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  • Filter subform using combobox

    - by TT1611
    This has taken me nearly 2 weeks and I dont know what else to do. I have a main form (UserSearch) that has a subform (TestUserSub). The associated table for both forms is tblusers. very simple; on the main form (UserSearch) I have a comboboxes associated with the fields in the tblusers eg cmbid, cmbname, cmbdept and so on. All I want, is for a user to make a selection from any of these comboboxes and for the associated fields to display in the subform (TestUserSub). I have tried several different versions of code in the afterupdate event in a couple of the comboboxes and nothing is happening in the subform or in other instances I get error message. One example i have tried is filtering running an SQL command Private Sub cmbid_AfterUpdate() Dim strSQL As String If IsNull(Me.cmbaccess) Then Me.RecordSource = "tblusers" Else strSQL = "SELECT tblUsers.[Team Member_ID] FROM tblUsers " & _ "WHERE (((tblUsers.[Team Member_ID])= " & [form_testusersub].[txtid2]))& ";" Me.RecordSource = strSQL End If End Sub The above didnt work..Can someone please help me with this. I have a sample database that i have been working off and by some very strange way, they have managed to do this same thing without calling any code. Is this possible?

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  • why unsigned int 0xFFFFFFFF is equal to int -1?

    - by conejoroy
    perhaps it's a very stupid question but I'm having a hard time figuring this out =) in C or C++ it is said that the maximum number a size_t (an unsigned int data type) can hold is the same as casting -1 to that data type. for example see http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1420982/invalid-value-for-sizet Why?? I'm confused.. I mean, (talking about 32 bit ints) AFAIK the most significant bit holds the sign in a signed data type (that is, bit 0x80000000 to form a negative number). then, 1 is 0x00000001.. 0x7FFFFFFFF is the greatest positive number a int data type can hold. then, AFAIK the binary representation of -1 int should be 0x80000001 (perhaps I'm wrong). why/how this binary value is converted to anything completely different (0xFFFFFFFF) when casting ints to unsigned?? or.. how is it possible to form a binary -1 out of 0xFFFFFFFF? I have no doubt that in C: ((unsigned int)-1) == 0xFFFFFFFF or ((int)0xFFFFFFFF) == -1 is equally true than 1 + 1 == 2, I'm just wondering why. thanks!

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  • internal compiler error

    - by hyperboreean
    I am getting this message: internal compiler error: Segmentation fault Please submit a full bug report, with preprocessed source if appropriate. See <file:///usr/share/doc/gcc-4.4/README.Bugs> for instructions. for every compilation that takes longer (ie: linux kernel, kde sources etc.) I've tried other OS (at that moment I was on Fedora 12, now on Debian; was a Suse also) and it didn't work. I've tried replacing my hard disk, since it needed an upgrade either ways - that didn't work either. I assumed that it's the RAM fault - tested them with memtest and it says they are fine. Does anyone know what else I can do in order to figure out where the problem is?

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  • Checkbox in an email

    - by Austin
    I am creating an email using the c# MailMessage and I am trying to add a checkbox that doesn't need to be clicked. The checkboxes will be used for a checklist of what to bring to an event (like a packing list). I have: MailMessage objEmail = new MailMessage(); objEmail.From = new MailAddress("[email protected]"); objEmail.To.Add(new MailAddress("[email protected]")); objEmail.CC.Add(new MailAddress("[email protected]")); objEmail.Bcc.Add(new MailAddress("[email protected]")); objEmail.Subject = "Packing list!"; objEmail.IsBodyHtml = true; objEmail.Body = @"<div width=""800px""> <h3>WHAT TO BRING</h3> <form> <input type=""checkbox"" name=""item"" value=""shirt"">Shirt<br> <input type=""checkbox"" name=""item"" value=""shoes"">Shoes </form></div>"; but when I send the email the checkboxes do not appear in the list. Output in outlook using outlook.com: WHAT TO BRING I have a bike I have a car Output in outlook using Microsoft Outlook: WHAT TO BRING [ ]I have a bike [ ]I have a car Output in outlook using hotmail.com: WHAT TO BRING I have a bike []I have a car So the problem is with the mail client but it is inconsistent what the problem is. I s there any way to make a consistent output? Is there a way with html that works to create the checkboxes or do I just need to include images of a checkbox? Thanks in advance.

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  • Refresh iFrame (Cache Issue)

    - by Ramiz Uddin
    We are getting a weird issue on which we are not sure what exactly cause it. Let me elaborate the issue. Suppose, we have two different html pages a.html and b.html. And a little script written in index.html: <html> <head> <script> function reloadFrame(iframe, src) { iframe.src = src; } </script> </head> <body> <form> <iframe id="myFrame"></iframe> <input type="button" value="Load a.html" onclick="reloadFrame(document.getElementById('myFrame'), 'a.html')"> <input type="button" value="Load b.html" onclick="reloadFrame(document.getElementById('myFrame'), 'b.html')"> </form> </body> </html> A server component is continuously updating both files a.html and b.html. The problem is the content of both files are successfully updating on the server side. If we open we can see the updated changes but client getting the older content which doesn't show the updated changes. Any idea?

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  • Django: Overriding the save() method: how do I call the delete() method of a child class

    - by Patti
    The setup = I have this class, Transcript: class Transcript(models.Model): body = models.TextField('Body') doPagination = models.BooleanField('Paginate') numPages = models.PositiveIntegerField('Number of Pages') and this class, TranscriptPages(models.Model): class TranscriptPages(models.Model): transcript = models.ForeignKey(Transcript) order = models.PositiveIntegerField('Order') content = models.TextField('Page Content', null=True, blank=True) The Admin behavior I’m trying to create is to let a user populate Transcript.body with the entire contents of a long document and, if they set Transcript.doPagination = True and save the Transcript admin, I will automatically split the body into n Transcript pages. In the admin, TranscriptPages is a StackedInline of the Transcript Admin. To do this I’m overridding Transcript’s save method: def save(self): if self.doPagination: #do stuff super(Transcript, self).save() else: super(Transcript, self).save() The problem = When Transcript.doPagination is True, I want to manually delete all of the TranscriptPages that reference this Transcript so I can then create them again from scratch. So, I thought this would work: #do stuff TranscriptPages.objects.filter(transcript__id=self.id).delete() super(Transcript, self).save() but when I try I get this error: Exception Type: ValidationError Exception Value: [u'Select a valid choice. That choice is not one of the available choices.'] ... and this is the last thing in the stack trace before the exception is raised: .../django/forms/models.py in save_existing_objects pk_value = form.fields[pk_name].clean(raw_pk_value) Other attempts to fix: t = self.transcriptpages_set.all().delete() (where self = Transcript from the save() method) looping over t (above) and deleting each item individually making a post_save signal on TranscriptPages that calls the delete method Any ideas? How does the Admin do it? UPDATE: Every once in a while as I'm playing around with the code I can get a different error (below), but then it just goes away and I can't replicate it again... until the next random time. Exception Type: MultiValueDictKeyError Exception Value: "Key 'transcriptpages_set-0-id' not found in " Exception Location: .../django/utils/datastructures.py in getitem, line 203 and the last lines from the trace: .../django/forms/models.py in _construct_form form = super(BaseInlineFormSet, self)._construct_form(i, **kwargs) .../django/utils/datastructures.py in getitem pk = self.data[pk_key]

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  • Google Apps claims my domain is registered but when I try to access it claims it is not

    - by user32953
    Hi all, we have registered one of our domains with Google Apps 2 years ago. However, we didn't even use it. Now if I try to access: http://google.com/a/mydomain.com What I see is: Server error Sorry, you've reached a login page for a domain that isn't using Google Apps. Please check the web address and try again. Then I go to Google Apps Standard Edition signup page and type mydomain.com. However, what I get is: This domain has already been registered with Google Apps. Please contact your domain administrator for instructions on using Google Apps with this domain. Is there anyone who can explain me what this inconsistency is caused by and what I can do? Since Google Apps Standard Edition doesn't grant me to contact with Google, I can't even submit a bug report. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Cannot edit values of DataGridView bound to a BindingList

    - by m_oLogin
    Hello community, I have trouble editing a databound bindinglist. Let me illustrate it with the following: Say I have the Person class: public Class Person{ private string m_firstname; private string m_lastname; public string FirstName{get;set;} public string LastName{get;set;} public Person{ ... } } I then have a containing class called Population: public class Population{ private BindingList<Person> m_lstPerson = new BindingList<Person>(); private string m_countryName; public BindingList<Person> ListPerson{get; set;} public string CountryName { get; set; } } I then have on one form a first datagridview with DataSource = m_lstPopulation (BindingList). The binding works like a charm when working with the Population objects. When I double click, it opens up a dialog form showing the object details. One tab in the details holds a datagridview bound to that population's ListPerson. The second datagridview displays fine. However, I cannot edit or add cells in this datagridview. None of the columns is set to read-only. In fact, both datagridview have just about the same parameters. What am I missing? It seems that a lock has been placed on the Population object so that its inner fields cannot be edited... Please advise. Thanks.

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  • algorithm || method to write prog

    - by fatai
    I am one of the computer science student. My wonder is everyone solve problem with different or same method, but actually I dont know whether they use method or I dont know whether there are such common method to approach problem. All teacher give us problem which in simple form sometimes, but they dont introduce any approach or method(s) so that we can first choose method then apply that one to problem , afterward find solution then write code. I have found one method when I failed the course, More accurately, When I counter problem in language , I will get more paper and then ; first, input/ output step ; my prog will take this / these there argument(s) and return namely X , ex : in c, input length is not known and at same type , so I must use pointer desired output is in form of package , so use structure second, execution part ; in that step , I am writing all step which are goes to final output ex : in python ; 1.) [ + , [- , 4 , [ * , 1 , 2 ]], 5] 2.) [ + , [- , 4 , 2 ],5 ] 3.) [ + , 2 , 5] 4.) 7 ==> return 7 third, I will write test code ex : in c++ input : append 3 4 5 6 vector_x remove 0 1 desired output vector_x holds : 5 6 But now, I wonder other method ; used to construct class :::: for c++ , python, java used to communicate classes / computers used for solving embedded system problem ::::: for c Why I wonder , because I learn if you dont costruct algorithm on paper, you may achieve your goal. Like no money no lunch , I can say no algorithm no prog therefore , feel free when you write your own method , a way which is introduced by someone else but you are using and you find it is so efficient

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  • How can Firefox masquerade as Chrome?

    - by Christos Jonathan Hayward
    I have access to Firefox but not Chrome under XP. I would like extensions to make it more Chrome-like: in particular, 1: A tabbed theme that works like Chrome. 2: One address/search bar that will go to URLs and submit search queries appropriately. (I have already installed "Download Statusbar.") I am looking on a relatively superficial level; I'm not hoping to simulate V8 or Chrome's screaming render times. But I would like a setup that minimally breaks the illusion for someone accustomed to Chrome.

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  • Connection Reset by Peer error with Apache and JBoss 7.1.1

    - by vikingz
    We are seeing errors on some of our QA testing scripts that intermittently throw Connection Reset By Peer errors. The Test scripts submit requests via F5 which forwards requests to Apache (2.2.21) with a mod_jk load_balancer with the following setting for each worker in the worker.property worker1 props worker.worker1.type=ajp13 worker.worker1.port=8109 worker.worker1.lbfactor=1 worker.worker1.host=skunkhost1.com worker.worker1.connection_pool_timeout=30 and here is what is in the JBoss domain.xml for the AJP port from JBoss 7.1.1 <unbounded-queue-thread-pool name="SKUNKY.APP.AJP"> <max-threads count="300"/> <keepalive-time time="3" unit="minutes"/> </unbounded-queue-thread-pool> Here is httpd.conf Timeout 300 KeepAlive On KeepAliveTimeout 15 MaxKeepAliveRequests 100 TraceEnable Off My question is that is it posisbe that apache times out and closes the connection while jboss is still ready and working on the request? What might be causing the Connection Reset By Peer error?what am i missing here? Any help is majorly appreciated!! Sincerely KK

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  • C#.NET DataGridView - update database

    - by Geo Ego
    I know this is a basic function of the DataGridView, but for some reason, I just can't get it to work. I just want the DataGridView on my Windows form to submit any changes made to it to the database when the user clicks the "Save" button. On form load, I populate the DataGridView and that's working fine. In my save function, I basically have the following (I've trimmed out some of the code around it to get to the point): using (SqlDataAdapter ruleTableDA = new SqlDataAdapter("SELECT rule.fldFluteType AS [Flute], rule.fldKnife AS [Knife], rule.fldScore AS [Score], rule.fldLowKnife AS [Low Knife], rule.fldMatrixScore AS [Matrix Score], rule.fldMatrix AS [Matrix] FROM dbo.tblRuleTypes rule WHERE rule.fldMachine_ID = '1003'", con)) { SqlCommandBuilder commandBuilder = new SqlCommandBuilder(ruleTableDA); DataTable dt = new DataTable(); dt = RuleTable.DataSource as DataTable; ruleTableDA.Fill(dt); ruleTableDA.Update(dt); } Okay, so I edited the code to do the following: build the commands, create a DataTable based on the DataGridView (RuleTable), fill the DataAdapter with the DataTable, and update the database. Now ruleTableDA.Update(dt) is throwing the exception "Concurrency violation: the UpdateCommand affected 0 of the expected 1 records." Thanks very much!

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  • PHP strtotime() looks like it is expecting a Euro format

    - by Jason Rhodes
    I've been using PHP's strtotime() method to accept a date field on a form. I love how powerful it is, in how it will accept "Tomorrow", "Next Thursday", or (supposedly) any date representation and convert it to the Unix timestamp. It's been working great -- until yesterday. Someone entered "2-4-10" and instead of logging Feb 4th, 2010, it logged April 10, 2002! So it expected Y-M-D instead of M-D-Y. I thought maybe the problem was just using a 2-digit year, so we tried again with "2-4-2010". That logged April 2nd, 2010! At that point I just don't understand what strtotime() is doing. PHP.net says it expects a US English date format. Why then would it assume D-M-Y? Is there a way around this? Or do I have to stop using strtotime()? Note: I just now did a test. When you use slashes instead of hyphen/dashes, it works fine, even with 2/4/10. Why on earth does that matter? And if that's all it is, should I just run str_replace("-", "/", $input) on the form input before passing it to strtotime()?

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  • Add row to GridView after header row

    - by Jan-Frederik Carl
    I have a GridView with a header and some rows and want to add another row just below the header using jQuery. <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" ShowHeader="true" runat="server"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Activity Name"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label runat="server" Text='<%# DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "Name") %>'></asp:Label> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> <asp:Button Text="Add Activity" runat="server" OnClientClick="addActivity(); return false;" /> </div> </form> My tries were $('#GridView1 tbody').prepend('<tr><td>new activity</td></tr>'); Puts a new row above the header $('#GridView1 table tr:first').after('<tr><td>new activity</td></tr>'); Does nothing (at least nothing visible, as well with any other tr element)

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  • Posting forms to a 404 + HttpHandler in IIS7: why has all POST data gone missing?

    - by Rahul
    OK, this might sound a bit confusing and complicated, so bear with me. We've written a framework that allows us to define friendly URLs. If you surf to any arbitrary URL, IIS tries to display a 404 error (or, in some cases, 403;14 or 405). However, IIS is set up so that anything directed to those specific errors is sent to an .aspx file. This allows us to implement an HttpHandler to handle the request and do stuff, which involves finding the an associated template and then executing whatever's associated with it. Now, this all works in IIS 5 and 6 and, to an extent, on IIS7 - but for one catch, which happens when you post a form. See, when you post a form to a non-existent URL, IIS says "ah, but that url doesn't exist" and throws a 405 "method not allowed" error. Since we're telling IIS to redirect those errors to our .aspx page and therefore handling it with our HttpHandler, this normally isn't a problem. But as of IIS7, all POST information has gone missing after being redirected to the 405. And so you can no longer do the most trivial of things involving forms. To solve this we've tried using a HttpModule, which preserves POST data but appears to not have an initialized Session at the right time (when it's needed). We also tried using a HttpModule for all requests, not just the missing requests that hit 404/403;14/405, but that means stuff like images, css, js etc are being handled by .NET code, which is terribly inefficient. Which brings me to the actual question: has anyone ever encountered this, and does anyone have any advice or know what to do to get things working again? So far someone has suggested using Microsoft's own URL Rewriting module. Would this help solve our problem? Thanks.

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  • Open PDF Content files in ASP.NET MVC 2

    - by mcbingo
    I want to provide simple href links to my PDF forms that reside in my Forms folder. I have a created a simple Index.aspx and FormController Index action that simple iterates through the list of PDF files using my FormMetaData.xml file. The links get created just fine but when you click on the links I get a 404 exception. That looks like this: Server Error in '/' Application. The resource cannot be found. Description: HTTP 404. The resource you are looking for (or one of its dependencies) could have been removed, had its name changed, or is temporarily unavailable. Please review the following URL and make sure that it is spelled correctly. Requested URL: /Forms/ccindteamgolfform.pdf Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.4927; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.4927 This seems like this should open up a new browser window with the PDF in it but perhaps I am making a bad assumption. The PDF content files have Build Action of Content and Copy to Output set to Copy Always. Here is an example output html for the link from my Index.aspx page: <span class="form"> <a href="Forms/ccindteamgolfform.pdf" target="_blank"> <span class="description">Entry Form</span></span> I must be missing something because this does not work. Do I need to add a MapRoute for these documents? Or am I missing something else with the routing? This seems like it should not be that difficult.

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  • How to combine twill and python into one code that could be run on "Google App Engine"?

    - by brilliant
    Hello everybody!!! I have installed twill on my computer (having previously installed Python 2.5) and have been using it recently. Python is installed on disk C on my computer: C:\Python25 And the twill folder (“twill-0.9”) is located here: E:\tmp\twill-0.9 Here is a code that I’ve been using in twill: go “some website’s sign-in page URL” formvalue 2 userid “my login” formvalue 2 pass “my password” submit go “URL of some other page from that website” save_html result.txt This code helps me to log in to one website, in which I have an account, record the HTML code of some other page of that website (that I can access only after logging in), and store it in a file named “result.txt” (of course, before using this code I firstly need to replace “my login” with my real login, “my password” with my real password, “some website’s sign-in page URL” and “URL of some other page from that website” with real URLs of that website, and number 2 with the number of the form on that website that is used as a sign-in form on that website’s log-in page) This code I store in “test.twill” file that is located in my “twill-0.9” folder: E:\tmp\twill-0.9\test.twill I run this file from my command prompt: python twill-sh test.twill Now, I also have installed “Google App Engine SDK” from “Google App Engine” and have also been using it for awhile. For example, I’ve been using this code: import hashlib m = hashlib.md5() m.update("Nobody inspects") m.update(" the spammish repetition ") print m.hexdigest() This code helps me transform the phrase “Nobody inspects the spammish repetition” into md5 digest. Now, how can I put these two pieces of code together into one python script that I could run on “Google App Engine”? Let’s say, I want my code to log in to a website from “Google App Engine”, go to another page on that website, record its HTML code (that’s what my twill code does) and than transform this HTML code into its md5 digest (that’s what my second code does). So, how can I combine those two codes into one python code? I guess, it should be done somehow by importing twill, but how can it be done? Can a python code - the one that is being run by “Google App Engine” - import twill from somewhere on the internet? Or, perhaps, twill is already installed on “Google App Engine”?

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  • How do you efficiently bulk index lookups?

    - by Liron Shapira
    I have these entity kinds: Molecule Atom MoleculeAtom Given a list(molecule_ids) whose lengths is in the hundreds, I need to get a dict of the form {molecule_id: list(atom_ids)}. Likewise, given a list(atom_ids) whose length is in the hunreds, I need to get a dict of the form {atom_id: list(molecule_ids)}. Both of these bulk lookups need to happen really fast. Right now I'm doing something like: atom_ids_by_molecule_id = {} for molecule_id in molecule_ids: moleculeatoms = MoleculeAtom.all().filter('molecule =', db.Key.from_path('molecule', molecule_id)).fetch(1000) atom_ids_by_molecule_id[molecule_id] = [ MoleculeAtom.atom.get_value_for_datastore(ma).id() for ma in moleculeatoms ] Like I said, len(molecule_ids) is in the hundreds. I need to do this kind of bulk index lookup on almost every single request, and I need it to be FAST, and right now it's too slow. Ideas: Will using a Molecule.atoms ListProperty do what I need? Consider that I am storing additional data on the MoleculeAtom node, and remember it's equally important for me to do the lookup in the molecule-atom and atom-molecule directions. Caching? I tried memcaching lists of atom IDs keyed by molecule ID, but I have tons of atoms and molecules, and the cache can't fit it. How about denormalizing the data by creating a new entity kind whose key name is a molecule ID and whose value is a list of atom IDs? The idea is, calling db.get on 500 keys is probably faster than looping through 500 fetches with filters, right?

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  • VPS DNS Resolution problem

    - by fatnic
    Hi. I've recently moved from a shared hosting to a VPS at vps.net but I think I might have broken it already! I have domain.com and domain.net. I have setup DNS records for both to point to my server. However, only domain.com pings to the correct IP address. domain.net is pointing to a different IP address. Possibly the old server it was pointing to. This has now been deleted. Is there possibly any way to correct this without having to submit a ticket to VPS.net?

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  • Dropdown in PHP

    - by VP
    Hi, I am using PHP 5.2 on SUN OS server. Having problems with the following piece of code that for a drop down: echo '<form action="" method="get">'; echo '<p>Information:<br />'; echo '<select name="acctno" style="width: 100px;">'; foreach ($this->account_names as $acctno => $acctname) { echo '<option value="'.$acctno.'">'.$acctname.'</option>'; } echo '</select> <input type="submit" value="view" />'; echo '</form>'; Worked perfectly fine on Firefox and Chrome; however there is a problem with Internet Explorer. In IE the dropdown width is limited to the size i.e 100px. So only the first 15-16 characters of the account name are displayed all the time. However in chrome or firefox, even if only 15-16 characters are displayed initially, when the drop down arrow is clicked upon, it show the entire name (however long it may be). This does not happen with IE. So if the account name is, lets say, "1223456789abcdefghijkl" then: For IE: shows only "123456789" all the time Ffor chrome or firefox: shows "123456789" and when it is dropped down it show the full name as "123456789abcdefghijkl". Any help here would be much appreciated. Thanks, VP

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  • Is MVC 2 client-side validation broken in Visual Studio 2010 RC?

    - by Will
    I can't seem to get client side validation working with the version of MVC released with Visual Studio 2010 RC. I've tried it with two projects -- one upgrade from 1.0, and one using the template that came with VS. I'd think the template version would work, but it doesn't. Added the following scripts: <script type="text/javascript" src="<%= Url.Content("~/Scripts/MicrosoftMvcValidation.js") %>"> </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="<%= Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.validate.js")%>"> </script> which are downloaded to the client correctly. Added the following to my form page: <% Html.EnableClientValidation(); %> <%--yes, am aware of the EndForm() bug! --%> <% using (Html.BeginForm()) { %> <%--snip --%> and I can see the client validation scripts have been added to the bottom of the form. But still client validation never happens. What is worse is that in my upgraded project, the client validation scripts are never output in the page! PLEASE NOTE: I am specifically asking about the version of MVC2 that came with VS2010 RC. Also, I do know how to google; please don't waste anybody's time searching and answering if you aren't familiar with this issue in the release candidate of Visual Studio. Thanks.

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  • C# How to commit a TextBox?

    - by Jake
    Hi, In a form, I have a TextBox Binding an Object on its member property "Title". Along with it is a "Save" button to test the binding. Seems like the underlying object property does not get updated unless the textbox loses focus. But there no form.ActiveControl.Blur() for use. Besides, this does not seem like a sound hack. Anyway to do this better? Thanks. EDIT: Sorry for not being clear. My question is in the title: "How to commit a TextBox". I use the term "commit" from the DataGridView commit and BindingSource commit. And it's in WinForms. (Have never worked with WPF, so it didn't occur to me. Sorry). The actual scenario I have is I have a bunch of TextBox binded to property of a single Object. The user enters values in all the TextBox and when the user clicks save (toolbar button), the last TextBox is still in focus (or in editing mode) hence the save will not capture the last value in the last textbox. I want to find the correct way to "commit" the textbox value just before saving. Thanks.

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  • Sometimes my urls get masked with the IP address instead of the domain

    - by user64631
    I have a server with one A record that points to my IP address. I have nginx with gunicorn as a prefork which goes to my django application For most of my pages, the URL is always my domain name in the url bar. However if I go to mydomain.com/admin the url magically transforms into x.x.x.x/admin in the url bar of my browser. I thought that was weird but I ignored it figuring it only happened for admin so it wasnt that big of a deal. Then I installed django-registration. So when I go to mydomain.com/accounts/register the url is still mydomain.com/accounts/register in the url bar. but when I submit a form, the POST request goes to x.x.x.x/accounts/register which creates a cross domain error. So I decided that it wasnt isolated to the admin and I really need to fix what is going on. I have no idea what is going on and am completely lost.

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  • Share Localization

    - by fop6316
    I was able to localize my Alfresco Model (+ constraints lists) by following these rules : http://wiki.alfresco.com/wiki/Data_Dictionary_Guide#Model_Localization But I would like to know if there is something similar for Share ? Do we only have to use the "label-id" attributes without worrying of any convention ? Is it better to use : label.companyName=Company name or something like sop_sopModel.field.sop_companyName.title=Company Name or anything else ? I didn't see any recommandation on the wiki. Here is an example of label-id's I don't know how to format. This is a part of my share-config-custom.xml file. I know this is not really important but I would like to do things properly. <config evaluator="aspect" condition="sop:company"> <forms> <form> <field-visibility> <show id="sop:companyName" /> <show id="sop:companyAddress" /> </field-visibility> <appearance> <set id="sopPanel" appearance="bordered-panel" label-id="???" /> <field id="sop:companyName" label-id="???" set="sopPanel" /> <field id="sop:companyAddress" label-id="???" set="sopPanel" /> </appearance> </form> </forms> </config> Thanks

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  • Redirect to another action in an interceptor in struts 2

    - by user292662
    I am currently in the process of learning Struts 2 and I am currently building a simple application where unverified users are redirected to a login form. I have a login form and action functional which takes the users credentials, verifies them and stores a User object in the session however I am now trying to prevent access to pages before the login has taken place and I am trying to do this with an interceptor. My problem is that I have written an interceptor that checks whether the User object has been saved in the session but if it has not I want to redirect to the login page and can't find any way of doing this without bypassing struts and using the HttpServletResponse.sendRedirect method Configuration: <package name="mypackage" extends="struts-default" namespace="/admin"> <interceptors> <interceptor name="login" class="my.LoginInterceptor" /> </interceptors> <default-interceptor-ref name="login"/> <action name="login" class="my.LoginAction"> <result name="input">/admin/login.jsp</result> <result name="success" type="redirect">/admin</result> </action> <action name="private" class="my.PrivateAction"> <result>/admin/private.jsp</result> </action> </package> The interceptor code: @Override public String intercept(ActionInvocation inv) throws Exception { Map<String, Object> session = inv.getInvocationContext().getSession(); Object user = session.get("user"); if(user == null) { // redirect to the 'login' action here } else { return inv.invoke(); } }

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