 'GYF.Common.TypeBuilder' from assembly 'GYF_Common, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null'." Where "GYF.Common" is an assembly referenced by LibInsertador and TypeBuilder is a class contained in GYF.Common. GYF.Common is not a signed assembly and it's not in the GAC, just in the same folder with Libinsertador. According to .net reflector, the version is correct. ¿Any ideas about what could be happening?

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• xsd.exe - schema to class - for use with WCF

  - by NealWalters

  I have created a schema as an agreed upon interface between our company and an external company. I am now creating a WCF C# web service to handle the interface. I ran the XSD utility and it created a C# class. The schema was built in BizTalk, and references other schemas, so all-in-all there are over 15 classes being generated. I put [DataContract} attribute in front of each of the classes. Do I have to put the [DataMember] attribute on every single property? When I generate a test client program, the proxy does not have any code for any of these 15 classes. We used to use this technique when using .asmx services, but not sure if it will work the same with WCF. If we change the schema, we would want to regenerate the WCF class, and then we would haev to each time redecorate it with all the [DataMember] attributes? Is there an newer tool similar to XSD.exe that will work better with WCF? Thanks, Neal Walters SOLUTION (buried in one of Saunders answer/comments): Add the XmlSerializerFormat to the Interface definition: [OperationContract] [XmlSerializerFormat] // ADD THIS LINE Transaction SubmitTransaction(Transaction transactionIn); Two notes: 1) After I did this, I saw a lot more .xsds in the my proxy (Service Reference) test client program, but I didn't see the new classes in my intellisense. 2) For some reason, until I did a build on the project, I didn't get all the classes in the intellisense (not sure why).

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• C# Entity FrameWork MySQL Slow Queries Count()

  - by Matthew M.

  Hello, I'm having a serious issue with MySQL and Entity Framework 4.0. I have dropped a Table onto the EF Designer surface, and everything seems OK. However, when I perform a query in the following fashion: using(entityContext dc = new entityContext()) { int numRows = dc.myTable.Count(); } The query that is generated looks something like this: SELECT `GroupBy1`.`A1` AS `C1` FROM (SELECT Count(1) AS `A1` FROM (SELECT `pricing table`.`a`, `pricing table`.`b`, `pricing table`.`c`, `pricing table`.`d`, `pricing table`.`e`, `pricing table`.`f`, `pricing table`.`g`, `pricing table`.`h`, `pricing table`.`i` FROM `pricing table` AS `pricing table`) AS `Extent1`) AS `GroupBy1` As should be evident, this is an excruciatingly unoptimized query. It is selecting every single row! This is not optimal, nor is it even possible for me to use MySQL + EF at this point. I have tried both the MySQL 6.3.1 [that was fun to install] and DevArt's dotConnect for MySQL and both produce the same results. This table has 1.5 million records.. and takes 6-11s to execute! What am I doing wrong ? Is there any way to optimize this [and other queries] to produce sane code like: SELECT COUNT(*) FROM table ? Generating the same query using SQLServer takes virtually no time and produces sane code. Help! Thanks! Matthew

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• Spinner in Android crashing when visibilty changes while handling OnClick in a button

  - by Dave George

  I have a spinner in UI, which I want to hide when I handle onClick method for a button. But the application is crashing all the time. Is it that I can't use the setVisibility(View.Gone) on spinners (it is not written anywhere). If I comment it out, then application run fine. I am getting NullPointerException and I am using RelativeLayout. Also, can I do this: public void onItemSelected(AdapterView<?> arg0, View view, int pos, long arg3) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub Toast.makeText(SpinnerActivity.this,selected , Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); spinner.setVisibility(View.GONE); } } Spinner code fore reference: itemsCity=getResources().getStringArray(R.array.cities_array); ArrayAdapter<CharSequence> adapter = ArrayAdapter.createFromResource( this, R.array.cities_array, android.R.layout.simple_spinner_item); adapter.setDropDownViewResource(android.R.layout.simple_spinner_dropdown_item); spinnerCity.setAdapter(adapter); And here is Button code: private class BtClickListner implements View.OnClickListener{ @Override public void onClick(View v) { essEditText.setVisibility(View.GONE); spinnerCity.setEnabled(false);// Getting exception here // Also tried spinnerCity.setVisibility(View.GONE);// Exception SameBt.setVisibility(View.GONE);// This is same button for which I am handliing event, but it allows me to change tis property at run time. }

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• android bindservice

  - by mnish

  hi, I get null pointer exception at line mService.start() when i try to bind to an already started service. I do the same thing from different activity(where the service gets started) everythig goes right. All these activities are part of one application. What do you think I do wrong? public class RouteOnMap extends MapActivity{ private static final int NEW_LOCATION = 1; private static final int GPS_OFF = 2; private MapView mMapView; private ILocService mService; private boolean mServiceStarted; private boolean mBound; private Intent mServiceIntent; private double mLatitude, mLongitude; private ServiceConnection connection = new ServiceConnection() { public void onServiceConnected(ComponentName className, IBinder iservice) { mService = ILocService.Stub.asInterface(iservice); mBound = true; } public void onServiceDisconnected(ComponentName className) { mService = null; mBound = false; } }; public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState){ super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.mapview); mMapView = (MapView) findViewById(R.id.mapview); mMapView.setBuiltInZoomControls(true); mServiceIntent = new Intent(); mLatitude = 0.0; mLongitude = 0.0; mBound = false; } @Override public void onStart(){ super.onStart(); mServiceIntent.setClass(this, LocationService.class); //startService(mServiceIntent); if(!mBound){ mBound = true; this.bindService(mServiceIntent, connection, Context.BIND_AUTO_CREATE); } } @Override public void onResume(){ super.onResume(); try { mService.start(); } catch (RemoteException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } @Override public void onPause(){ super.onPause(); if(mBound){ this.unbindService(connection); } } @Override protected boolean isRouteDisplayed() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return false; } }

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• Graceful termination of NSApplication with Core Data and Grand Central Dispatch (GCD)

  - by Vincent Mac

  I have an Cocoa Application (Mac OS X SDK 10.7) that is performing some processes via Grand Central Dispatch (GCD). These processes are manipulating some Core Data NSManagedObjects (non-document-based) in a manner that I believe is thread safe (creating a new managedObjectContext for use in this thread). The problem I have is when the user tries to quit the application while the dispatch queue is still running. The NSApplication delegate is being called before actually quitting. - (NSApplicationTerminateReply)applicationShouldTerminate:(NSApplication *)sender I get an error "Could not merge changes." Which is somewhat expected since there are still operations being performed through the different managedObjectContext. I am then presented with the NSAlert from the template that is generated with a core data application. In the Threading Programming Guide there is a section called "Be Aware of Thread Behaviors at Quit Time" which alludes to using replyToApplicationShouldTerminate: method. I'm having a little trouble implementing this. What I would like is for my application to complete processing the queued items and then terminate without presenting an error message to the user. It would also be helpful to update the view or use a sheet to let the user know that the app is performing some action and will terminate when the action is complete. Where and how would I implement this behavior?

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• Android Application is unexpectedly stopped error when button is clicked

  - by user1794499

  Hi there I'm totally new to Android development and I'm working in my android application my application includes a forum where users can post, comment and have their discussion there.... So I'm working in the interface but I get error when I click on the button I directs me to the signup page can somebody please help me with this error this is the code of the mainuserinterface.java for the mainuserinterface.xml file where the button resides. and the signupform.class is the java file for the next activity triggered when the button is clicked the error I receive is the application is unexpectedly stopped.. Hope I make it clear for you guys package com.mohammed.watzIslam; import android.app.Activity; import android.content.Intent; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.View; import android.widget.Button; public class mainuserinterface extends Activity { @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.mainuserinterface); // this is the button where I receive errors when I click Button forum = (Button) findViewById(R.id.next); forum.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View view){ Intent myIntent = new Intent (view.getContext(), signupform.class); startActivityForResult (myIntent, 0); } }); //these two button still not directing to any next activity yet Button button1 = (Button) findViewById(R.id.next); forum.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View view){ Intent myIntent1 = new Intent (view.getContext(), signupform.class); startActivityForResult (myIntent1, 0); } }); Button button2 = (Button) findViewById(R.id.next); forum.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View view){ Intent myIntent2 = new Intent (view.getContext(), signupform.class); startActivityForResult (myIntent2, 0); } }); } }

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• Submit information to url, but also open PDF

  - by Mad Ducky Digital Branding

  I have a client whose desire is to have her Wordpress blog show a MailChimp form on her home page as a gateway to a .pdf. I need the following behavior to occur when the user clicks "Submit": execute the included MailChimp's javascript file; this ensures the form was properly filled, and then performs the sign-up to the newsletter list (don't need help with this part) then show the user an informational PDF for download or viewing EDIT: The logical order was flipped from when I originally posted this. The script should execute, and only if the script gets executed properly should the PDF show to the user Note: My experience level with HTML and PHP is 3/4, and with JS I am 2/4 EDIT: (seems more like 1/4 at this point lol). If my research is correct, PHP (server-side language) would be used to do that which the client wants. Additional validation is not necessary beyond what MailChimp's script provides (it ensures that user has submitted a completed form) is not necessary in this case (the client says it's ok if the e-mail isn't valid at all). EDIT: Reworded this sentence from original post to be more clear The .pdf URL and content is static, and simply needs to be shown, not generated. ----RESEARCH---- I know that the Mailchimp form uses the following line to actually submit the information, but I want to do the action mentioned below, as well as open the aforementioned .pdf: <form action="http://*BLAH*.us2.list-manage.com/subscribe/post?u=*BLAHBLAH*&amp;id=*BLAHBLAHBLAH*" method="post" id="mc-embedded-subscribe-form" name="mc-embedded-subscribe-form" class="validate" target="_blank"> I am reading on other sites that I can conceivably point "action" to a .php file, but if there is a way to do this with javascript - since its using the .js file that I created for that already anyways, then I would be most happy. Barring that, I'll take what I can get.. ----SOLUTION?---- ...

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• Bad linking in Qt unit test -- missing the link to the moc file?

  - by dwj

  I'm trying to unit test a class that inherits QObject; the class itself is located up one level in my directory structure. When I build the unit test I get the standard unresolved errors if a class' MOC file cannot be found: test.obj : error LNK2001: unresolved external symbol "public: virtual void * __thiscall UnitToTest::qt_metacast(char const *)" (?qt_metacast@UnitToTest@@UAEPAXPBD@Z) + 2 missing functions The MOC file is created but appears to not be linking. I've been poking around SO, the web, and Qt's docs for quite a while and have hit a wall. How do I get the unit test to include the MOC file in the link? ==== My project file is dead simple: TEMPLATE = app TARGET = test DESTDIR = . CONFIG += qtestlib INCLUDEPATH += . .. DEPENDPATH += . HEADERS += test.h SOURCES += test.cpp ../UnitToTest.cpp stubs.cpp DEFINES += UNIT_TEST My directory structure and files: C:. | UnitToTest.cpp | UnitToTest.h | \---test | test.cpp (Makefiles removed for clarity) | test.h | test.pro | stubs.cpp | +---debug | UnitToTest.obj | test.obj | test.pdb | moc_test.cpp | moc_test.obj | stubs.obj Edit: Additional information The generated Makefile.Debug shows the moc file missing: SOURCES = test.cpp \ ..\test.cpp \ stubs.cpp debug\moc_test.cpp OBJECTS = debug\test.obj \ debug\UnitToTest.obj \ debug\stubs.obj \ debug\moc_test.obj

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