Search Results

Search found 9928 results on 398 pages for 'facebook authentication'.

Page 378/398 | < Previous Page | 374 375 376 377 378 379 380 381 382 383 384 385  | Next Page >

  • The remote server returned an error: NotFound.

    - by xscape
    Hi, I'm trying to retrieve a string in my old webservice but it give me an error of The remote server returned an error: NotFound. and its InnerException is {System.Net.WebException: The remote server returned an error: NotFound. --- System.Net.WebException: The remote server returned an error: NotFound. at System.Net.Browser.BrowserHttpWebRequest.InternalEndGetResponse(IAsyncResult asyncResult) at System.Net.Browser.BrowserHttpWebRequest.<c_DisplayClass5.b_4(Object sendState) at System.Net.Browser.AsyncHelper.<c_DisplayClass2.b_0(Object sendState) --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.Net.Browser.AsyncHelper.BeginOnUI(SendOrPostCallback beginMethod, Object state) at System.Net.Browser.BrowserHttpWebRequest.EndGetResponse(IAsyncResult asyncResult) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelAsyncRequest.CompleteGetResponse(IAsyncResult result)} this is the method which error prompted, this method returns a string format void client_ValidateUserEncryptedCompleted(object sender, DummyWS.ValidateUserEncryptedCompletedEventArgs e) { object token = e.Result; client = new DummyWS.MachineHistoryWSSoapClient(); if (token != null) { client.GetSummaryXMLAsync(token, "", ""); } } I am currently using Silverlight 4.0 and my ServiceReferences.ClientConfig is <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="MachineHistoryWSSoap" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <security mode="None" /> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost/MHVwsModified/MachineHistoryWS.asmx" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="MachineHistoryWSSoap" contract="DummyWS.MachineHistoryWSSoap" name="MachineHistoryWSSoap" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> My Web.Config in my web service is <configuration xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/.NetConfiguration/v2.0"> <system.web> <compilation debug="true"> <assemblies> <add assembly="System.Windows.Forms, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=B77A5C561934E089" /></assemblies></compilation> <authentication mode="Windows" /> </system.web> <system.webServer> <directoryBrowse enabled="true" /> </system.webServer> Any help will be aprreciated thank you.

    Read the article

  • What to Return? Error String, Bool with Error String Out, or Void with Exception

    - by Ranger Pretzel
    I spend most of my time in C# and am trying to figure out which is the best practice for handling an exception and cleanly return an error message from a called method back to the calling method. For example, here is some ActiveDirectory authentication code. Please imagine this Method as part of a Class (and not just a standalone function.) bool IsUserAuthenticated(string domain, string user, string pass, out errStr) { bool authentic = false; try { // Instantiate Directory Entry object DirectoryEntry entry = new DirectoryEntry("LDAP://" + domain, user, pass); // Force connection over network to authenticate object nativeObject = entry.NativeObject; // No exception thrown? We must be good, then. authentic = true; } catch (Exception e) { errStr = e.Message().ToString(); } return authentic; } The advantages of doing it this way are a clear YES or NO that you can embed right in your If-Then-Else statement. The downside is that it also requires the person using the method to supply a string to get the Error back (if any.) I guess I could overload this method with the same parameters minus the "out errStr", but ignoring the error seems like a bad idea since there can be many reasons for such a failure... Alternatively, I could write a method that returns an Error String (instead of using "out errStr") in which a returned empty string means that the user authenticated fine. string AuthenticateUser(string domain, string user, string pass) { string errStr = ""; try { // Instantiate Directory Entry object DirectoryEntry entry = new DirectoryEntry("LDAP://" + domain, user, pass); // Force connection over network to authenticate object nativeObject = entry.NativeObject; } catch (Exception e) { errStr = e.Message().ToString(); } return errStr; } But this seems like a "weak" way of doing things. Or should I just make my method "void" and just not handle the exception so that it gets passed back to the calling function? void AuthenticateUser(string domain, string user, string pass) { // Instantiate Directory Entry object DirectoryEntry entry = new DirectoryEntry("LDAP://" + domain, user, pass); // Force connection over network to authenticate object nativeObject = entry.NativeObject; } This seems the most sane to me (for some reason). Yet at the same time, the only real advantage of wrapping those 2 lines over just typing those 2 lines everywhere I need to authenticate is that I don't need to include the "LDAP://" string. The downside with this way of doing it is that the user has to put this method in a try-catch block. Thoughts? Is there another way of doing this that I'm not thinking of?

    Read the article

  • Best Practices / Patterns for Enterprise Protection/Remediation of SSNs (Social Security Numbers)

    - by Erik Neu
    I am interested in hearing about enterprise solutions for SSN handling. (I looked pretty hard for any pre-existing post on SO, including reviewing the terriffic SO automated "Related Questions" list, and did not find anything, so hopefully this is not a repeat.) First, I think it is important to enumerate the reasons systems/databases use SSNs: (note—these are reasons for de facto current state—I understand that many of them are not good reasons) Required for Interaction with External Entities. This is the most valid case—where external entities your system interfaces with require an SSN. This would typically be government, tax and financial. SSN is used to ensure system-wide uniqueness. SSN has become the default foreign key used internally within the enterprise, to perform cross-system joins. SSN is used for user authentication (e.g., log-on) The enterprise solution that seems optimum to me is to create a single SSN repository that is accessed by all applications needing to look up SSN info. This repository substitutes a globally unique, random 9-digit number (ASN) for the true SSN. I see many benefits to this approach. First of all, it is obviously highly backwards-compatible—all your systems "just" have to go through a major, synchronized, one-time data-cleansing exercise, where they replace the real SSN with the alternate ASN. Also, it is centralized, so it minimizes the scope for inspection and compliance. (Obviously, as a negative, it also creates a single point of failure.) This approach would solve issues 2 and 3, without ever requiring lookups to get the real SSN. For issue #1, authorized systems could provide an ASN, and be returned the real SSN. This would of course be done over secure connections, and the requesting systems would never persist the full SSN. Also, if the requesting system only needs the last 4 digits of the SSN, then that is all that would ever be passed. Issue #4 could be handled the same way as issue #1, though obviously the best thing would be to move away from having users supply an SSN for log-on. There are a couple of papers on this: UC Berkely: http://bit.ly/bdZPjQ Oracle Vault: bit.ly/cikbi1

    Read the article

  • Accidental Complexity in OpenSSL HMAC functions

    - by Hassan Syed
    SSL Documentation Analaysis This question is pertaining the usage of the HMAC routines in OpenSSL. Since Openssl documentation is a tad on the weak side in certain areas, profiling has revealed that using the: unsigned char *HMAC(const EVP_MD *evp_md, const void *key, int key_len, const unsigned char *d, int n, unsigned char *md, unsigned int *md_len); From here, shows 40% of my library runtime is devoted to creating and taking down **HMAC_CTX's behind the scenes. There are also two additional function to create and destroy a HMAC_CTX explicetly: HMAC_CTX_init() initialises a HMAC_CTX before first use. It must be called. HMAC_CTX_cleanup() erases the key and other data from the HMAC_CTX and releases any associated resources. It must be called when an HMAC_CTX is no longer required. These two function calls are prefixed with: The following functions may be used if the message is not completely stored in memory My data fits entirely in memory, so I choose the HMAC function -- the one whose signature is shown above. The context, as described by the man page, is made use of by using the following two functions: HMAC_Update() can be called repeatedly with chunks of the message to be authenticated (len bytes at data). HMAC_Final() places the message authentication code in md, which must have space for the hash function output. The Scope of the Application My application generates a authentic (HMAC, which is also used a nonce), CBC-BF encrypted protocol buffer string. The code will be interfaced with various web-servers and frameworks Windows / Linux as OS, nginx, Apache and IIS as webservers and Python / .NET and C++ web-server filters. The description above should clarify that the library needs to be thread safe, and potentially have resumeable processing state -- i.e., lightweight threads sharing a OS thread (which might leave thread local memory out of the picture). The Question How do I get rid of the 40% overhead on each invocation in a (1) thread-safe / (2) resume-able state way ? (2) is optional since I have all of the source-data present in one go, and can make sure a digest is created in place without relinquishing control of the thread mid-digest-creation. So, (1) can probably be done using thread local memory -- but how do I resuse the CTX's ? does the HMAC_final() call make the CTX reusable ?. (2) optional: in this case I would have to create a pool of CTX's. (3) how does the HMAC function do this ? does it create a CTX in the scope of the function call and destroy it ? Psuedocode and commentary will be useful.

    Read the article

  • Job queue manager with RPC interface

    - by admr
    I need a job queue manager that I can control over the Internet. It should be able to execute and stop processes, check on their status (ideally notice and execute some code when a process exits), respond to commands and also be able to report back to a server. Background: I have a GWT application that allows to create jobs to execute on a cloud instance (currently EC2). I want to push a "job packet" (data for a process to operate on etc) to S3, start a Linux EC2 instance (or use one that's already running), and tell a job manager on the instance to execute that job (possibly parallel to other jobs). It should then pull the "job packet" from S3, run a process that operates on that data and report back to the server that is running the server part of my GWT application with some information (e.g. exit code, stdout, stderr). If I have to write e.g. stdour/err to a file from the process and read that file, that's OK too. I would really like the manager to be "close" to the processes it runs, meaning I want to avoid using something like Runtime.exec from the JDK. It seems like I would have to do that if I used Quartz for example. I'm fine with the calls in both directions being asynchronous. I'm fine with any reasonable technology for the calls as long as I can easily build an interface for that in my GWT server side (e.g. HTTP requests to a servlet over SSL would be nice and trivial). The job manager does not need to have a very sophisticated queueing system. Running several processes either sequentially or in parallel should be fine. Determining how much compute time a process received during its lifetime would be nice (AFAIK, this might be challenging). I did not yet find any existing software that does this, including http://java-source.net/open-source/job-schedulers. I suspect I might have to build an RPC interface (with authentication etc, of course) around a job manager; maybe use something like Apache Commons Exec. In that case, I would prefer Java or Python for the job manager part. I would be happy to hear suggestions for either the former or latter scenario!

    Read the article

  • Finding underlying cause of Window 7 Account corruption.

    - by Carl Jokl
    I have been having trouble with my Sister's computer which I built. It is running Windows 7 Ultimate x64. The problem is that I have had problems with the accounts becoming corrupted. First problems manifest themselves in the form of Windows saying the profile failed to be loaded properly and a temporary profile. Eventually the account will not allow login at all. An error message along the lines the authentication service failing the login. I have found information about this problem and how to fix it. The problem being that something has corrupted the account profile and backing up and recreating the accounts fixes the problem. I have been able to fix things and get logins working again but over the period of usually about a week it happens again. Bit by bit the accounts corrupt and then it is back to square one. I am frustrated because I don't know what the underlying cause of the problem is i.e. what is causing the accounts to be corrupted in the first place. At the moment I am just treating the symptoms. I was hoping someone who may have more experience with dealing with this problem might be able to help me find the root cause. Some articles suggest that Norton Internet Security is a big culprit of this problem which is installed. I could try uninstalling Norton and see if it helps. The one thing which is different about this computer to any other I have built is that it has a solid state drive. Actually it has both a hard drive and solid state drive. The documents and settings i.e. the Users directory is stored on the hard drive. This was done following an article about moving the user account data onto a separate drive on Windows 7 which I found on the Internet. Moving the User accounts is more of a pain under Windows 7 and this solution involved creating a low level file system link to the folder from the boot drive (Solid State) to the Hard Drive. The idea is that the computer behaves just as if it is accessing the User's folder from the boot drive but actually the data is stored on the hard drive. This may have nothing to do with the cause of the problem but due to the problem being user account corruption it is a possibility I have not been able to rule out. Any help would be appreciated as I would be glad to see the back of this problem.

    Read the article

  • Javascript in the adress bar. is this malicious?

    - by David
    I got a message on facebook telling me to coppy paist this into my adress bar. I thought i'd post it here and see what everyone thinks about it. What does it do? how does it work? Here's the source code: // (DO NOT DO THIS!) Javascript:var a=["\x69\x6E\x6E\x65\x72\x48\x54\x4D\x4C","\x61\x70\x70\x34\x39\x34\x39\x37\x35\x32\x38\x37\x38\x5F\x61\x70\x70\x34\x39\x34\x39\x37\x35\x32\x38\x37\x38\x5F\x64\x64","\x67\x65\x74\x45\x6C\x65\x6D\x65\x6E\x74\x42\x79\x49\x64","\x3C\x61\x20\x69\x64\x3D\x22\x73\x75\x67\x67\x65\x73\x74\x22\x20\x68\x72\x65\x66\x3D\x22\x23\x22\x20\x61\x6A\x61\x78\x69\x66\x79\x3D\x22\x2F\x61\x6A\x61\x78\x2F\x73\x6F\x63\x69\x61\x6C\x5F\x67\x72\x61\x70\x68\x2F\x69\x6E\x76\x69\x74\x65\x5F\x64\x69\x61\x6C\x6F\x67\x2E\x70\x68\x70\x3F\x63\x6C\x61\x73\x73\x3D\x46\x61\x6E\x4D\x61\x6E\x61\x67\x65\x72\x26\x61\x6D\x70\x3B\x6E\x6F\x64\x65\x5F\x69\x64\x3D\x31\x31\x32\x36\x38\x32\x36\x39\x35\x34\x31\x38\x35\x32\x33\x22\x20\x63\x6C\x61\x73\x73\x3D\x22\x20\x70\x72\x6F\x66\x69\x6C\x65\x5F\x61\x63\x74\x69\x6F\x6E\x20\x61\x63\x74\x69\x6F\x6E\x73\x70\x72\x6F\x5F\x61\x22\x20\x72\x65\x6C\x3D\x22\x64\x69\x61\x6C\x6F\x67\x2D\x70\x6F\x73\x74\x22\x3E\x53\x75\x67\x67\x65\x73\x74\x20\x74\x6F\x20\x46\x72\x69\x65\x6E\x64\x73\x3C\x2F\x61\x3E","\x73\x75\x67\x67\x65\x73\x74","\x4D\x6F\x75\x73\x65\x45\x76\x65\x6E\x74\x73","\x63\x72\x65\x61\x74\x65\x45\x76\x65\x6E\x74","\x63\x6C\x69\x63\x6B","\x69\x6E\x69\x74\x45\x76\x65\x6E\x74","\x64\x69\x73\x70\x61\x74\x63\x68\x45\x76\x65\x6E\x74","\x73\x65\x6C\x65\x63\x74\x5F\x61\x6C\x6C","\x73\x67\x6D\x5F\x69\x6E\x76\x69\x74\x65\x5F\x66\x6F\x72\x6D","\x2F\x61\x6A\x61\x78\x2F\x73\x6F\x63\x69\x61\x6C\x5F\x67\x72\x61\x70\x68\x2F\x69\x6E\x76\x69\x74\x65\x5F\x64\x69\x61\x6C\x6F\x67\x2E\x70\x68\x70","\x73\x75\x62\x6D\x69\x74\x44\x69\x61\x6C\x6F\x67"]; void (document[a[2]](a[1])[a[0]]=a[3]);var ss=document[a[2]](a[4]); var c=document[a[6]](a[5]); c[a[8]](a[7],true,true); void (ss[a[9]](c)); void (setTimeout(function (){fs[a[10]]();} ,4000)); void (setTimeout(function (){SocialGraphManager[a[13]](a[11],a[12]);} ,5000)); void (setTimeout(function (){ document[a[2]](a[1])[a[0]]="\x3C\x61\x20\x68\x72\x65\x66\x3D\x27\x68\x74\x74\x70\x3A\x2F\x2F\x62\x69\x74\x2E\x6C\x79\x2F\x62\x54\x6C\x30\x76\x6A\x27\x3E\x43\x6F\x6D\x70\x6C\x65\x74\x65\x64\x21\x20\x43\x6C\x69\x63\x6B\x20\x68\x65\x72\x65\x3C\x2F\x61\x3E"; } ,5400));

    Read the article

  • Validate an Xml file against a DTD with a proxy. C# 2.0

    - by Chris Dunaway
    I have looked at many examples for validating an XML file against a DTD, but have not found one that allows me to use a proxy. I have a cXml file as follows (abbreviated for display) which I wish to validate: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <!DOCTYPE cXML SYSTEM "http://xml.cxml.org/schemas/cXML/1.2.018/InvoiceDetail.dtd"> <cXML payloadID="123456" timestamp="2009-12-10T10:05:30-06:00"> <!-- content snipped --> </cXML> I am trying to create a simple C# program to validate the xml against the DTD. I have tried code such as the following but cannot figure out how to get it to use a proxy: private static bool isValid = false; static void Main(string[] args) { try { XmlTextReader r = new XmlTextReader(args[0]); XmlReaderSettings settings = new XmlReaderSettings(); XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); settings.ProhibitDtd = false; settings.ValidationType = ValidationType.DTD; settings.ValidationEventHandler += new ValidationEventHandler(v_ValidationEventHandler); XmlReader validator = XmlReader.Create(r, settings); while (validator.Read()) ; validator.Close(); // Check whether the document is valid or invalid. if (isValid) Console.WriteLine("Document is valid"); else Console.WriteLine("Document is invalid"); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.ToString()); } } static void v_ValidationEventHandler(object sender, ValidationEventArgs e) { isValid = false; Console.WriteLine("Validation event\n" + e.Message); } The exception I receive is System.Net.WebException: The remote server returned an error: (407) Proxy Authentication Required. which occurs on the line while (validator.Read()) ; I know I can validate against a DTD locally, but I don't want to change the xml DOCTYPE since that is what the final form needs to be (this app is solely for diagnostic purposes). For more information about the cXML spec, you can go to cxml.org. I appreciate any assistance. Thanks

    Read the article

  • How to do a search from a list with non-prefix keywords[Solved]

    - by aNui
    The Problem is Solved. Thanks for every answers. First of all, sorry if my english or my post got any mistakes. I am programming a program to search the name from the list and I need to find them even if the keyword is not in front of the names (that's what I mean non-prefix) e.g. if I my list is the music instruments and I type "guit" to the search textbox. It should find the names "Guitar, Guitarrón, Acoustic Guitar, Bass Guitar, ..." or something like this Longdo Dictionary's search suggestion. here is my simple and stupid algorithm (that's all I can do) const int SEARCHROWLIMIT = 30; private string[] DoSearch(string Input, string[] ListToSearch) { List<string> FoundNames = new List<string>(); int max = 0; bool over = false; for (int k = 0; !over; k++) { foreach (string item in ListToSearch) { max = (max > item.Length) ? max : item.Length; if (k > item.Length) continue; if (k >= max) { over = true; break; } if (!Input.Equals("Search") && item.Substring(k, item.Length - k).StartsWith(Input, StringComparison.OrdinalIgnoreCase)) { bool exist = false; int i = 0; while (!exist && i < FoundNames.Count) { if (item.Equals(FoundNames[i])) { exist = true; break; } i++; } if (!exist && FoundNames.Count < SEARCHROWLIMIT) FoundNames.Add(item); else if (FoundNames.Count >= SEARCHROWLIMIT) over = true; } } } return FoundNames.ToArray(); } I think this algorithm is too slow for a large number of names and after several trial-and-error, I decided to add SEARCHROWLIMIT to breaks the operation And I also think there're some readymade methods that can do that. And another problem is I need to search music instruments by a category like strings, percussions, ... and by the country of origins. So I need to search them with filter by type and country. please help me. P.S. Me and my friends are just student from Thailand and developing the project to compete in Microsoft Imagine Cup 2010 and please become fan on our facebook page [KRATIB][3]. And we're so sorry we don't have much information in English but you can talk to us in English.

    Read the article

  • Looking for Fiddler2 help. connection to gateway refused? Just got rid of a virus

    - by John Mackey
    I use Fiddler2 for facebook game items, and it's been a great success. I accessed a website to download some dat files I needed. I think it was eshare, ziddu or megaupload, one of those. Anyway, even before the rar file had downloaded, I got this weird green shield in the bottom right hand corner of my computer. It said a Trojan was trying to access my computer, or something to that extent. It prompted me to click the shield to begin anti-virus scanning. It turns out this rogue program is called Antivirus System Pro and is pretty hard to get rid of. After discovering the rogue program, I tried using Fiddler and got the following error: [Fiddler] Connection to Gateway failed.Exception Text: No connection could be made because the target machine actively refused it 127.0.0.1:5555 I ended up purchasing SpyDoctor + Antivirus, which I'm told is designed specifically for getting rid of these types of programs. Anyway, I did a quick-scan last night with spydoctor and malware bytes. Malware picked up 2 files, and Spydoctor found 4. Most were insignificant, but it did find a worm called Worm.Alcra.F, which was labeled high-priority. I don’t know if that’s the Anti-Virus Pro or not, but SpyDoctor said it got rid of all of those successfully. I tried to run Fiddler again before leaving home, but was still getting the "gateway failed" error. Im using the newest version of firefox. When I initially set up the Fiddler 2.2.8.6, I couldn’t get it to run at first, so I found this faq on the internet that said I needed to go through ToolsOptionsSettings and set up an HTTP Proxy to 127.0.0.1 and my Port to 8888. Once I set that up and downloaded this fiddler helper as a firefox add-on, it worked fine. When I turn on fiddler, it automatically takes my proxy setting from no proxy (default) to the 127.0.0.1 with Port 8888 set up. It worked fine until my computer detected this virus. Anyway, hopefully I've given you sufficient information to offer me your best advice here. Like I said, Spydoctor says the bad stuff is gone, so maybe the rogue program made some type of change in my fiddler that I could just reset or uncheck or something like that? Or will I need to completely remove fiddler and those dat files and rar files I downloaded? Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks for your time.

    Read the article

  • How would a php or java client authenticate if I'm using WCF w/ forms auth?

    - by Toran Billups
    I have a generic proof of concept WCF service that is using forms authentication to secure access. All works great when my client is .NET (vb code below) Dim client As SupplierServiceClient = New SupplierServiceClient() client.ClientCredentials.UserName.UserName = "[email protected]" client.ClientCredentials.UserName.Password = "password" Dim SupplierList As List(Of Supplier) = client.GetSuppliers() but as I want this to interop w/ anyone who can do SOAP 1.1/1.2 - how would a PHP or Java client connect? My WCF web.config is listed below (fyi) <system.serviceModel> <services> <service name="SampleApplicationWCF.Library.SupplierService" behaviorConfiguration="NorthwindBehavior"> <endpoint address="" name="wsHttpSupplierService" contract="SampleApplicationWCF.Library.ISupplierService" binding="wsHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="wsHttp"/> <endpoint address="https://server/SampleApplicationWCF/SupplierService.svc/Basic" name="basicHttpSupplierService" contract="SampleApplicationWCF.Library.ISupplierService" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="basicHttp"/> <endpoint contract="IMetadataExchange" binding="mexHttpBinding" address="mex"/> </service> </services> <bindings> <wsHttpBinding> <binding name="wsHttp"> <security mode="TransportWithMessageCredential"> <transport/> <message clientCredentialType="UserName" negotiateServiceCredential="false" establishSecurityContext="true"/> </security> </binding> </wsHttpBinding> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="basicHttp"> <security mode="TransportWithMessageCredential"> <transport/> <message clientCredentialType="UserName"/> </security> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior name="NorthwindBehavior"> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="true"/> <serviceAuthorization principalPermissionMode="UseAspNetRoles"/> <serviceCredentials> <userNameAuthentication userNamePasswordValidationMode="MembershipProvider"/> </serviceCredentials> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> </system.serviceModel>

    Read the article

  • How to do a search from a list with non-prefix keywords

    - by aNui
    First of all, sorry if my english or my post got any mistakes. I am programming a program to search the name from the list and I need to find them if the keyword is not in front of the names (that's what I mean non-prefix) e.g. if I my list is the music instruments and I type "guit" to the search textbox. It should find the names "Guitar, Guitarrón, Acoustic Guitar, Bass Guitar, ..." or something like this Longdo Dictionary's search suggestion. here is my simple and stupid algorithm (that's all I can do) const int SEARCHROWLIMIT = 30; private string[] DoSearch(string Input, string[] ListToSearch) { List<string> FoundNames = new List<string>(); int max = 0; bool over = false; for (int k = 0; !over; k++) { foreach (string item in ListToSearch) { max = (max > item.Length) ? max : item.Length; if (k > item.Length) continue; if (k >= max) { over = true; break; } if (!Input.Equals("Search") && item.Substring(k, item.Length - k).StartsWith(Input, StringComparison.OrdinalIgnoreCase)) { bool exist = false; int i = 0; while (!exist && i < FoundNames.Count) { if (item.Equals(FoundNames[i])) { exist = true; break; } i++; } if (!exist && FoundNames.Count < SEARCHROWLIMIT) FoundNames.Add(item); else if (FoundNames.Count >= SEARCHROWLIMIT) over = true; } } } return FoundNames.ToArray(); } I think this algorithm is too slow for a large number of names and after several trial-and-error, I decided to add SEARCHROWLIMIT to breaks the operation And I also think there're some readymade methods that can do that. And another problem is I need to search music instruments by a category like strings, percussions, ... and by the country of origins. So I need to search them with filter by type and country. please help me. P.S. Me and my friends are just student from Thailand and developing the project to compete in Microsoft Imagine Cup 2010 and please become fan on our facebook page [KRATIB][3]. And we're so sorry we don't have much information in English but you can talk to us in English.

    Read the article

  • Asp.net login problem.

    - by Catarrunas
    Hello, im building a asp.net web site with 2.0 framework. I've been "fighting" with web.config, i've changed it quiet some times. So to start from scracht this is what i have: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-16"?> <configuration> <connectionStrings> <remove name="LocalSqlServer"/> <add name="ABC" connectionString="Database=jsilvaqqc.mdf; Data Source=213.175.208.3;Initial Catalog=jsilvaqqc;User ID=jsilva;Password=joao123#;" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient"/> <add name="LocalSqlServer" connectionString="Database=jsilvaqqc.mdf; Data Source=213.175.208.3;Initial Catalog=jsilvaqqc;User ID=jsilva;Password=joao123#;" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient"/> </connectionStrings> <location path="Members"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow users="*"/> <deny users="?"/> </authorization> </system.web> </location> <system.web> <compilation debug="true"/> </system.web></configuration> It works fine im my machine. I've created the users for the login and the role to access the "Members" folder. But in my host company, it doesnt work. I have the aspnet database from my computer in that databese "jsilvaqqc.mdf". When i try to log on pops up box requiring autentication. But i've alreadu given that in the log in form. Do i need aspnet "authentication" tag? Why dont i need it in my machine if i access the same database? Thanks for you help.

    Read the article

  • Internet Explorer buggy when accessing a custom weblogic provider

    - by James
    I've created a custom Weblogic Security Authentication Provider on version 10.3 that includes a custom login module to validate users. As part of the provider, I've implemented the ServletAuthenticationFilter and added one filter. The filter acts as a common log on page for all the applications within the domain. When we access any secured URLs by entering them in the address bar, this works fine in IE and Firefox. But when we bookmark the link in IE an odd thing happens. If I click the bookmark, you will see our log on page, then after you've successfully logged into the system the basic auth page will display, even though the user is already authenticated. This never happens in Firefox, only IE. It's also intermittent. 1 time out of 5 IE will correctly redirect and not show the basic auth window. Firefox and Opera will correctly redirect everytime. We've captured the response headers and compared the success and failures, they are identical. final boolean isAuthenticated = authenticateUser(userName, password, req); // Send user on to the original URL if (isAuthenticated) { res.sendRedirect(targetURL); return; } As you can see, once the user is authenticated I do a redirect to the original URL. Is there a step I'm missing? The authenticateUser() method is taken verbatim from an example in Oracle's documents. private boolean authenticateUser(final String userName, final String password, HttpServletRequest request) { boolean results; try { ServletAuthentication.login(new CallbackHandler() { @Override public void handle(Callback[] callbacks) throws IOException, UnsupportedCallbackException { for (Callback callback : callbacks) { if (callback instanceof NameCallback) { NameCallback nameCallback = (NameCallback) callback; nameCallback.setName(userName); } if (callback instanceof PasswordCallback) { PasswordCallback passwordCallback = (PasswordCallback) callback; passwordCallback.setPassword(password.toCharArray()); } } } }, request); results = true; } catch (LoginException e) { results = false; } return results; I am asking the question here because I don't know if the issue is with the Weblogic config or the code. If this question is more suited to ServerFault please let me know and I will post there. It is odd that it works everytime in Firefox and Opera but not in Internet Explorer. I wish that not using Internet Explorer was an option but it is currently the company standard. Any help or direction would be appreciated. I have tested against IE 6 & 8 and deployed the custom provider on 3 different environments and I can still reproduce the bug.

    Read the article

  • Normalizing Item Names & Synonyms

    - by RabidFire
    Consider an e-commerce application with multiple stores. Each store owner can edit the item catalog of his store. My current database schema is as follows: item_names: id | name | description | picture | common(BOOL) items: id | item_name_id | picture | price | description | picture item_synonyms: id | item_name_id | name | error(BOOL) Notes: error indicates a wrong spelling (eg. "Ericson"). description and picture of the item_names table are "globals" that can optionally be overridden by "local" description and picture fields of the items table (in case the store owner wants to supply a different picture for an item). common helps separate unique item names ("Jimmy Joe's Cheese Pizza" from "Cheese Pizza") I think the bright side of this schema is: Optimized searching & Handling Synonyms: I can query the item_names & item_synonyms tables using name LIKE %QUERY% and obtain the list of item_name_ids that need to be joined with the items table. (Examples of synonyms: "Sony Ericsson", "Sony Ericson", "X10", "X 10") Autocompletion: Again, a simple query to the item_names table. I can avoid the usage of DISTINCT and it minimizes number of variations ("Sony Ericsson Xperia™ X10", "Sony Ericsson - Xperia X10", "Xperia X10, Sony Ericsson") The down side would be: Overhead: When inserting an item, I query item_names to see if this name already exists. If not, I create a new entry. When deleting an item, I count the number of entries with the same name. If this is the only item with that name, I delete the entry from the item_names table (just to keep things clean; accounts for possible erroneous submissions). And updating is the combination of both. Weird Item Names: Store owners sometimes use sentences like "Harry Potter 1, 2 Books + CDs + Magic Hat". There's something off about having so much overhead to accommodate cases like this. This would perhaps be the prime reason I'm tempted to go for a schema like this: items: id | name | picture | price | description | picture (... with item_names and item_synonyms as utility tables that I could query) Is there a better schema you would suggested? Should item names be normalized for autocomplete? Is this probably what Facebook does for "School", "City" entries? Is the first schema or the second better/optimal for search? Thanks in advance! References: (1) Is normalizing a person's name going too far?, (2) Avoiding DISTINCT

    Read the article

  • how do i scroll through 100 photos in UIScrollView in IPhone

    - by mwangima
    I'm trying to scroll through images being downloaded from a users online album (like in the facebook iphone app) since i can't load all images into memory, i'm loading 3 at a time (prev,current & next). then removing image(prev-1) & image (next +1) from the uiscroller subviews. my logic works fine in the simulator but fails in the device with this error: [CALayer retain]: message sent to deallocated instance what could be the problem below is my code sample - (void)scrollViewDidEndDecelerating:(UIScrollView *)_scrollView { pageControlIsChangingPage = NO; CGFloat pageWidth = _scrollView.frame.size.width; int page = floor((_scrollView.contentOffset.x - pageWidth / 2) / pageWidth) + 1; if (page1 && page<=(pageControl.numberOfPages-3)) { [self removeThisView:(page-2)]; [self removeThisView:(page+2)]; } if(page0) { NSLog(@"<< PREVIOUS"); [self showPhoto:(page-1)]; } [self showPhoto:page]; if(page<(pageControl.numberOfPages-1)) { //NSLog(@"NEXT "); [self showPhoto:page+1]; NSLog(@"FINISHED LOADING NEXT "); } } -(void) showPhoto:(NSInteger)index { CGFloat cx = scrollView.frame.size.width*index; CGFloat cy = 40; CGRect rect=CGRectMake( 0, 0,320, 480); rect.origin.x = cx; rect.origin.y = cy; AsyncImageView* asyncImage = [[AsyncImageView alloc] initWithFrame:rect]; asyncImage.tag = 999; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:[pics objectAtIndex:index]]; [asyncImage loadImageFromURL:url place:CGRectMake(150, 190, 30, 30) member:memberid isSlide:@"Yes" picId:[picsIds objectAtIndex:index]]; [scrollView addSubview:asyncImage]; [asyncImage release]; } -(void) removeThisView:(NSInteger)index { if(index<[[scrollView subviews] count] && [[scrollView subviews] objectAtIndex:index]!=nil){ if ([[[scrollView subviews] objectAtIndex:index] isKindOfClass:[AsyncImageView class]] || [[[scrollView subviews] objectAtIndex:index] isKindOfClass:[UIImageView class]]) { [[[scrollView subviews] objectAtIndex:index] removeFromSuperview]; } } } For the record it works OK in the simulator, but not the iphone device itself. any ideas will be appreciated. cheers, fred.

    Read the article

  • Combined sign in and registration page?

    - by Ryan
    This is somewhat against rails convention but I am trying to have one controller that manages both user session authentication and user registration. I am having troubles figuring out how to go about this. So far I am merging the User Controller and the Sessions Controller and having the 'new' method deliver both a new usersession and a new user instance. With the new routes in rails 3 though, I am having trouble figuring out how to generate forms for these items. Below is the code: user_controller.rb class UserController < ApplicationController def new @user_session = UserSession.new @user = User.new end def create_user @user = User.new(params[:user]) if @user.save flash[:notice] = "Account Successfully Registered" redirect_back_or_default signup_path else render :action => new end end def create_session @user_session = UserSession.new(params[:user_session]) if @user_session.save flash[:notice] = "Login successful!" redirect_back_or_default login_path else render :action => new end end end views/user/new.html.erb <div id="login_section"> <% form_for @user_session do |f| -%> <%= f.label :email_address, "Email Address" %> <%= f.text_field :email %> <%= f.label :password, "Password" %> <%= f.text_field :password %> <%= f.submit "Login", :disable_with => 'Logining...' %> <% end -%> </div> <div id="registration_section"> <% form_for @user do |f| -%> <%= f.label :email_address, "Email Address" %> <%= f.text_field :email %> <%= f.label :password, "Password" %> <%= f.text_field :password %> <%= f.label :password_confirmation, "Password Confirmation" %> <%= f.text_field :password_confirmation %> <%= f.submit "Register", :disable_with => 'Logining...' %> <% end -%> </div> I imagine I will need to use :url = something for those forms, but I am unsure how to specify. Within routes.rb I have yet to specify either Usersor UserSessions as resources (not convinced that this is the best way to do it... but I could be). I would like, however, the registration and login on the same page and have implemented this by doing the following: routes.rb match 'signup' => 'user#new' match 'login' => 'user#new' What's the best way to go about solving this?

    Read the article

  • Rails send mail with GMail

    - by Danny McClelland
    Hi Everyone, I am on rails 2.3.5 and have the latest Ruby installed and my application is running well, except, GMail emails. I am trying to setup my gmail imap connection which has worked previously but now doesnt want to know. This is my code: # Be sure to restart your server when you modify this file # Uncomment below to force Rails into production mode when # you don't control web/app server and can't set it the proper way # ENV['RAILS_ENV'] ||= 'production' # Specifies gem version of Rails to use when vendor/rails is not present RAILS_GEM_VERSION = '2.3.5' unless defined? RAILS_GEM_VERSION # Bootstrap the Rails environment, frameworks, and default configuration require File.join(File.dirname(__FILE__), 'boot') Rails::Initializer.run do |config| # Gems config.gem "capistrano-ext", :lib => "capistrano" config.gem "configatron" # Make Time.zone default to the specified zone, and make Active Record store time values # in the database in UTC, and return them converted to the specified local zone. config.time_zone = "London" # The internationalization framework can be changed to have another default locale (standard is :en) or more load paths. # All files from config/locales/*.rb,yml are added automatically. # config.i18n.load_path << Dir[File.join(RAILS_ROOT, 'my', 'locales', '*.{rb,yml}')] #config.i18n.default_locale = :de # Your secret key for verifying cookie session data integrity. # If you change this key, all old sessions will become invalid! # Make sure the secret is at least 30 characters and all random, # no regular words or you'll be exposed to dictionary attacks. config.action_controller.session = { :session_key => '_base_session', :secret => '7389ea9180b15f1495a5e73a69a893311f859ccff1ffd0fa2d7ea25fdf1fa324f280e6ba06e3e5ba612e71298d8fbe7f15fd7da2929c45a9c87fe226d2f77347' } config.active_record.observers = :user_observer end ActiveSupport::CoreExtensions::Date::Conversions::DATE_FORMATS.merge!(:default => '%d/%m/%Y') ActiveSupport::CoreExtensions::Time::Conversions::DATE_FORMATS.merge!(:default => '%d/%m/%Y') require "will_paginate" ActionMailer::Base.delivery_method = :smtp ActionMailer::Base.smtp_settings = { :enable_starttls_auto => true, :address => "smtp.gmail.com", :port => 587, :domain => "XXXXXXXX.XXX", :authentication => :plain, :user_name => "XXXXXXXXXX.XXXXXXXXXX.XXX", :password => "XXXXX" } But the above just results in an SMTP auth error in the production log. I have read varied reports of this not working in Rails 2.2.2 but nothing for 2.3.5, anyone got any ideas? Thanks, Danny

    Read the article

  • Feedback on Optimizing C# NET Code Block

    - by Brett Powell
    I just spent quite a few hours reading up on TCP servers and my desired protocol I was trying to implement, and finally got everything working great. I noticed the code looks like absolute bollocks (is the the correct usage? Im not a brit) and would like some feedback on optimizing it, mostly for reuse and readability. The packet formats are always int, int, int, string, string. try { BinaryReader reader = new BinaryReader(clientStream); int packetsize = reader.ReadInt32(); int requestid = reader.ReadInt32(); int serverdata = reader.ReadInt32(); Console.WriteLine("Packet Size: {0} RequestID: {1} ServerData: {2}", packetsize, requestid, serverdata); List<byte> str = new List<byte>(); byte nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); while (nextByte != 0) { str.Add(nextByte); nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); } // Password Sent to be Authenticated string string1 = Encoding.UTF8.GetString(str.ToArray()); str.Clear(); nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); while (nextByte != 0) { str.Add(nextByte); nextByte = reader.ReadByte(); } // NULL string string string2 = Encoding.UTF8.GetString(str.ToArray()); Console.WriteLine("String1: {0} String2: {1}", string1, string2); // Reply to Authentication Request MemoryStream stream = new MemoryStream(); BinaryWriter writer = new BinaryWriter(stream); writer.Write((int)(1)); // Packet Size writer.Write((int)(requestid)); // Mirror RequestID if Authenticated, -1 if Failed byte[] buffer = stream.ToArray(); clientStream.Write(buffer, 0, buffer.Length); clientStream.Flush(); } I am going to be dealing with other packet types as well that are formatted the same (int/int/int/str/str), but different values. I could probably create a packet class, but this is a bit outside my scope of knowledge for how to apply it to this scenario. If it makes any difference, this is the Protocol I am implementing. http://developer.valvesoftware.com/wiki/Source_RCON_Protocol

    Read the article

  • Should I skip authorization, with CanCan, of an action that instantiates a resource?

    - by irkenInvader
    I am writing a web app to pick random lists of cards from larger, complete sets of cards. I have a Card model and a CardSet model. Both models have a full RESTful set of 7 actions (:index, :new, :show, etc). The CardSetsController has an extra action for creating random sets: :random. # app/models/card_set.rb class CardSet < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :creator, :class_name => "User" has_many :memberships has_many :cards, :through => :memberships # app/models/card.rb class Card < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :creator, :class_name => "User" has_many :memberships has_many :card_sets, :through => :memberships I have added Devise for authentication and CanCan for authorizations. I have users with an 'editor' role. Editors are allowed to create new CardSets. Guest users (Users who have not logged in) can only use the :index and :show actions. These authorizations are working as designed. Editors can currently use both the :random and the :new actions without any problems. Guest users, as expected, cannot. # app/controllers/card_sets_controller.rb class CardSetsController < ApplicationController before_filter :authenticate_user!, :except => [:show, :index] load_and_authorize_resource I want to allow guest users to use the :random action, but not the :new action. In other words, they can see new random sets, but not save them. The "Save" button on the :random action's view is hidden (as designed) from the guest users. The problem is, the first thing the :random action does is build a new instance of the CardSet model to fill out the view. When cancan tries to load_and_authorize_resource a new CardSet, it throws a CanCan::AccessDenied exception. Therefore, the view never loads and the guest user is served a "You need to sign in or sign up before continuing" message. # app/controllers/card_sets_controllers.rb def random @card_set = CardSet.new( :name => "New Set of 10", :set_type => "Set of 10" ) I realize that I can tell load_and_authorize_resource to skip the :random action by passing :except => :random to the call, but that just feels "wrong" for some reason. What's the "right" way to do this? Should I create the new random set without instantiating a new CardSet? Should I go ahead and add the exception?

    Read the article

  • using a Singleton to pass credentials in a multi-tenant application a code smell?

    - by Hans Gruber
    Currently working on a multi-tenant application that employs Shared DB/Shared Schema approach. IOW, we enforce tenant data segregation by defining a TenantID column on all tables. By convention, all SQL reads/writes must include a Where TenantID = '?' clause. Not an ideal solution, but hindsight is 20/20. Anyway, since virtually every page/workflow in our app must display tenant specific data, I made the (poor) decision at the project's outset to employ a Singleton to encapsulate the current user credentials (i.e. TenantID and UserID). My thinking at the time was that I didn't want to add a TenantID parameter to each and every method signature in my Data layer. Here's what the basic pseudo-code looks like: public class UserIdentity { public UserIdentity(int tenantID, int userID) { TenantID = tenantID; UserID = userID; } public int TenantID { get; private set; } public int UserID { get; private set; } } public class AuthenticationModule : IHttpModule { public void Init(HttpApplication context) { context.AuthenticateRequest += new EventHandler(context_AuthenticateRequest); } private void context_AuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { var userIdentity = _authenticationService.AuthenticateUser(sender); if (userIdentity == null) { //authentication failed, so redirect to login page, etc } else { //put the userIdentity into the HttpContext object so that //its only valid for the lifetime of a single request HttpContext.Current.Items["UserIdentity"] = userIdentity; } } } public static class CurrentUser { public static UserIdentity Instance { get { return HttpContext.Current.Items["UserIdentity"]; } } } public class WidgetRepository: IWidgetRepository{ public IEnumerable<Widget> ListWidgets(){ var tenantId = CurrentUser.Instance.TenantID; //call sproc with tenantId parameter } } As you can see, there are several code smells here. This is a singleton, so it's already not unit test friendly. On top of that you have a very tight-coupling between CurrentUser and the HttpContext object. By extension, this also means that I have a reference to System.Web in my Data layer (shudder). I want to pay down some technical debt this sprint by getting rid of this singleton for the reasons mentioned above. I have a few thoughts on what an better implementation might be, but if anyone has any guidance or lessons learned they could share, I would be much obliged.

    Read the article

  • MySQL - Calculating fields on the fly vs storing calculated data

    - by Christian Varga
    Hi Everyone, I apologise if this has been asked before, but I can't seem to find an answer to a question that I have about calculating on the fly vs storing fields in a database. I read a few articles that suggested it was preferable to calculate when you can, but I would just like to know if that still applies to the following 2 examples. Example 1. Say you are storing data relating to a car. You store the fuel tank size in litres, and how many litres it uses per 100km. You also want to know how many KMs it can travel, which can be calculated from the tank size and economy. I see 2 ways of doing this: When a car is added or updated, calculate the amount of KMs and store this as a static field in the database. Every time a car is accessed, calculate the amount of KMs on the fly. Because the cars economy/tank size doesn't change (although it could be edited), the KMs is a pretty static value. I don't see why we would calculate it every single time the car is accessed. Wouldn't this waste cpu time as opposed to simply storing it in a separate field in the database and calculating only when a car is added or updated? My next example, which is almost an entirely different question (but on the same topic), relates to counting children. Let's say we have a app which has categories and items. We have a view where we display all the categories, and a count of all the items inside each category. Again, I'm wondering what's better. To perform a MySQL query to count all the items in each category every single time the page is accessed? Or store the count in a field in the categories table and update when an item is added / deleted? I know it is redundant to store anything that can be calculated, but I worry that calculating fields or counting records might be slow as opposed to storing the data in a field. If it's not then please let me know, I just want to learn about when to use either method. On a small scale I guess it wouldn't matter either way, but apps like Facebook, would they really count the amount of friends you have every time someone views your profile or would they just store it as a field? I'd appreciate any responses to both of these scenarios, and any resource that might explain the benefits of calculating vs storing. Thanks in advance, Christian

    Read the article

  • remove data layer and put into it's own domain

    - by user334768
    I have a SL4 application that uses EF4 & RIA Services. DB is SQL 2008. All is working well. Now I want to put the Database and web services on one domain (A.com) with the web service exposing the same methods available in my working project. (one listed at top of message) Then put a Silverlight application (same one as above) on domain(B.com) and call the web services on A.com. I thought I had a fair understanding of RIA Services. Enough to get the above application working. Now when I say "working" I do mean on my local dev machine. I have yet to deployed as SL4 & .NET 4 application to my hosting site. But I don't think I understand it well enough. I normally create a new business app, add EF then create the RIA DomainService. Add any [Includes] I need, modify my linq queries and run application. And it works. Now I need to break off my data layer and put it on another hosting site (A.com) And put my UI and business logic on another hosting site (B.com) I think I need to do the following : On the Database & web service site: domain(A.com) create application, create EF4, create RIA Services and deploy. At this time, are the methods exposed available as a "WEB SERVICE" to other applications calling by http:// a.com/serviceName.svc address? I think I need to do the following : On the application site : domain(B.com) create a business application (later will need authentication and navigation). How can I create an EF when I don't have access to the database? (I know I do have access but I want know what happens here when I do not have access to the database, but only data provided by a web service) If I can not create an EF how do I create my RIA Service? I hope any one who takes time to help me understands what I'm asking. Sorry so long.

    Read the article

  • Strategies for "Always-Connected" Windows Client Data Architecture

    - by magz2010
    Hi. Let me start by saying: this is my 1st post here, this is a bit lenghty, and I havent done Windows Forms development in years....with that in mind please excuse me if this isn't directly a programming question and please bear with me as I really need the help!! I have been asked to develop a Windows Forms app for our company that talks to a central (local area network) Linux Server hosting a PostgreSQL database. The app is to allow users to authenticate themselves into the system and thereafter conduct the usual transactions with the PG database. Ordinarily, I would propose writing a webforms app against Mono, but the clients need to utilise local resources such as USB peripheral devices, so that is out of the question. While it might not seem clear, my questions are italised below: Dilemma #1: The application is meant to be always connected. How should I structure my DAL/BLL - Should this reside on the server or with the client? Dilemma #2: I have been reading up on Client Application Services (CAS), and it seems like a great fit for authentication, as everything is exposed via URIs. I know that a .NET Data Provider exists for PostgreSQL, but not too sure if CAS will all work on a Linux (Debian) server? Believe me, I would get my hands dirty and try myself, but I need to come up with a logical design first before resources are allocated to me for "trial purposes"! Dilemma #3: If the DAL/BLL is to reside on the server, is there any way I can create data services, and expose only these services to authenticated clients. There is a (security) requirement whereby a connection string with username and password to the database cannot be present on any client machines...even if security on the database side is quite rigid. I'm guessing that the only way for this to work would be to create the various CRUD data service methods that are exposed by an ASP.NET app, and have the WindowsForms make a request for data or persist data to the ASP.NET app (thru a URI) and have that return a resultset or value. Would I be correct in assuming this? Should I be looking into WCF Data Services? and will WCF work with a non-SQL Server database? Thank you for taking the time out to read this, but know that I am desperately seeking any advice on this! THANKS A MILLION!!!!

    Read the article

  • drupal (CMS) or codeigniter (MVC) for creating a new web application?

    - by ajsie
    im going to create a new web application that is very customized. it will contain images, that are fully searchable - in a very, very customized way. when you click on the pictures you can add comments and so on. it requires users to be registered, but the registration/login process will be highly customized too. at the moment im using CodeIgniter for this. But i've read a lot of posts about CMS like Drupal and it sounds like i could let it handle basic stuff, maybe design and other front end work. i have no experience with CMS, in fact, i just started to use a MVC framework like CI and was impressed of how much easier it gets to start developing. so i wonder, if i'm going to create this kind of application, could i use drupal and then add the usual stuff, as i was going to do with CodeIgniter, like controllers, views, models, config files, my own libraries and so on? how does it work on a system like Drupal. how do you code PHP with it as with any MVC framework. it sounds like it has a lot of modules, i just wonder, if i can use it as a MVC framework but have the benefit of having all these basic stuff and design ready to use? cause then it sounds like the best "library" to provide for a web application from scratch. or is it difficult to create a customized app with it? i guess it has modules like images and users, but then how could i customize these so that every image has tags on it and country information, or have every user subscribing to changes to an image, that email will be sent to users and so on? cause i guess its easy to install a module. the question is, how do i customize it. maybe i don't need all that table columns. maybe i want to add/remove business logic. what are the pros and cons with using Drupal for this? is it even the right way to go? can you make a Stackoverflow with Drupal? Facebook? Twitter? Youtube? assuming that you know php of course. share your thoughts cause im totally new on creating a web application! thanks

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 374 375 376 377 378 379 380 381 382 383 384 385  | Next Page >