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• MYSQL JOIN WHERE ISSUES - need some kind of if condition

  - by Breezer

  Hi Well this will be hard to explain but ill do my best The thing is i have 4 tables all with a specific column to relate to eachother. 1 table with users(agent_users) , 1 with working hours(agent_pers), 1 with sold items(agent_stat),1 with project(agent_pro) the user and the project table is irrelevant in the issue at hand but to give you a better understanding why certain tables is included in my query i decided to still mention them =) The thing is that I use 2 pages to insert data to the working hour and the sold items during that time tables, then i have a third page to summarize everything for current month, the query for that is as following: SELECT *, SUM(sv_p_kom),SUM(sv_p_gick),SUM(sv_p_lunch) FROM (( agent_users LEFT JOIN agent_pers ON agent_users.sv_aid = agent_pers.sv_p_uid) LEFT JOIN agent_stat ON agent_pers.sv_p_uid = agent_stat.sv_s_uid) LEFT JOIN agent_pro ON agent_pers.sv_p_pid=agent_pro.p_id WHERE MONTH(agent_pers.sv_p_datum) =7 GROUP BY sv_aname so the problem is now that i dont want sold items from previous months to get included in the data received, i know i could solve that by simple adding in the WHERE part MONTH(agent_stat.sv_s_datum) =7 but then if no items been sold that month no data at all will show up not the time or anything. Any aid on how i could solve this is greatly appreciated. if there's something that's not so clear dont hesitate to ask and ill try my best to answer. after all my english isn't the best out there :P regards breezer

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• JavaScript Module Pattern - What about using "return this"?

  - by Rob

  After doing some reading about the Module Pattern, I've seen a few ways of returning the properties which you want to be public. One of the most common ways is to declare your public properties and methods right inside of the "return" statement, apart from your private properties and methods. A similar way (the "Revealing" pattern) is to provide simply references to the properties and methods which you want to be public. Lastly, a third technique I saw was to create a new object inside your module function, to which you assign your new properties before returning said object. This was an interesting idea, but requires the creation of a new object. So I was thinking, why not just use "this.propertyName" to assign your public properties and methods, and finally use "return this" at the end? This way seems much simpler to me, as you can create private properties and methods with the usual "var" or "function" syntax, or use the "this.propertyName" syntax to declare your public methods. Here's the method I'm suggesting: (function() { var privateMethod = function () { alert('This is a private method.'); } this.publicMethod = function () { alert('This is a public method.'); } return this; })(); Are there any pros/cons to using the method above? What about the others?

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• How to modify Keyboard interrupt (under Windows XP) from a C++ Program ?

  - by rockr90

  Hi everyone ! We have been given a little project (As part of my OS course) to make a Windows program that modifies keyboard input, so that it transforms any lowercase character entered into an uppercase one (without using caps-lock) ! so when you type on the keyboard you'll see what you're typing transformed into uppercase ! I have done this quite easily using Turbo C by calling geninterrupt() and using variables _AH, _AL, i had to read a character using: _AH = 0x07; // Reading a character without echo geninterrupt(0x21); // Dos interrupt Then to transform it into an Upercase letter i have to mask the 5th bit by using: _AL = _AL & 0xDF; // Masking the entered character with 11011111 and then i will display the character using any output routine. Now, this solution will only work under old C DOS compilers. But what we intend to do is to make a close or similar solution to this by using any modern C/C++ compiler under Windows XP ! What i have first thought of is modifying the Keyboard ISR so that it masks the fifth bit of any entered character to turn it uppercase ! But i do not know how exactly to do this. Second, I wanted to create a Win32 console program to either do the same solution (but to no avail) or make a windows-compatible solution, still i do not know which functions to use ! Third I thought to make a windows program that modifies the ISR directly to suit my needs ! and i'm still looking for how to do this ! So please, If you could help me out on this, I would greatly appreciate it ! Thank you in advance ! (I'm using Windows XP on intel X86 with mingw-GCC compiler.)

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• How big can I make an Android application's canvas in terms of pixels?

  - by user279112

  I've determined an estimate of the size of my Android emulator's screen in pixels, although I think its resolution can be changed to other numbers. Quite frankly though that doesn't eliminate the general problem of not knowing how many pixels on each axis I have to work with on my Android applications in general. The main problem I'm trying to solve is this: How do I make sure I don't use a faulty resolution on Android applications if I want to keep things' sizes constant (so that if the application screen shrinks, for instances, objects will still show up just as big - there just won't be as many of them being shown) if I wish to do this with a single universal resolution for each program? Failing that, how do I make sure everything's alright if I try to do everything the same way with maybe a few different pre-set resolutions? Mainly it seems like a relevant question that must be answered before I can come across a complete answer for the general problem is how big can I always make my application in pixels, NOT regarding if and when a user resizes the application's screen to something smaller than the maximum size permitted by the phone and its operating system. I really want to try to keep this simple. If I were doing this for a modern desktop, for instance, I know that if I design the application with a 800x600 canvas, the user can still shrink the application to the point they're not doing themselves any favors, but at least I can basically count on it working right and not being too big for the monitor or something. Is there such a magic resolution for Android, assuming that I'm designing for API levels 3+ (Android 1.5+)? Thanks

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• What is the procedure for debugging a production-only error?

  - by Lord Torgamus

  Let me say upfront that I'm so ignorant on this topic that I don't even know whether this question has objective answers or not. If it ends up being "not," I'll delete or vote to close the post. Here's the scenario: I just wrote a little web service. It works on my machine. It works on my team lead's machine. It works, as far as I can tell, on every machine except for the production server. The exception that the production server spits out upon failure originates from a third-party JAR file, and is skimpy on information. I search the web for hours, but don't come up with anything useful. So what's the procedure for tracking down an issue that occurs only on production machines? Is there a standard methodology, or perhaps category/family of tools, for this? The error that inspired this question has already been fixed, but that was due more to good fortune than a solid approach to debugging. I'm asking this question for future reference. Some related questions: Test accounts and products in a production system Running test on Production Code/Server

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• Loading Dimension Tables - Methodologies

  - by Nev_Rahd

  Hello, Recently I been working on project, where need to populated Dim Tables from EDW Tables. EDW Tables are of type II which does maintain historical data. When comes to load Dim Table, for which source may be multiple EDW Tables or would be single table with multi level pivoting (on attributes). Mean: There would be 10 records - one for each attribute which need to be pivoted on domain_code to make a single row in Dim. Out of these 10 records there would be some attributes with same domain_code but with different sub_domain_code, which needs further pivoting on subdomain code. Ex: if i got domain code: 01,02, 03 = which are straight pivot on domain code I would also have domain code: 10 with subdomain code / version as 2006,2007,2008,2009 That means I need to split my source table with above attributes into two = one for domain code and other for domain_code + version. so far so good. When it comes to load Dim Table: As per design specs for Dimensions (originally written by third party), what they want is: for every single change in EDW (attribute), it should assemble all the related records (for that NK) mean new one with other attribute values which are current = process them to create a new dim record and insert it. That mean if a single extract contains 100 records updated (one for each NK), it should assemble 100 + (100*9) records to insert / update dim table. How good is this approach. Other way I tried to do is just do a lookup into dim table for that NK get the value's of recent records (attributes which not changed) and insert it and update the current one. What would be the better approach assembling records at source side for one attribute change or looking into dim table's recent record and process it. If this doesn't make sense, would like to elaborate it further. Thanks

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• can I acces a struct inside of a struct without using the dot operator?

  - by yan bellavance

  I have 2 structures that have 90% of their fields the same. I want to group those fields in a structure but I do not want to use the dot operator to access them. The reason is I already coded with the first structure and have just created the second one. before: struct{ int a; int b; int c; object1 name; }str1; struct{ int a; int b; int c; object2 name; }str2; now I would create a third struct: struct{ int a; int b; int c; }str3; and would change the str1 and atr2 to this: struct{ str3 str; object1 name; }str1; struct { str3 str; object2 name; }str2; Finally I would like to be able to access a,b and c by doing: str1 myStruct; myStruct.a; myStruct.b; myStruct.c; and not: myStruct.str.a; myStruct.str.b; myStruct.str.c; Is there a way to do such a thing. The reason for doing this is I want keep the integrety of the data if chnges to the struct were to occur and to not repeat myself and not have to change my existing code and not have fields nested too deeply.

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• Adjust width of td to make make row widths even

  - by user1729886

  I am trying to produce a table with a different number of cells in each row. The first row is a header row (every other row contains cells). This header is the width of the table. The second row has 2 cells in it... the third has 1 cell... the fourth has 4 cells... the fifth and final row has 3 cells. I want the table set up so that the rows span the full width of the table. If the table is 1000px... The header would be 1000px wide the cells in the 2nd row would be 500px EACH the cell in the 3rd row would be 1000px the cells in the 4th row would be 250px EACH and the cells in the 5th row would be 333px, 334px, and 333px each (left-to-right) I figured out I could use colspan for the first 4 rows, but the 5th (with 3 cells) would require a non-integer value. The cells in the 5th row won't expand beyond their column without colspan that I can tell... trying the width:## CSS code inside a div tag for each cell inside the td tag creating a class or classes that define the cell widths id-ing each cell, with or without a div tag, and defining widths individually and adjuting the table-layout: option After several days, I'm now at my rope's end. The only thing I can come up with is deliberately tripling the number of cells in each row so that colspan would be all integer values. That sounds inconvenient and unreasonably difficult to format the table the way I'd like. It's a table of Batman movies for a website -- a practice website I'm building, in order to learn HTML/CSS. I've been working on-and-off with HTML for several months, and CSS for a few weeks. PS: It is not being used for layout, I am simply trying to adjust the layout of the table itself.

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• PHP, MySQL prepared statements - can you use results of execute more than once by calling data_seek(

  - by Carvell Fenton

  Hello, I have a case where I want to use the results of a prepared statement more than once in a nested loop. The outer loop processes the results of another query, and the inner loop is the results of the prepared statement query. So the code would be something like this (just "pseudoish" to demonstrate the concept): // not showing the outer query, it is just a basic SELECT, not prepared statement // we'll call it $outer_query $obj_array = array(); // going to save objects in this $ids = array(18,19,20); // just example id numbers $query = "SELECT field1, field2 FROM table1 WHERE id=?"; $stmt = $db->prepare($query); foreach ($ids as $id) { $stmt->bind_param("i", $id); $stmt->execute(); $stmt->bind_result($var1, $var2); $stmt->store_result(); // I think I need this for data_seek while ($q1 = $outer_query->fetch_object()) { while ($stmt->fetch()) { if ($q1->field1 == $var1) { // looking for a match $obj = new stdClass(); $obj->var1 = $var1; $obj->var2 = $var2; $obj_array[] = $obj; $stmt->data_seek(0); // reset for outer loop break; // found match, so leave inner } } } } The problem I seem to be experiencing is that the values are not getting bound in the variables as I would expect after the first time I use fetch in the inner loop. Specifically, in one example I ran with 3 ids for the foreach, the first id was processed correctly, the second was processed incorrectly (matches were not found in the inner loop even though they existed), and then the third was processed correctly. Is there something wrong with the prepared statment function calls in the sequence I am doing above, or is this an invalid way to use the results of the prepared statement? Thanks.

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• Run-time error 459 when using WithEvents with a class that implements another

  - by Ken Keenan

  I am developing a VBA project in Word and have encountered a problem with handling events when using a class that implements another. I define an empty class, IMyInterface: Public Sub Xyz() End Sub Public Event SomeEvent() And a class, MyClass that implements the above: Implements IMyInterface Public Event SomeEvent() Public Sub Xyz() ' ... code ... RaiseEvent SomeEvent End Sub Private Sub IMyInterface_Xyz() Xyz End Sub If I create a third class, OtherClass, that declares a member variable with the type of the interface class: Private WithEvents mMy As IMyInterface and try to initialize this variable with an instance of the implementing class: Set mMy = New MyClass I get a run-time error '459': This component doesn't support this set of events. The MSDN page for this error message states: "You tried to use a WithEvents variable with a component that can't work as an event source for the specified set of events. For example, you may be sinking events of an object, then create another object that Implements the first object. Although you might think you could sink the events from the implemented object, that isn't automatically the case. Implements only implements an interface for methods and properties." The above pretty much sums up what I'm trying to do. The wording, "that isn't automatically the case", rather than "this is flat-out impossible", seems to suggest that there is some bit of manual work I need to do to get it to work, but it doesn't tell me what! Does anybody know if this is possible in VBA?

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• jQuery/JavaScript Date form validation

  - by Victor Jackson

  I am using the jQuery date picker calendar in a form. Once submitted the form passes params along via the url to a third party site. Everything works fine, except for one thing. If the value inserted into the date field by the datepicker calendar is subsequently deleted, or if the default date, that is in the form on page load, is deleted and the form is submitted I get the following error: "Conversion from string "" to type 'Date' is not valid." The solution to my problem is really simple, I want to validate the text field where the date is submitted and send out a default date (current date) if the field is empty for any reason. The problem is I am terrible at Javascript and cannot figure out how to do this. Here is the form code for my date field. [var('default_date' = date)] <input type="text" id="datepicker" name="txtdate" value="[$default_date]" onfocus="if (this.value == '[$default_date]') this.value = '';" onchange="form.BeginDate.value = this.value; form.EndDate.value = this.value;" /> <input type="hidden" name="BeginDate" value="[$default_date]"/> <input type="hidden" name="EndDate" value="[$default_date]"/>

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• Selectind DOM elements based on attribute content

  - by sameold

  I have several types of <a> in my document. I'd like to select only the <a> whose title attribute begins with the text "more data ..." like <a title="more data *"> For example given the markup below, I'd like to select the first and second <a>, but skip the third because title doesn't begin with more data, and skip the 4th because <a> doesn't even have a title attribute. <a title="more data some text" href="http://mypage.com/page.html">More</a> <a title="more data other text" href="http://mypage.com/page.html">More</a> <a title="not needed" href="http://mypage.com/page.html">Not needed</a> <a href="http://mypage.com/page.html">Not needed</a> I'm using DOMXPath. How would my query look like? $xpath = new DOMXPath($doc); $q = $xpath->query('//a');

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• How can I programmatically determine if my workstation is locked?

  - by AgentConundrum

  I'm writing up some productivity/metrics tools for myself to help monitor my focus throughout the day. Recently, I've noticed that I tend to get off track more than usual and feel the need to get up and go for walks/drinks/etc and I'm concerned that I'm "wasting" too much time. Since I always lock my computer when I go anywhere, and I unlock it as soon as I return (even if I'm just reading at my desk, etc), I was wondering how I can determine, in code, how long the machine is locked. I'm writing this in C# if that helps, but I'm open to other ideas. I like the windows service idea (and have accepted it) for simplicity and cleanliness, but unfortunately I don't think it will work for me in this particular case. I wanted to run this on my workstation at work rather than home (or in addition to home, I suppose), but it's locked down pretty hard courtesy of the DoD. That's part of the reason I'm rolling my own, actually. I'll write it up anyway and see if it works. Thanks everyone!

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• Eclipse cannot find existing project in build path

  - by PNS

  Here is probably one of the idiosyncrasies of Eclipse and its handling of build paths, which cannot be fixed despite all sorts of workarounds tested so far. The issue relates to a workspace of several projects, each of which compiles into its own JAR. Dependencies among the projects are resolved by adding the relevant ones to the build path (no Maven or other external tool or plugin is used), via Project -> Properties -> Java Build Path -> Projects Among all these projects, a couple (say, com.example.p1 and com.example.p2) refuse to recognize a third (and simple) one (say, com.example.p3), while all other projects do. So, although P3 is added to the build path, all related classes from P3 are imported properly and the source code of each such class is accessible by hitting F3, Eclipse keeps complaining that The import com.example.p3 cannot be resolved and SomeClass cannot be resolved to a type where com.example.p3.SomeClass is one of the P3 classes. If instead of the P3 project I put its compiled JAR in the build path, the issue disappears. However, code in P3 changes frequently and it is a time waste to keep compiling and refreshing the workspace so that the change is picked up, not to mention that this should not happen in an IDE anyway (and it does not for the other projects using P3). Among the workarounds tried are things like: Removing and adding again P1, P2, P3 Cleaning up and recompiling everything Checking whether any other project loads the P3 JAR Putting P3 at the top of the Eclipse build path "Order and Export" list Using the "Fix project setup" suggestion of Eclipse (available when hovering the mouse over the red-underlined-error compilation line). Actually, this option offers adding to the build path either P3 or its JAR, but if P3 is added, the issue reappears. Any ideas?

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• How might one cope with the ambiguous value produced by GetDllDirectory?

  - by Integer Poet

  GetDllDirectory produces an ambiguous value. When the string this call produces is empty, it means one of the following: nobody has called SetDllDirectory somebody passed NULL to SetDllDirectory somebody passed an empty string to SetDllDirectory The first two cases are equivalent for my purposes, but the third case is a problem. If I want to write save/restore code (call GetDllDirectory to save the "old" value, SetDllDirectory to set a "new" value temporarily, and later SetDllDirectory again to restore the "old" value), I run the risk of reversing some other programmer's intent. If the other programmer intended for the current working directory to be in the DLL search order (in other words, one of the first two bullets is true), and I pass an empty string to SetDllDirectory, I will be taking the current working directory out of the DLL search order, reversing the other programmer's intent. Can anyone suggest an approach to eliminate or work around this ambiguity? P.S. I know having the current working directory in the DLL search order could be interpreted as a security hole. Nevertheless, it is the default behavior, and my code is not in a position to undo that; my code needs to be compatible with the expectations of all potential callers, many of which are large and old and beyond my control.

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• Passing Extras and screen rotation

  - by Luis A. Florit

  This kind of questions appear periodically. Sorry if this has been covered before, but I'm a newbie and couldn't find the appropriate answer. It deals with the correct implementation of communication between classes and activities. I made a gallery app. It has 3 main activities: the Main one, to search for filenames using a pattern; a Thumb one, that shows all the images that matched the pattern as thumbnails in a gridview, and a Photo activity, that opens a full sized image when you click a thumb in Thumbs. I pass to the Photo activity via an Intent the filenames (an array), and the position (an int) of the clicked thumb in the gridview. This third Photo activity has only one view on it: a TouchImageView, that I adapted for previous/next switching and zooming according to where you shortclick on the image (left, right or middle). Moreover, I added a longclick listener to Photo to show EXIF info. The thing is working, but I am not happy with the implementation... Some things are not right. One of the problems I am experiencing is that, if I click on the right of the image to see the next in the Photo activity, it switches fine (position++), but when rotating the device the original one at position appears. What is happening is that Photo is destroyed when rotating the image, and for some reason it restarts again, without obeying super.onCreate(savedInstanceState), loading again the Extras (the position only changed in Photo, not on the parent activities). I tried with startActivityForResult instead of startActivity, but failed... Of course I can do something contrived to save the position data, but there should be something "conceptual" that I am not understanding about how activities work, and I want to do this right. Can someone please explain me what I am doing wrong, which is the best method to implement what I want, and why? Thanks a lot!!!

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• "for" loop inside another "for" loop

  - by jnkrois

  Hello everybody. I have quick question, and I'm sure some of you guys will be able to point out what I'm doing wrong. Basically, I want to create a table with (calendar), with the months and days of an entire year, and Im using php to do it, my code is doing something weird. What happens is that January is empty and the days for January are being put in february. My code so far is as follows: $months = 12; $monthsOfTheyear = array("Januany","February","March","April","May","June","July","August","September","October","November","December"); $currentMonth = date("n"); $currentYear = date("Y"); $daysOfTheMonth = cal_days_in_month(CAL_GREGORIAN, $currentMonth, $currentYear); for($i = 0; $i < $months; $i++){ echo " <tbody class='month'>"; echo " <tr> <td colspan='".$daysOfTheMonth."'> ".$monthsOfTheyear[$i]." </td> </tr> <tr> "; $daysOfEachMonth = cal_days_in_month(CAL_GREGORIAN, $i, $currentYear); for($d = 1; $d <= $daysOfEachMonth; $d++){ echo " <td> ".$d." </td> "; } echo " </tr> </tbody"; } I'm obviously doing something wrong, but I've been staring at the monitor for about an hour trying to figure it out. I'd appreciate any advice. Thanks

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• CompositionHost.Initialize() can not execute twice.

  - by Khoa

  I am currently try to integrate MEF and PRISM to work with each other. Everything is working fine so far. Now i would like to use MEF runtime module discovery (DeploymentCatalog) which will be used to download XAPs from server directory and then plug it into one of the Region inside my MAIN UI. I am using UnityBootStrapper and inside this class i also integrated MEF container. This sample application is based on Glenn Block (http://codebetter.com/glennblock/2010/01/03/mef-and-prism-exploration-mef-module-loading/). The following code is used to initialize CompositionContainer inside my Bootstrapper: // This is the host catalog which contains all parts of running assembly. var catalog = GetHostCatalog(); // Create MEF container which initial catalog var container = new CompositionContainer(catalog); // here we explicitly map a part to make it available on imports elsewhere, using // Unity to resolve the export so dependencies are resolved // We do this because region manager is third-party ... therefore, we need to // export explicitly because the implementation doesn't have its own [export] tag container.ComposeExportedValue<IRegionManager>(Container.Resolve<IRegionManager>()); container.ComposeExportedValue<IEventAggregator>(Container.Resolve<IEventAggregator>()); // Obtain CatalogService as a singleton // All dynamic modules will use this service to add its parts. Container.RegisterInstance<ICatalogService>(new CatalogService(catalog)); // Initialize the container CompositionHost.Initialize(container); Now i have another class called DeploymentCatalogService which is used to download the XAP from server. The current problem i am facing is that inside DeploymentCatalogService Initialize method, CompositionHost container is try to initialize its container with aggregateCatalog again. _aggregateCatalog = new AggregateCatalog(); _aggregateCatalog.Catalogs.Add(new DeploymentCatalog()); CompositionHost.Initialize(_aggregateCatalog); This causes an Exception which stated that The container has already been initialized. Is there a way to use the existing container and update it with the new aggregateCatalog? Hope this is not too confusing. Please be nice i am still new to MEF. Cheers,

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• Is it possible to Kick off a java process under Windows Service with C#?

  - by Wing C. Chen

  I would like to wrap a java program into a windows service with C# using System.ServiceProcess.ServiceBase. So I came up with the following code: /// <summary> /// The main entry point for the application. /// </summary> static void Main() { System.ServiceProcess.ServiceBase.Run(new JavaLauncher()); } protected override void OnStart(string[] args) { Thread _thread; _thread = new Thread(StartService); _thread.Start(); base.OnStart(args); } protected override void OnStop() { Thread _thread; _thread = new Thread(StopService); _thread.Start(); base.OnStop(); } static public void StartService() { System.Diagnostics.Process proc = new System.Diagnostics.Process(); proc.EnableRaisingEvents = false; proc.StartInfo.FileName = "javaw"; proc.StartInfo.Arguments = config.generateLaunchCommand(); proc.Start(); } static public void StopService() { System.Diagnostics.Process proc = new System.Diagnostics.Process(); proc.EnableRaisingEvents = false; proc.StartInfo.FileName = "javaw"; proc.StartInfo.Arguments = "-jar stop.jar"; proc.Start(); } Firstly I had to use Threads in OnStart and OnStop. If not, an exception occurs complaining that the service is terminated because of doing nothing. Secondly, the service can be hooked up to windows smoothly. However, the service terminates a short while after it is started. I looked into the process monitor, only the service process stays alive for that short while, the javaw process never showed up, however. Is there anyone who knows how this can be fixed? It works fine in an ordinary console environment. I think it has something to do with Windows service.

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• testng multiple suites

  - by Eli

  Hi people. my problem is as follows: i am testing a web-ui using selenium and testng. i have a test suite with many test classes in it. i have a method with the @BeforeSuite witch also has a @Parameters annotation, this method recieves as a parameter the browser in witch the selenium will test by run,executing the lines: selenium = new DefaultSelenium("localhost", 4444, **browser**, "http://localhost:8099"); selenium.start(); the xml im using to run the test suite is: <suite name="suite"> <parameter name = "browser" value = "*firefox"/> <test name="allTests"> <classes> <class name="test.webui.MemcachedDeploymentTest" /> </classes> </test> </suite> this works fine and the test runs in firefox. my problem is that i would like to somehow run this suite again, immediatly after the first run finishes, but this time with chrome as the browser. i now have 2 xml suites, one with chrome and one with firefox, is there any way to run these test suites one after the other automatically? maybe using a third xml? Thanks in advance

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• IOS : BAD ACCESS when trying to add a new Entity object

  - by Maverick447

  So i'm using coredata to model my relationships . This is the model in brief Type A can have one or more types of type B Type B has a inverse relationship of being associated with one of type A Type B can have one or more types of type C Type C has a inverse relationship of being associated with one of type B From a UI standpoint , I have a Navigation controller with controllers that successively sets up the first A object (VC-1) , then another viewcontroller (VC-2) creates a B object ( I pass in the A object to this controller) and the B object is added to the A object . Similarly the same thing happens with B and C . The third Viewcontroller (VC3) first creates a C object and assigns it to the passed B Object . Also between these viewcontrollers the managedObjectCOntext is also passed . SO my use case is such that while viewcontroller (VC-3) is the top controller a button action will keep creating multiple objects of type C and add them to the same type B object that was passed . Also as part of this function I save the managedObject context after saving each type C . e.g. code in viewcontroller 3 - (void) SaveNewTypeC { TypeC *newtypeC = (Question*)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"TypeC" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [newtypeC setProp1:] ; [newtypeC setProp2:] .. .. **[typeBObject addTypeCInTypeBObject:newtypeC];** [section setTotalCObjectCount:[ NSNumber numberWithInt:typeCIndex++]]; NSError *error = nil; if (![managedObjectContext save:&error]) { // Handle error NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@, %@", error, [error userInfo],[error localizedDescription]); exit(-1); // Fail } [newtypeC release]; } - (IBAction)selectedNewButton:(id)sender { [self SaveNewTypeC]; [self startRepeatingTimer]; } The BAD ACCESS seems to appear when the bold line above executes Relating to some HashValue . Any clues on resolving this would be helpful .

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• Progressively stream the output of an ASP.NET page - or render a page outside of an HTTP request

  - by Evgeny

  I have an ASP.NET 2.0 page with many repeating blocks, including a third-party server-side control (so it's not just plain HTML). Each is quite expensive to generate, in terms of both CPU and RAM. I'm currently using a standard Repeater control for this. There are two problems with this simple approach: The entire page must be rendered before any of it is returned to the client, so the user must wait a long time before they see any data. (I write progress messages using Response.Write, so there is feedback, but no actual results.) The ASP.NET worker process must hold everything in memory at the same time. There is no inherent needs for this: once one block is processed it won't be changed, so it could be returned to the client and the memory could be freed. I would like to somehow return these blocks to the client one at a time, as each is generated. I'm thinking of extracting the stuff inside the Repeater into a separate page and getting it repeatedly using AJAX, but there are some complications involved in that and I wonder if there is some simper approach. Ideally I'd like to keep it as one page (from the client's point of view), but return it incrementally. Another way would be to do something similar, but on the server: still create a separate page, but have the server access it and then Response.Write() the HTML it gets to the response stream for the real client request. Is there a way to avoid an HTTP request here, though? Is there some ASP.NET method that would render a UserControl or a Page outside of an HTTP request and simply return the HTML to me as a string? I'm open to other ideas on how to do this as well.

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• What does it mean for an OS to "execute within user processes"? Do any modern OS's use that approach

  - by Chris Cooper

  I have recently become interested in operating system, and a friend of mine lent me a book called Operating Systems: Internals and Design Principles (I have the third edition), published in 1998. It's been a very interesting book so far, but I have come to the part dealing with process control, and it's using UNIX System V as one of its examples of an operating system that executes within user processes. This concept has struck me as a little strange. First of all, does this mean that OS instructions and data are stored in each user of the processes? Probably not, because that would be an absurdly redundant scheme. But if not, then what does it mean to "execute within" a user process? Do any modern operating systems use this approach? It seems much more logical to have the operating system execute as its own process, or even independently of all processes, if you're short on memory. All the inter-accessiblilty of process data required for this layout seems to greatly complicate things. (But maybe that's just because I don't quite get the concept ;D) Here is what the book says: "Execution within User Processes: An alternative that is common with operation systems on smaller machines is to execute virtually all operating system software in the context of a user process. ... "

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• How do I create rows with alternating colors for a UITableView on iPhone?

  - by Mat

  Hi all, i would to have alternate 2 colors of rows, like the first black, the second white, the third black, etc, etc... my approach is like a basic exercise of programming to calculate if a number is odd number or not: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; cell = ((MainCell*)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]); if (cell==nil) { NSArray *topLevelObjects=[[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"MainCell" owner:self options:nil]; for (id currentObject in topLevelObjects){ if ([currentObject isKindOfClass:[UITableViewCell class]]){ if ((indexPath.row % 2)==0) { [cell.contentView setBackgroundColor:[UIColor purpleColor]]; }else{ [cell.contentView setBackgroundColor:[UIColor whiteColor]]; } cell = (MainCell *) currentObject; break; } } }else { AsyncImageView* oldImage = (AsyncImageView*) [cell.contentView viewWithTag:999]; [oldImage removeFromSuperview]; }return cell; The problem is that when i do a rapid scroll, the background of cells become like the last 2 cell black, the first 2 cell white or something like this, but if i scroll slow works fine. I think the problem is the cache of reusableCell. Any ideas? TIA

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• Cannot use Java 7 instalation if Java 8 is installed

  - by Sebastien Diot

  I normally still use Java 7 for all my coding projects (it's a company "politics" issue), but I installed Java 8 for one third-party project I am contributing to. Now, it seems I cannot have Java 8 installed in Windows 7 x64, and still use Java 7 by default: C:\>"%JAVA_HOME%\bin\java.exe" -version java version "1.7.0_55" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.7.0_55-b13) Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM (build 24.55-b03, mixed mode) C:\>java.exe -version java version "1.8.0_05" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.8.0_05-b13) Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM (build 25.5-b02, mixed mode) As you can see, JAVA_HOME is completely ignored. I also have Java in the path, using "%JAVA_HOME%\bin", which resolve correctly to Java 7 when I check the path in a DOS box, but it still makes no difference. I checked in the "Java Control Panel" (not sure if this affects the default command-line Java version). Under the "Java" tab, the "View..." button, you get to see "registered" Java versions. I can add all the versions under the "User" tab, but under "System" there is only Java 8, and no way to change it. Am I missing something, or did Oracle just make it impossible to use Java 7, unless I de-install Java 8? I don't want to have to specify the "source" and "target" everywhere, and I don't even know if it is possible for me to specify it everywhere, where Java is used. EDIT: What I did is I de-installed all Java. Then installed the latest Java7 (both 86 and x64), and then the latest Java8 (both 86 and x64). After I did that, I noticed that the x64 JDK was gone. It seems Java8 killed it. So I re-installed the JDK 7 x64, after the JDK 8 x64. Still, JDK7 x64 did not seem to "replace" the "java.exe" which is copied into the "Windows" directory itself (I assume THAT is the problem).

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