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  • Castle Windsor, Fluent Nhibernate, and Automapping Isession closed problem

    - by SImon
    I'm new to the whole castle Windsor, Nhibernate, Fluent and Automapping stack so excuse my ignorance here. I didn't want to post another question on this as it seems there are already a huge number of questions that try to get a solution the Windsor nhib Isession management problem, but none of them have solved my problem so far. I am still getting a ISession is closed exception when I'm trying to call to the Db from my Repositories,Here is my container setup code. container.AddFacility<FactorySupportFacility>() .Register( Component.For<ISessionFactory>() .LifeStyle.Singleton .UsingFactoryMethod(() => Fluently.Configure() .Database( MsSqlConfiguration.MsSql2005. ConnectionString( c => c.Database("DbSchema").Server("Server").Username("UserName").Password("password"))) .Mappings ( m => m.AutoMappings.Add ( AutoMap.AssemblyOf<Message>(cfg) .Override<Client>(map => { map.HasManyToMany(x => x.SICCodes).Table("SICRefDataToClient"); }) .IgnoreBase<BaseEntity>() .Conventions.Add(DefaultCascade.SaveUpdate()) .Conventions.Add(new StringColumnLengthConvention(),new EnumConvention()) .Conventions.Add(new EnumConvention()) .Conventions.Add(DefaultLazy.Never()) ) ) .ExposeConfiguration(ConfigureValidator) .ExposeConfiguration(BuildDatabase) .BuildSessionFactory() as SessionFactoryImpl), Component.For<ISession>().LifeStyle.PerWebRequest.UsingFactoryMethod(kernel => kernel.Resolve<ISessionFactory>().OpenSession() )); In my repositories i inject private readonly ISession session; and use it as followes public User GetUser(int id) { User u; u = session.Get<User>(id); if (u != null && u.Id > 0) { NHibernateUtil.Initialize(u.UserDocuments); } return u; in my web.config inside <httpModules>. i have also added this line <add name="PerRequestLifestyle" type="Castle.MicroKernel.Lifestyle.PerWebRequestLifestyleModule, Castle.Windsor"/> I'm i still missing part of the puzzle here, i can't believe that this is such a complex thing to configure for a basic need of any web application development with nHibernate and castle Windsor. I have been trying to follow the code here windsor-nhibernate-isession-mvc and i posted my question there as they seemed to have the exact same issue but mine is not resolved.

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  • Convert UCS-2 characters to UTF-8 Using C#

    - by quanticle
    I'm pulling some internationalized text from a MS SQL Server 2005 database. As per the defaults for that DB, the characters are stored as UCS-2. However, I need to output the data in UTF-8 format, as I'm sending it out over the web. Currently, I have the following code to convert: SqlString dbString = resultReader.GetSqlString(0); byte[] dbBytes = dbString.GetUnicodeBytes(); byte[] utf8Bytes = System.Text.Encoding.Convert(System.Text.Encoding.Unicode, System.Text.Encoding.UTF8, dbBytes); System.Text.UTF8Encoding encoder = new System.Text.UTF8Encoding(); string outputString = encoder.GetString(utf8Bytes); However, when I examine the output in the browser, it appears to be garbage, no matter what I set the encoding to. What am I missing? EDIT: In response to the answers below, the reason I thought I had to perform a conversion is because I can output literal multibyte strings just fine. For example: OutputControl.Text = "????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????"; works. Here, OutputControl is an ASP.Net Literal. However, OutputControl.Text = outputString; //Output from above snippet results in mangled output as described above. My hypothesis was that the database's output was somehow getting mangled by ASP.Net. If that's not the case, then what are some other possibilities?

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  • Please help me work out this error, regarding the use of a HTTPService to connect Flex4 & Ruby on Ra

    - by ben
    I have a HTTPService in Flash Builder 4, that is defined as follows: <s:HTTPService id="getUserDetails" url="http://localhost:3000/users/getDetails" method="GET"/> It gets called as follows: getUserDetails.send({'user[username]': calleeInput.text}); Here is a screenshot of the network monitor, showing that the parameter is being sent correctly (it is 'kirsty'): Here is the Ruby on Rails method that it's connected to: def getDetails @user = User.find_by_username(:username) render :xml => @user end When I run it, I get the following error output in the console: Processing UsersController#list (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-04-30 17:48:03) [GET] User Load (1.1ms) SELECT * FROM "users" Completed in 30ms (View: 16, DB: 1) | 200 OK [http://localhost/users/list] Processing UsersController#getDetails (for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-04-30 17:48:13) [GET] Parameters: {"user"={"username"="kirsty"}} User Load (0.3ms) SELECT * FROM "users" WHERE ("users"."username" = '--- :username ') LIMIT 1 ActionView::MissingTemplate (Missing template users/getDetails.erb in view path app/views): app/controllers/users_controller.rb:36:in getDetails' /usr/local/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/httpserver.rb:104:in service' /usr/local/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/httpserver.rb:65:in run' /usr/local/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:173:in start_thread' /usr/local/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:162:in start' /usr/local/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:162:in start_thread' /usr/local/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:95:in start' /usr/local/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:92:in each' /usr/local/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:92:in start' /usr/local/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:23:in start' /usr/local/lib/ruby/1.8/webrick/server.rb:82:in `start' Rendering rescues/layout (internal_server_error) I'm not sure if the error is being caused by bad code in the getDetails Ruby on Rails method? I'm new to RoR, and I think I remember reading somewhere that every method should have a view. I'm just using this method to get info into the Flex 4 app, do I still need to make a view for it? Is that what's causing the error? Any help would be GREATLY appreciated, I've been stuck on this for a few days now! Thanks.

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  • silverlight security with WCF service, Forms Authentication and Custom Form Ticket

    - by user74825
    I have a silverlight application with login on the silverlight page. It uses Forms Authentication with WCF authentication service and customer Membership Provider. Something like : http://blogs.msdn.com/phaniraj/archive/2009/09/10/using-the-ado-net-data-services-silverlight-client-library-in-x-domain-and-out-of-browser-scenarios-ii-forms-authentication.aspx So, SL page login page calls the WCF service authentication service, it validates using DB - brings back username and password. Now, in each subsequent calls (in Global.asax in Authenticate_Request, I get HttpContext.User.IsAuthenticated and HttpContext.User.UserName). I have all this working properly. But, I just don't want the username, but more information surrounding the user, like UserId, UserAddress, UserAssociateCustomer etc. I tried couple of different approaches. 1) Use HttpContext.Cache as a dictionary to save the item and get it off based on httpcontext.user.name, problem is cache can be erased if there memory is being used heavily. 2) Tried CustomFormsAuth Ticket, when forms authentication writes a ticket, I intercept CreatingCookie method and write additional info in formauthentication ticket, so that I can read it in subsequent requests, I am having problems with this approach, I don't find the ticket in subsequent requests. I read about how we should use REsponse.Redirect, but where do I redirect user from WCF call. How do you guys implement the above scenario? Any best practices.? Any issues you see with going on HTTPS? All examples (or most of them) just explains simple forms authentication with "I am logged in message".. Any suggestions ?

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  • google maps api v2 - dynamic load (tens of thousands of) markers

    - by Adam
    Hello, how made with JavaScript+PHP+MYSQL and Google Maps API v2 dynamic load of markers? atm I have map follow example http://googlemapsapi.martinpearman.co.uk/infusions/google_maps_api/basic_page.php?map_id=8 but my marker_data_01.php (where are all markers listed - look code of example) have atm 4MB and will only have more, and more. So the question is: how load only this markers to marker_data_01.php (of some other modification of it, can be on same file as map, meaningless, I load it all from MySQL atm) what I look now: so for example (I dont know what number will good but I write this only for show what I wanna made OR JUST something like it), so top left corner for example have position: 10, top right corner for example have position: 30, bottom left corner for example have position: 5, bottom right corner for example have position: 15. -- so load only this markers what are in this box 10-30-5-15 with for example GET, and when I move map for example to 17-12-48-20 box then made next GET request and with this mysql quote and download next markers that what I see now, with this I can have map with unlimited markers, and when will be a lot of markers then clustering can link them, so with this ppl dont will need do "preload" of all markers DB (what have 4mb now and will have more), but only download that what they see at the moment, I know that is possible because a lot sites have it but I am not master of code langs, I know only a bit php and mysql (and html) :) // sorry for my english

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  • Populate a form from SQL

    - by xrum
    Hi, I am trying to populate a web from from a SQL table. This is what I have right now, though I am not sure if it's the best way to do things, please give me suggestions: Public Class userDetails Public address1 As String Public address2 As String Public city As String ... ... ... End Class Public Class clsPerson 'set SQL connection Dim objFormat As New clsFormat Dim objConn As New clsConn() Dim connStr As String = objConn.getConn() Dim myConnection As New Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection(connStr) Public Function GetPersonDetails() As userDetails 'connection and all other good stuff here Try ' Execute the command myConnection.Open() dr = myCommand.ExecuteReader() ' Make sure a record was returned If dr.Read() Then ' Create and Populate ApplicantDetails userDetails.address1 = dr("address1") userDetails.address2 = objFormat.CheckNull(dr("address2")) userDetails.city = objFormat.CheckNull(dr("city")) .... Else Err.Raise(4938, "clsUser", "Error in GetUserDetails - User Not Found") End If dr.Close() Finally myConnection.Close() End Try Return userDetails End Function i then use GetPersonDetails() function in my backend to populate the form. like so: Dim userDetails as new userDetails userdetails = getPersonDetails() txtAddress.text = userdetails.address1 etc.... however, there are like 50 fields in the User db, and it seems like a lot of retyping... please help me find a better way to do this. Thank you!

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  • Categories of tags

    - by Peter Rowell
    I'm starting a pro bono project that is the web interface to the world's largest collection of lute music and it's a challenging collection from several points of view. The pieces are largely from 1400 to 1600, but they range from the mid-1200's to present day. Needless to say, there is tremendous variability in how the pieces are categorized and who they are attributed to. It is obvious that any sort of rigid, DB-enforced hierarchy isn't going to work with this collection, so my thoughts turn to tags. But not all tags are the same. I'll have tags that represent a person/role (composer, translator, entabulator, etc.), tags that represent the instrument(s) the piece in written for, and tags that represent how the piece has been classified by any one of half a dozen different classification systems used over the centuries. We will be using a semi-controlled tag vocabulary to prevent runaway tag proliferation (e.g. del.icio.us), but I want to treat the tags as belonging to different groups. People tags should not be offered when the editor is doing instrument tagging, etc. Has anyone done something like this? I have several ways I can think of to do it, but if there is an existing system that is well-done it would save me time implementing/debugging. FWIW: This is a Django system and I'm looking at starting with Django-tagging and then hacking from there, possibly adding a category field or ...

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  • Unit test insert/update/delete

    - by Kurresmack
    Hey, I have googled this a little and didn't really find the answer I needed. I am working on a webpage in C# with MSSQL and LINQ for a customer. I want the users to be able to send messages to each other. So what I do is that I unit test this with data that actually goes into the database. The problem is that I now depend on having at least 2 users who I know the ID of. Furthermore I have to clean up after my self. This leads to rather large unit tests that test alot in one test. Lets say I would like to update a user. That would mean that I would have to ceate the user, update it, and then delete it. This a lot of assertions in one unit test and if it fails with updating i have to manually delete it. If I would do it any other way, without saving the data to DB, I would not for sure be able to know that the data was present in the database after updating etc. What is the proper way to do this without having a test that tests a lot of functuality in one test?

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  • PostgreSQL insert on primary key failing with contention, even at serializable level

    - by Steven Schlansker
    I'm trying to insert or update data in a PostgreSQL db. The simplest case is a key-value pairing (the actual data is more complicated, but this is the smallest clear example) When you set a value, I'd like it to insert if the key is not there, otherwise update. Sadly Postgres does not have an insert or update statement, so I have to emulate it myself. I've been working with the idea of basically SELECTing whether the key exists, and then running the appropriate INSERT or UPDATE. Now clearly this needs to be be in a transaction or all manner of bad things could happen. However, this is not working exactly how I'd like it to - I understand that there are limitations to serializable transactions, but I'm not sure how to work around this one. Here's the situation - ab: => set transaction isolation level serializable; a: => select count(1) from table where id=1; --> 0 b: => select count(1) from table where id=1; --> 0 a: => insert into table values(1); --> 1 b: => insert into table values(1); --> ERROR: duplicate key value violates unique constraint "serial_test_pkey" Now I would expect it to throw the usual "couldn't commit due to concurrent update" but I'm guessing since the inserts are different "rows" this does not happen. Is there an easy way to work around this?

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  • Validation with State Pattern for Multi-Page Forms in ASP.NET

    - by philrabin
    I'm trying to implement the state pattern for a multi-page registration form. The data on each page will be accumulated and stored in a session object. Should validation (including service layer calls to the DB) occur on the page level or inside each state class? In other words, should the concrete implementation of IState be concerned with the validation or should it be given a fully populated and valid object? See "EmptyFormState" class below: namespace Example { public class Registrar { private readonly IState formEmptyState; private readonly IState baseInformationComplete; public RegistrarSessionData RegistrarSessionData { get; set;} public Registrar() { RegistrarSessionData = new RegistrarSessionData(); formEmptyState = new EmptyFormState(this); baseInformationComplete = new BasicInfoCompleteState(this); State = formEmptyState; } public IState State { get; set; } public void SubmitData(RegistrarSessionData data) { State.SubmitData(data); } public void ProceedToNextStep() { State.ProceedToNextStep(); } } //actual data stored in the session //to be populated by page public class RegistrarSessionData { public string FirstName { get; set; } public string LastName { get; set; } //will include values of all 4 forms } //State Interface public interface IState { void SubmitData(RegistrarSessionData data); void ProceedToNextStep(); } //Concrete implementation of IState //Beginning state - no data public class EmptyFormState : IState { private readonly Registrar registrar; public EmptyFormState(Registrar registrar) { this.registrar = registrar; } public void SubmitData(RegistrarSessionData data) { //Should Validation occur here? //Should each state object contain a validation class? (IValidator ?) //Should this throw an exception? } public void ProceedToNextStep() { registrar.State = new BasicInfoCompleteState(registrar); } } //Next step, will have 4 in total public class BasicInfoCompleteState : IState { private readonly Registrar registrar; public BasicInfoCompleteState(Registrar registrar) { this.registrar = registrar; } public void SubmitData(RegistrarSessionData data) { //etc } public void ProceedToNextStep() { //etc } } }

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  • Is there an event that raises after a View/PartialView executes in ASP.NET MVC 2 RC2?

    - by sabanito
    I have the following problem: We have an ASP.NET MVC 2 RC 2 application that programmatically impersonates an AD Account that the user specifies at logon. This account is used to access the DB. At first we had the impersonating code in the begin_request and we were undoing the impersonation at the end_request, but when we tried to use IIS 7.5 in integrated mode, we learned that it's not possible to impersonate in the Global.asax so we tried different things. We have succesfully moved our code from the BeginRequest to the ActionExecuting event and the EndRequest to the ResultExecuted, and now, about 80% of our code works. We've just discovered that since we're passing the Entity Framework objects as models for our views, there's this remaining 20% that won't work because some Navigation Properties are not loaded when the view begins it's execution, so we're getting connection exceptions from Sql Server. Is there any event or method that executes AFTER the view, so we can undo the impersonation in it? We thought ResultExecuted will do just that, but it doesn't. We've been told that passing the plain Entities into the view as models is not a good idea, but we have A LOT of views that may have this problem and there's not automated way to know it. If some of you could explain why it's not a good idea, maybe we can convince the team to fix it!

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  • Cannot read value from SYS_CONTEXT

    - by AppleGrew
    I have a PL/SQL procedure which sets some variable in user session, like the following:- Dbms_Session.Set_Context( NAMESPACE =>'MY_CTX', ATTRIBUTE => 'FLAG_NAME', Value => 'some value'); Just after this (in the same procedure), I try to read the value of this flag, using:- SYS_CONTEXT('MY_CTX', 'FLAG_NAME'); The above returns nothing. How did the DB lose this value? The weirder part is that if I invoke this proc directly from Oracle SQL Developer then it works. It doesn't work when I invoke this proc from my web application from callable statement. --EDIT-- Added an example as to how we are invoking the proc from our Java code. String statement = "Begin package_name.proc_name( flag_val => :1); END;"; OracleCallableStatement st = <some object by some framework> .createCallableStatement(statement); st.setString(1, 'flag value'); st.execute(); st.close();

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  • error in the syntax of cmd parameters

    - by KATy
    hi guyz in this method i m just adding the values to the db. temp is a object. the field value and variables in the object re havin the same name.. dono y this error s comin plz help me out... public virtual void Save_input_parameter_details(Test_Unit_BLL temp ) { SqlConnection con; con = new SqlConnection("Data Source=VV;Initial Catalog=testingtool;User ID=sa;Password=sa;"); con.Open(); SqlCommand cmd, cmd2, cmd3; //try //{ for (int i = 0; i < temp.No_Input_parameters; i++) { cmd2 = new SqlCommand("insert into Input_parameter_details values(@Input_Parameter_name,@Input_Parameter_datatype,@noparams,@class_code", con); cmd2.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Input_Parameter_datatype", temp.Input_Parameter_datatype[i]); cmd2.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Input_Parameter_name", temp.Input_Parameter_name[i]); cmd2.Parameters.AddWithValue("@noparams", temp.No_Input_parameters); cmd2.Parameters.AddWithValue("@class_code",temp.class_code); cmd2.ExecuteNonQuery(); } //} //catch (Exception ex) // { // MessageBox.Show("error"+ex); // } }

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  • How would you protect a database of links from being scraped?

    - by Yegor
    I have a large database of links, which are all sorted in specific ways and are attached to other information, which is valuable (to some people). Currently my setup (which seems to work) simply calls a php file like link.php?id=123, it logs the request with a timestamp into the DB. Before it spits out the link, it checks how many requests were made from that IP in the last 5 minutes. If its greater than x, it redirects you to a captcha page. That all works fine and dandy, but the site has been getting really popular (as well as been getting DDOsed for about 6 weeks), so php has been getting floored, so Im trying to minimize the times I have to hit up php to do something. I wanted to show links in plain text instead of thru link.php?id= and have an onclick function to simply add 1 to the view count. Im still hitting up php, but at least if it lags, it does so in the background, and the user can see the link they requested right away. Problem is, that makes the site REALLY scrapable. Is there anything I can do to prevent this, but still not rely on php to do the check before spitting out the link?

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  • How do I make software that preserves database integrity and correctness?

    - by user287745
    I have made an application project in Visual Studio 2008 C#, SQL Server from Visual Studio 2008. The database has like 20 tables and many fields in each. I have made an interface for adding deleting editing and retrieving data according to predefined needs of the users. Now I have to Make to project into software which I can deliver to my professor. That is, he can just double click the icon and the software simply starts. No Visual Studio 2008 needed to start the debugging. The database will be on one powerful computer (dual core latest everything Windows XP) and the user will access it from another computer connected using LAN. I am able to change the connection string to the shared database using Visual Studio 2008/ debugger whenever the server changes but how am I supposed to do that when it's software? There will by many clients. Am I supposed to give the same software to every one, so they all can connect to the database? How will the integrity and correctness of the database be maintained? I mean the db.mdf file will be in a folder which will be shared with read and write access. So it's not necessary that only one user will write at a time. So is there any coding for this or?

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  • JPA @ManyToMany on only one side?

    - by Ethan Leroy
    I am trying to refresh the @ManyToMany relation but it gets cleared instead... My Project class looks like this: @Entity public class Project { ... @ManyToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, fetch = FetchType.EAGER) @JoinTable(name = "PROJECT_USER", joinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "PROJECT_ID", referencedColumnName = "ID"), inverseJoinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "USER_ID", referencedColumnName = "ID")) private Collection<User> users; ... } But I don't have - and I don't want - the collection of Projects in the User entity. When I look at the generated database tables, they look good. They contain all columns and constraints (primary/foreign keys). But when I persist a Project that has a list of Users (and the users are still in the database), the mapping table doesn't get updated gets updated but when I refresh the project afterwards, the list of Users is cleared. For better understanding: Project project = ...; // new project with users that are available in the db System.out.println(project getUsers().size()); // prints 5 em.persist(project); System.out.println(project getUsers().size()); // prints 5 em.refresh(project); System.out.println(project getUsers().size()); // prints 0 So, how can I refresh the relation between User and Project?

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  • Multiple WCF calls for a single ASP.NET page load

    - by Rodney Burton
    I have an existing asp.net web application I am redesigning to use a service architecture. I have the beginnings of an WCF service which I am able to call and perform functions with no problems. As far as updating data, it all makes sense. For example, I have a button that says Submit Order, it sends the data to the service, which does the processing. Here's my concern: If I have an ASP.NET page that shows me a list of orders (View Orders page), and at the top I have a bunch of drop down lists for order types, and other search criteria which is populated by querying different tables from the database (lookup tables, etc). I am hoping to eventually completely decouple the web application from the DB, and use data contracts to pass information between the BLL, the SOA, and the web app. With that said, how can I reduce the # of WCF calls needed to load my "View Orders" page? I would need to make 1 call get the list of orders, and 1 call for each drop down list, etc because those are populated by individual functions in my BLL. Is it good architecture to create a web service method that returns back a specialized data contract that consists of everything you would need to display a View Orders page, in 1 shot? Something like this pseudocode: public class ViewOrderPageDTO { public OrderDTO[] Orders { get; set; } public OrderTypesDTO[] OrderTypes { get; set; } public OrderStatusesDTO[] OrderStatuses { get; set; } public CustomerListDTO[] CustomerList { get; set; } } Or is it better practice in the page_load event to make 5 or 6 or even 15 individual calls to the SOA to get the data needed to load the page? Therefore, bypassing the need for specialized wcf methods or DTO's that conglomerate other DTO? Thanks for your input and suggestions.

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  • Zend Sessions problem with IE8

    - by Emil
    I'm running a Zend Framework powered website and it seems to have serious problems with sessions. I have a 5 step process where I save the form data in the session between the steps and then save it into the database on the last step. When we built the site sometimes the session just went away and forced us to restart. Now it seems to work again but recently we discovered an issue with Internet Explorer 8. It fails between step 2 - 3 and forgets the session. It works fine in IE6, IE7, FF, Chrome, Safari and even in my mobile web browser (SE P1). We're storing our sessions in the database and if I deactivate the session db handler it works. What's the difference between using the database and not using it for sessions? Do I loose something if I switch back? Bootstrap: /* Start session */ $saveHandler = new Zend_Session_SaveHandler_DbTable(array( 'name' => 'sessions', 'primary' => 'id', 'modifiedColumn' => 'modified', 'dataColumn' => 'data', 'lifetimeColumn' => 'lifetime' )); Zend_Session::rememberMe((int) $config->session->lifetime); $saveHandler->setLifetime((int) $config->session->lifetime) ->setOverrideLifetime(true); Zend_Session::setSaveHandler($saveHandler); Zend_Session::start(); and in my step controller $session = new Zend_Session_Namespace('wizard'); Then I'm just working with $session saving data in a stdClass in $session.

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  • How to get JSON code into MYSQL database?

    - by the_boy_za
    I've created this form with a jQuery autocomplete function. The selected brand from the autocomplete list needs to get sent to a PHP file using $.ajax function. My code doesn't seem to work but i can't find the error. I don't know why the data isn't getting inserted into MYSQL database. Here is my code: JQUERY: $(document).ready(function() { $("#autocomplete").autocomplete({ minLength: 2 }); $("#autocomplete").autocomplete({ source: ["Adidas", "Airforce", "Alpha Industries", "Asics", "Bikkemberg", "Birkenstock", "Bjorn Borg", "Brunotti", "Calvin Klein", "Cars Jeans", "Chanel", "Chasin", "Diesel", "Dior", "DKNY", "Dolce & Gabbana"] }); $("#add-brand").click(function() { var merk = $("#autocomplete").val(); $("#selected-brands").append(" <a class=\"deletemerk\" href=\"#\">" + merk + "</a>"); //Add your parameters here var param = JSON.stringify({ Brand: merk }); $.ajax({ type: "POST", async: true, url: "scripttohandlejson.php", contentType: "application/json", data: param, dataType: "json", success: function (good){ //handle success alert(good) }, failure: function (bad){ //handle any errors alert(bad) } }); return false; }); }); PHP FILE: scripttohandlejson.php <?PHP $getcontent = json_decode($json, true); $getcontent->{'Brand'}; $vraag ="INSERT INTO kijken (merk) VALUES ='$getcontent' "; $voerin = mysql_query($vraag) or die("couldnt put into db"); <?

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  • Appending a child in Cake

    - by pg
    I'm using cake & have a web form for entering URLs to go into my db. There will be one input space (url1) and below that a link that says "add another URL" which, when clicked, generates a new form (url2) and reuses the "add another URL". So it would be like: echo $form->input('name'); echo $form->input('id'); echo $form->input('url1'); echo $form->input('weight1'); echo '<a href="XXX">add another URL</a>'; and then, if XXX is clicked it would be like this: echo $form->input('name'); echo $form->input('id'); echo $form->input('url1'); echo $form->input('weight1'); echo $form->input('url2'); echo $form->input('weight2'); echo '<a href="XXX">add another URL</a>'; Is there a jquery script I can use to do this or does cake have something built in?

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  • Unpacking gems [Rails 2.3.5]

    - by yuval
    I have the following gems defined in my environment.rb file: config.gem "authlogic" config.gem "paperclip" config.gem "pauldix-feedzirra", :lib => "feedzirra", :source => "http://gems.github.com" config.gem 'whenever', :lib => false, :source => 'http://gemcutter.org/' I have them installed on my local computer and everything is working well. Since I am working on a shared-server (DreamHost), I need to unpack those gems to get them to work (can't install them as I did on my own computer to get them to work). Before uploading, I ran the following on my local machine: rake gems:unpack This created the following folders in /vender/gems: authlogic-2.1.3, paperclip-2.3.1.1, pauldix-feedzirra-0.0.18, whenever-0.4.1 So it looks like they're all there. When I run rake db:migrate on the server, though, I get these following error: Missing these required gems: pauldix-feedzirra For some reason, the feedzirra unpacked gem is not detected. Could anybody give me a clue as to why this is happening and how to solve it? Thanks!

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  • Pinax TemplateSyntaxError

    - by Spikie
    hi, i ran into this errors while trying to modify pinax database model i am using eclipse pydev i have this error on the pydev Exception Type: TemplateSyntaxError at / Exception Value: Caught an exception while rendering: (1146, "Table 'test1.announcements_announcement' doesn't exist") please how do i correct this UPDATE: i asked this question and left unresolved some months back and you what ran into the bug again this week and typed the error message in google hit the page with the question and unanswered so i think i have to answer it and hope it help someone in the future have the same problem. some the problem is that the sqlite path is out of place so django or this case pinax can not find it so to resolve that change the absolute path to sqlite like it DATABASE_ENGINE = 'sqlite3' # 'postgresql_psycopg2', 'postgresql', 'mysql', 'sqlite3' or 'ado_mssql'. DATABASE_NAME = os.path.join(PROJECT_ROOT,'dev.db' ) # Or path to database file if using sqlite3. DATABASE_USER = '' # Not used with sqlite3. DATABASE_PASSWORD = '' # Not used with sqlite3. DATABASE_HOST = '' # Set to empty string for localhost. Not used with sqlite3. DATABASE_PORT = '' # Set to empty string for default. Not used with sqlite3. i hope that help

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  • IntegrityError: foreign key violation upon delete

    - by Lukasz Korzybski
    I have Order and Shipment model. Shipment has a foreign key to Order. class Order(...): ... class Shipment() order = m.ForeignKey('Order') ... Now in one of my views I want do delete order object along with all related objects. So I invoke order.delete(). I have Django 1.0.4, PostgreSQL 8.4 and I use transaction middleware, so whole request is enclosed in single transaction. The problem is that upon order.delete() I get: ... File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/backends/__init__.py", line 28, in _commit return self.connection.commit() IntegrityError: update or delete on table "main_order" violates foreign key constraint "main_shipment_order_id_fkey" on table "main_shipment" DETAIL: Key (id)=(45) is still referenced from table "main_shipment". I checked in connection.queries that proper queries are executed in proper order. First shipment is deleted, after that django executes delete on order row: {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_shipment" WHERE "id" IN (17)'}, {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_order" WHERE "id" IN (45)'} Foreign key have ON DELETE NO ACTION (default) and is initially deferred. I don't know why I get foreign key constraint violation. I also tried to register pre_delete signal and manually delete shipment objects before delete on order is called, but it resulted in the same error. I can change ON DELETE behaviour for this key in Postgres but it would be just a hack, I wonder if anyone has a better idea what's going on here. There is also a small detail, my Order model inherits from Cart model, so it actually doesn't have id field but cart_ptr_id and after DELETE on order is executed there is also DELETE on cart, but it seems unrelated? to the shipment-order problem so I simplified it in the example.

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  • Sort and limit queryset by comment count and date using queryset.extra() (django)

    - by thornomad
    I am trying to sort/narrow a queryset of objects based on the number of comments each object has as well as by the timeframe during which the comments were posted. Am using a queryset.extra() method (using django_comments which utilizes generic foreign keys). I got the idea for using queryset.extra() (and the code) from here. This is a follow-up question to my initial question yesterday (which shows I am making some progress). Current Code: What I have so far works in that it will sort by the number of comments; however, I want to extend the functionality and also be able to pass a time frame argument (eg, 7 days) and return an ordered list of the most commented posts in that time frame. Here is what my view looks like with the basic functionality in tact: import datetime from django.contrib.comments.models import Comment from django.contrib.contenttypes.models import ContentType from django.db.models import Count, Sum from django.views.generic.list_detail import object_list def custom_object_list(request, queryset, *args, **kwargs): '''Extending the list_detail.object_list to allow some sorting. Example: http://example.com/video?sort_by=comments&days=7 Would get a list of the videos sorted by most comments in the last seven days. ''' try: # this is where I started working on the date business ... days = int(request.GET.get('days', None)) period = datetime.datetime.utcnow() - datetime.timedelta(days=int(days)) except (ValueError, TypeError): days = None period = None sort_by = request.GET.get('sort_by', None) ctype = ContentType.objects.get_for_model(queryset.model) if sort_by == 'comments': queryset = queryset.extra(select={ 'count' : """ SELECT COUNT(*) AS comment_count FROM django_comments WHERE content_type_id=%s AND object_pk=%s.%s """ % ( ctype.pk, queryset.model._meta.db_table, queryset.model._meta.pk.name ), }, order_by=['-count']).order_by('-count', '-created') return object_list(request, queryset, *args, **kwargs) What I've Tried: I am not well versed in SQL but I did try just to add another WHERE criteria by hand to see if I could make some progress: SELECT COUNT(*) AS comment_count FROM django_comments WHERE content_type_id=%s AND object_pk=%s.%s AND submit_date='2010-05-01 12:00:00' But that didn't do anything except mess around with my sort order. Any ideas on how I can add this extra layer of functionality? Thanks for any help or insight.

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  • Add new SVN "repo" in poorly constructed repo/project setup

    - by Dave Masselink
    Unfortunately, the answer to this question isn't quite as simple as it sounds... but I hope it can still be relatively simple. Please read all the way through before telling me that the answer is: "svnadmin create... duh" I'm working for a company that set up their SVN server in an odd way (at least in terms of what I'm used to). We've all been there, right? Rather than giving each project a separate repository... they have a folder on the server called "/var/www/svn/repos/" which is the actual SVN repo (has conf/, db/, README.txt, etc. in it). Then they distinguish their projects by adding top level folders into the ONE repository (ex: Project1, Project2, etc.) I don't like this setup and might one day get around to converting the setup to what I'm used to, where each project is its own repository (with separate logs, dbs, etc.) But my question is this: What is the best way to add a new empty project to the current setup? Is there anyway to add a new top level folder/project to the repo through use of svnadmin? It can/should just be an empty folder that I'll start building a new project in. I know that I could do this by checking out the whole singular repository and then adding a new top level folder into my local checkout, then re-committing. But I'd really prefer not to do this because someone has created folders/projects that are just GBs of log data... and I don't want to wait through the download of this just to add a single empty folder. Let me know if there is any more info you'd need to know. I do have root/sudo access on the server in question. Thanks in advance for your help! Dave

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