Search Results

Search found 10939 results on 438 pages for 'third monitor'.

Page 379/438 | < Previous Page | 375 376 377 378 379 380 381 382 383 384 385 386  | Next Page >

  • What is the procedure for debugging a production-only error?

    - by Lord Torgamus
    Let me say upfront that I'm so ignorant on this topic that I don't even know whether this question has objective answers or not. If it ends up being "not," I'll delete or vote to close the post. Here's the scenario: I just wrote a little web service. It works on my machine. It works on my team lead's machine. It works, as far as I can tell, on every machine except for the production server. The exception that the production server spits out upon failure originates from a third-party JAR file, and is skimpy on information. I search the web for hours, but don't come up with anything useful. So what's the procedure for tracking down an issue that occurs only on production machines? Is there a standard methodology, or perhaps category/family of tools, for this? The error that inspired this question has already been fixed, but that was due more to good fortune than a solid approach to debugging. I'm asking this question for future reference. Some related questions: Test accounts and products in a production system Running test on Production Code/Server

    Read the article

  • Run-time error 459 when using WithEvents with a class that implements another

    - by Ken Keenan
    I am developing a VBA project in Word and have encountered a problem with handling events when using a class that implements another. I define an empty class, IMyInterface: Public Sub Xyz() End Sub Public Event SomeEvent() And a class, MyClass that implements the above: Implements IMyInterface Public Event SomeEvent() Public Sub Xyz() ' ... code ... RaiseEvent SomeEvent End Sub Private Sub IMyInterface_Xyz() Xyz End Sub If I create a third class, OtherClass, that declares a member variable with the type of the interface class: Private WithEvents mMy As IMyInterface and try to initialize this variable with an instance of the implementing class: Set mMy = New MyClass I get a run-time error '459': This component doesn't support this set of events. The MSDN page for this error message states: "You tried to use a WithEvents variable with a component that can't work as an event source for the specified set of events. For example, you may be sinking events of an object, then create another object that Implements the first object. Although you might think you could sink the events from the implemented object, that isn't automatically the case. Implements only implements an interface for methods and properties." The above pretty much sums up what I'm trying to do. The wording, "that isn't automatically the case", rather than "this is flat-out impossible", seems to suggest that there is some bit of manual work I need to do to get it to work, but it doesn't tell me what! Does anybody know if this is possible in VBA?

    Read the article

  • Adjust width of td to make make row widths even

    - by user1729886
    I am trying to produce a table with a different number of cells in each row. The first row is a header row (every other row contains cells). This header is the width of the table. The second row has 2 cells in it... the third has 1 cell... the fourth has 4 cells... the fifth and final row has 3 cells. I want the table set up so that the rows span the full width of the table. If the table is 1000px... The header would be 1000px wide the cells in the 2nd row would be 500px EACH the cell in the 3rd row would be 1000px the cells in the 4th row would be 250px EACH and the cells in the 5th row would be 333px, 334px, and 333px each (left-to-right) I figured out I could use colspan for the first 4 rows, but the 5th (with 3 cells) would require a non-integer value. The cells in the 5th row won't expand beyond their column without colspan that I can tell... trying the width:## CSS code inside a div tag for each cell inside the td tag creating a class or classes that define the cell widths id-ing each cell, with or without a div tag, and defining widths individually and adjuting the table-layout: option After several days, I'm now at my rope's end. The only thing I can come up with is deliberately tripling the number of cells in each row so that colspan would be all integer values. That sounds inconvenient and unreasonably difficult to format the table the way I'd like. It's a table of Batman movies for a website -- a practice website I'm building, in order to learn HTML/CSS. I've been working on-and-off with HTML for several months, and CSS for a few weeks. PS: It is not being used for layout, I am simply trying to adjust the layout of the table itself.

    Read the article

  • How do I create rows with alternating colors for a UITableView on iPhone?

    - by Mat
    Hi all, i would to have alternate 2 colors of rows, like the first black, the second white, the third black, etc, etc... my approach is like a basic exercise of programming to calculate if a number is odd number or not: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; cell = ((MainCell*)[tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]); if (cell==nil) { NSArray *topLevelObjects=[[NSBundle mainBundle] loadNibNamed:@"MainCell" owner:self options:nil]; for (id currentObject in topLevelObjects){ if ([currentObject isKindOfClass:[UITableViewCell class]]){ if ((indexPath.row % 2)==0) { [cell.contentView setBackgroundColor:[UIColor purpleColor]]; }else{ [cell.contentView setBackgroundColor:[UIColor whiteColor]]; } cell = (MainCell *) currentObject; break; } } }else { AsyncImageView* oldImage = (AsyncImageView*) [cell.contentView viewWithTag:999]; [oldImage removeFromSuperview]; }return cell; The problem is that when i do a rapid scroll, the background of cells become like the last 2 cell black, the first 2 cell white or something like this, but if i scroll slow works fine. I think the problem is the cache of reusableCell. Any ideas? TIA

    Read the article

  • How big can I make an Android application's canvas in terms of pixels?

    - by user279112
    I've determined an estimate of the size of my Android emulator's screen in pixels, although I think its resolution can be changed to other numbers. Quite frankly though that doesn't eliminate the general problem of not knowing how many pixels on each axis I have to work with on my Android applications in general. The main problem I'm trying to solve is this: How do I make sure I don't use a faulty resolution on Android applications if I want to keep things' sizes constant (so that if the application screen shrinks, for instances, objects will still show up just as big - there just won't be as many of them being shown) if I wish to do this with a single universal resolution for each program? Failing that, how do I make sure everything's alright if I try to do everything the same way with maybe a few different pre-set resolutions? Mainly it seems like a relevant question that must be answered before I can come across a complete answer for the general problem is how big can I always make my application in pixels, NOT regarding if and when a user resizes the application's screen to something smaller than the maximum size permitted by the phone and its operating system. I really want to try to keep this simple. If I were doing this for a modern desktop, for instance, I know that if I design the application with a 800x600 canvas, the user can still shrink the application to the point they're not doing themselves any favors, but at least I can basically count on it working right and not being too big for the monitor or something. Is there such a magic resolution for Android, assuming that I'm designing for API levels 3+ (Android 1.5+)? Thanks

    Read the article

  • MYSQL JOIN WHERE ISSUES - need some kind of if condition

    - by Breezer
    Hi Well this will be hard to explain but ill do my best The thing is i have 4 tables all with a specific column to relate to eachother. 1 table with users(agent_users) , 1 with working hours(agent_pers), 1 with sold items(agent_stat),1 with project(agent_pro) the user and the project table is irrelevant in the issue at hand but to give you a better understanding why certain tables is included in my query i decided to still mention them =) The thing is that I use 2 pages to insert data to the working hour and the sold items during that time tables, then i have a third page to summarize everything for current month, the query for that is as following: SELECT *, SUM(sv_p_kom),SUM(sv_p_gick),SUM(sv_p_lunch) FROM (( agent_users LEFT JOIN agent_pers ON agent_users.sv_aid = agent_pers.sv_p_uid) LEFT JOIN agent_stat ON agent_pers.sv_p_uid = agent_stat.sv_s_uid) LEFT JOIN agent_pro ON agent_pers.sv_p_pid=agent_pro.p_id WHERE MONTH(agent_pers.sv_p_datum) =7 GROUP BY sv_aname so the problem is now that i dont want sold items from previous months to get included in the data received, i know i could solve that by simple adding in the WHERE part MONTH(agent_stat.sv_s_datum) =7 but then if no items been sold that month no data at all will show up not the time or anything. Any aid on how i could solve this is greatly appreciated. if there's something that's not so clear dont hesitate to ask and ill try my best to answer. after all my english isn't the best out there :P regards breezer

    Read the article

  • PHP5 getrusage() returning incorrect information?

    - by Andrew
    I'm trying to determine CPU usage of my PHP scripts. I just found this article which details how to find system and user CPU usage time (Section 4). However, when I tried out the examples, I received completely different results. The first example: sleep(3); $data = getrusage(); echo "User time: ". ($data['ru_utime.tv_sec'] + $data['ru_utime.tv_usec'] / 1000000); echo "System time: ". ($data['ru_stime.tv_sec'] + $data['ru_stime.tv_usec'] / 1000000); Results in: User time: 29.53 System time: 2.71 Example 2: for($i=0;$i<10000000;$i++) { } // Same echo statements Results: User time: 16.69 System time: 2.1 Example 3: $start = microtime(true); while(microtime(true) - $start < 3) { } // Same echo statements Results: User time: 34.94 System time: 3.14 Obviously, none of the information is correct except maybe the system time in the third example. So what am I doing wrong? I'd really like to be able to use this information, but it needs to be reliable. I'm using Ubuntu Server 8.04 LTS (32-bit) and this is the output of php -v: PHP 5.2.4-2ubuntu5.10 with Suhosin-Patch 0.9.6.2 (cli) (built: Jan 6 2010 22:01:14) Copyright (c) 1997-2007 The PHP Group Zend Engine v2.2.0, Copyright (c) 1998-2007 Zend Technologies

    Read the article

  • can I acces a struct inside of a struct without using the dot operator?

    - by yan bellavance
    I have 2 structures that have 90% of their fields the same. I want to group those fields in a structure but I do not want to use the dot operator to access them. The reason is I already coded with the first structure and have just created the second one. before: struct{ int a; int b; int c; object1 name; }str1; struct{ int a; int b; int c; object2 name; }str2; now I would create a third struct: struct{ int a; int b; int c; }str3; and would change the str1 and atr2 to this: struct{ str3 str; object1 name; }str1; struct { str3 str; object2 name; }str2; Finally I would like to be able to access a,b and c by doing: str1 myStruct; myStruct.a; myStruct.b; myStruct.c; and not: myStruct.str.a; myStruct.str.b; myStruct.str.c; Is there a way to do such a thing. The reason for doing this is I want keep the integrety of the data if chnges to the struct were to occur and to not repeat myself and not have to change my existing code and not have fields nested too deeply.

    Read the article

  • Loading Dimension Tables - Methodologies

    - by Nev_Rahd
    Hello, Recently I been working on project, where need to populated Dim Tables from EDW Tables. EDW Tables are of type II which does maintain historical data. When comes to load Dim Table, for which source may be multiple EDW Tables or would be single table with multi level pivoting (on attributes). Mean: There would be 10 records - one for each attribute which need to be pivoted on domain_code to make a single row in Dim. Out of these 10 records there would be some attributes with same domain_code but with different sub_domain_code, which needs further pivoting on subdomain code. Ex: if i got domain code: 01,02, 03 = which are straight pivot on domain code I would also have domain code: 10 with subdomain code / version as 2006,2007,2008,2009 That means I need to split my source table with above attributes into two = one for domain code and other for domain_code + version. so far so good. When it comes to load Dim Table: As per design specs for Dimensions (originally written by third party), what they want is: for every single change in EDW (attribute), it should assemble all the related records (for that NK) mean new one with other attribute values which are current = process them to create a new dim record and insert it. That mean if a single extract contains 100 records updated (one for each NK), it should assemble 100 + (100*9) records to insert / update dim table. How good is this approach. Other way I tried to do is just do a lookup into dim table for that NK get the value's of recent records (attributes which not changed) and insert it and update the current one. What would be the better approach assembling records at source side for one attribute change or looking into dim table's recent record and process it. If this doesn't make sense, would like to elaborate it further. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Generating a canonical path

    - by Joel
    Does any one know of any Java libraries I could use to generate canonical paths (basically remove back-references). I need something that will do the following: Raw Path - Canonical Path /../foo/ -> /foo /foo/ -> /foo /../../../ -> / /./foo/./ -> /foo //foo//bar -> /foo/bar //foo/../bar -> /bar etc... At the moment I lazily rely on using: new File("/", path).getCanonicalPath(); But this resolves the path against the actual file system, and is synchronised. java.lang.Thread.State: BLOCKED (on object monitor) at java.io.ExpiringCache.get(ExpiringCache.java:55) - waiting to lock <0x93a0d180> (a java.io.ExpiringCache) at java.io.UnixFileSystem.canonicalize(UnixFileSystem.java:137) at java.io.File.getCanonicalPath(File.java:559) The paths that I am canonicalising do not exist on my file system, so just the logic of the method will do me fine, thus not requiring any synchronisation. I'm hoping for a well tested library rather than having to write my own.

    Read the article

  • "for" loop inside another "for" loop

    - by jnkrois
    Hello everybody. I have quick question, and I'm sure some of you guys will be able to point out what I'm doing wrong. Basically, I want to create a table with (calendar), with the months and days of an entire year, and Im using php to do it, my code is doing something weird. What happens is that January is empty and the days for January are being put in february. My code so far is as follows: $months = 12; $monthsOfTheyear = array("Januany","February","March","April","May","June","July","August","September","October","November","December"); $currentMonth = date("n"); $currentYear = date("Y"); $daysOfTheMonth = cal_days_in_month(CAL_GREGORIAN, $currentMonth, $currentYear); for($i = 0; $i < $months; $i++){ echo " <tbody class='month'>"; echo " <tr> <td colspan='".$daysOfTheMonth."'> ".$monthsOfTheyear[$i]." </td> </tr> <tr> "; $daysOfEachMonth = cal_days_in_month(CAL_GREGORIAN, $i, $currentYear); for($d = 1; $d <= $daysOfEachMonth; $d++){ echo " <td> ".$d." </td> "; } echo " </tr> </tbody"; } I'm obviously doing something wrong, but I've been staring at the monitor for about an hour trying to figure it out. I'd appreciate any advice. Thanks

    Read the article

  • what is a root directory in IIS 6 and How do I make one of my subfolder in ASP.NET website the root directory?

    - by R_Coder
    I need to integrate a third party plugin in my asp.net website. To install the plugin, they have mentioned this sentence, "Create an application through your IIS control panel with root directory at -(some path from my website folder)?". I am not much aware with IIS and rarely worked with it. Though I tried every possible way i could do in IIS, I am not able to work it out. After installation, there is a test page provided by plugin which i have to run to check but when I run it, it shows this error. "It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level. This error can be caused by a virtual directory not being configured as an application in IIS." I searched this error too and found that it is because the two Web.Config file, one from the main project and another from plugin folder. The only way to work with this is to make the plugin folder they specified as root directory in IIS. Someone kindly tell me some easy steps to do this. What I was doing is, in IIS6, I added New website with the main folder of my asp.net website, then I right clickadd application and choosed the gievn path, thought it would become root directory but it ain't. Help would be appreciated. ALso note that, i have to put the plugin folder in my main website folder only. So, there are two web.config. I tried to rename one of them too, it solved the above error but gave another errors but I think main problem is of root directory. P.S they show me above error on web.config file of plugin folder on this sentence- "Line 51: < authentication mode="Windows" />"

    Read the article

  • IOS : BAD ACCESS when trying to add a new Entity object

    - by Maverick447
    So i'm using coredata to model my relationships . This is the model in brief Type A can have one or more types of type B Type B has a inverse relationship of being associated with one of type A Type B can have one or more types of type C Type C has a inverse relationship of being associated with one of type B From a UI standpoint , I have a Navigation controller with controllers that successively sets up the first A object (VC-1) , then another viewcontroller (VC-2) creates a B object ( I pass in the A object to this controller) and the B object is added to the A object . Similarly the same thing happens with B and C . The third Viewcontroller (VC3) first creates a C object and assigns it to the passed B Object . Also between these viewcontrollers the managedObjectCOntext is also passed . SO my use case is such that while viewcontroller (VC-3) is the top controller a button action will keep creating multiple objects of type C and add them to the same type B object that was passed . Also as part of this function I save the managedObject context after saving each type C . e.g. code in viewcontroller 3 - (void) SaveNewTypeC { TypeC *newtypeC = (Question*)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"TypeC" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [newtypeC setProp1:] ; [newtypeC setProp2:] .. .. **[typeBObject addTypeCInTypeBObject:newtypeC];** [section setTotalCObjectCount:[ NSNumber numberWithInt:typeCIndex++]]; NSError *error = nil; if (![managedObjectContext save:&error]) { // Handle error NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@, %@", error, [error userInfo],[error localizedDescription]); exit(-1); // Fail } [newtypeC release]; } - (IBAction)selectedNewButton:(id)sender { [self SaveNewTypeC]; [self startRepeatingTimer]; } The BAD ACCESS seems to appear when the bold line above executes Relating to some HashValue . Any clues on resolving this would be helpful .

    Read the article

  • YQL + PHP : how to make a facebook login

    - by Jonathan
    Hi! I was reading some stuff about the YQL api that Yahoo! has provided, I am not sure, but it appears to be a collection of lots of third party api into one common language, right? what I don't get is how to make the facebook login through it so I can get the user profile data... My project is to add a facebook(and other social networks) form login, because the website won't have his own login, people will have to use a social network to link in. Then I thought the YQL would help me out with this task so I wouldn't have to develop lots of functions to each one of the networks. Reading this http://developer.yahoo.com/yql/guide/yql-code-examples.html#sdk_yql, I understood how to make a Yahoo login so I can access some private data, but couldn't find how I could do it with facebook and others So my question... Can YQL help me with this? Can you give me a simple example of a facebook session using it within PHP? Are there alternatives to aid me in this task? thanks, Jonathan

    Read the article

  • How do I pass an NSString through 3 ViewControllers?

    - by dBloc
    hey, I'm currently using the iPhone SDK and I'm having trouble passing an NSString through 3 views I am able to pass an NSString between 2 view controllers but I am unable to pass it through another one. My code is as follows... `- (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)index`Path { NSString *string1 = nil; NSDictionary *dictionary = [listOfItems objectAtIndex:indexPath.section]; NSArray *array = [dictionary objectForKey:@"items"]; string1 = [array objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; //Initialize the detail view controller and display it. ViewController2 *vc2 = [[ViewController2 alloc] initWithNibName:@"ViewController2" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; vc2.string1 = string1; [self.navigationController pushViewController:vc2 animated:YES]; [vc2 release]; vc2 = nil; } in the "ViewController 2" implementations I am able use "string1" in the title bar by doing the following.... - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; self.navigationItem.title = string1; UIBarButtonItem *addButton = [[[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"icon_time.png"] style:UIBarButtonItemStylePlain //style:UIBarButtonItemStyleBordered target:self action:@selector(goToThirdView)] autorelease]; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = addButton; } but I also have a NavBar Button on the right side that I would like to push a new view - (void)goToThirdView { ViewController3 *vc3 = [[ViewController3 alloc] initWithNibName:@"ViewController3" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:NESW animated:YES]; vc3.string1 = string1 ; [vc3 release]; vc3 = nil; } How do I pass on that same string to the third view? (or fourth)

    Read the article

  • CompositionHost.Initialize() can not execute twice.

    - by Khoa
    I am currently try to integrate MEF and PRISM to work with each other. Everything is working fine so far. Now i would like to use MEF runtime module discovery (DeploymentCatalog) which will be used to download XAPs from server directory and then plug it into one of the Region inside my MAIN UI. I am using UnityBootStrapper and inside this class i also integrated MEF container. This sample application is based on Glenn Block (http://codebetter.com/glennblock/2010/01/03/mef-and-prism-exploration-mef-module-loading/). The following code is used to initialize CompositionContainer inside my Bootstrapper: // This is the host catalog which contains all parts of running assembly. var catalog = GetHostCatalog(); // Create MEF container which initial catalog var container = new CompositionContainer(catalog); // here we explicitly map a part to make it available on imports elsewhere, using // Unity to resolve the export so dependencies are resolved // We do this because region manager is third-party ... therefore, we need to // export explicitly because the implementation doesn't have its own [export] tag container.ComposeExportedValue<IRegionManager>(Container.Resolve<IRegionManager>()); container.ComposeExportedValue<IEventAggregator>(Container.Resolve<IEventAggregator>()); // Obtain CatalogService as a singleton // All dynamic modules will use this service to add its parts. Container.RegisterInstance<ICatalogService>(new CatalogService(catalog)); // Initialize the container CompositionHost.Initialize(container); Now i have another class called DeploymentCatalogService which is used to download the XAP from server. The current problem i am facing is that inside DeploymentCatalogService Initialize method, CompositionHost container is try to initialize its container with aggregateCatalog again. _aggregateCatalog = new AggregateCatalog(); _aggregateCatalog.Catalogs.Add(new DeploymentCatalog()); CompositionHost.Initialize(_aggregateCatalog); This causes an Exception which stated that The container has already been initialized. Is there a way to use the existing container and update it with the new aggregateCatalog? Hope this is not too confusing. Please be nice i am still new to MEF. Cheers,

    Read the article

  • Truncating a string while storing it in an array in c

    - by Nick
    I am trying to create an array of 20 character strings with a maximum of 17 characters that are obtained from a file named "words.dat". After that the program should truncate the string only showing the first 17 characters and completely ignore the rest of that string. However My question is: I am not quite sure how to accomplish this, can anyone give me some insight on how to accomplish this task? Here is my current code as is: #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #define WORDS 20 #define LENGTH 18 char function1(char[WORDS][LENGTH]); int main( void ) { char word_array [WORDS] [LENGTH]; function1(word_array); return ( 0 ) ; } char function1(char word_array[WORDS][LENGTH]) { FILE *wordsfile = fopen("words.dat", "r"); int i = 0; if (wordsfile == NULL) printf("\nwords.dat was not properly opened.\n"); else { for (i = 0; i < WORDS; i++) { fscanf(wordsfile, "%17s", word_array[i]); printf ("%s \n", word_array[i]); } fclose(wordsfile); } return (word_array[WORDS][LENGTH]); } words.dat file: Ninja DragonsFury failninja dragonsrage leagueoflegendssurfgthyjnu white black red green yellow green leagueoflegendssughjkuj dragonsfury Sword sodas tiger snakes Swords Snakes sage Sample output: blahblah@fang:~>a.out Ninja DragonsFury failninja dragonsrage leagueoflegendssu rfgthyjnu white black red green yellow green leagueoflegendssu ghjkuj dragonsfury Sword sodas tiger snakes Swords blahblah@fang:~> What will be accomplished afterwards with this program is: After function1 works properly I will then create a second function name "function2" that will look throughout the array for matching pairs of words that match "EXACTLY" including case . After I will create a third function that displays the 20 character strings from the words.dat file that I previously created and the matching words.

    Read the article

  • Can a WebServiceHost be changed to avoid the use of HttpListener?

    - by sbyse
    I am looking for a way to use a WCF WebServiceHost without having to rely on the HttpListener class and it's associated permission problems (see this question for details). I'm working on a application which communicates locally with another (third-party) application via their REST API. At the moment we are using WCF as an embedded HTTP server. We create a WebServiceHost as follows: String hostPath = "http://localhost:" + portNo; WebServiceHost host = new WebServiceHost(typeof(IntegrationService), new Uri(hostPath)); // create a webhttpbinding for rest/pox and enable cookie support for session management WebHttpBinding webHttpBinding = new WebHttpBinding(); webHttpBinding.AllowCookies = true; ServiceEndpoint ep = host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(IIntegrationService), webHttpBinding, ""); host.Open() ChannelFactory<IIntegrationService> cf = new ChannelFactory<IIntegrationService>(webHttpBinding, hostPath); IIntegrationService channel = cf.CreateChannel(); Everything works nicely as long as our application is run as administrator. If we run our application on a machine without administrative privileges the host.Open() will throw an HttpListenerException with ErrorCode == 5 (ERROR_ACCESS_DENIED). We can get around the problem by running httpcfg.exe from the command line but this is a one-click desktop application and that's not really as long term solution for us. We could ditch WCF and write our own HTTP server but I'd like to avoid that if possible. What's the easiest way to replace HttpListener with a standard TCP socket while still using all of the remaining HTTP scaffolding that WCF provides?

    Read the article

  • Cannot use Java 7 instalation if Java 8 is installed

    - by Sebastien Diot
    I normally still use Java 7 for all my coding projects (it's a company "politics" issue), but I installed Java 8 for one third-party project I am contributing to. Now, it seems I cannot have Java 8 installed in Windows 7 x64, and still use Java 7 by default: C:\>"%JAVA_HOME%\bin\java.exe" -version java version "1.7.0_55" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.7.0_55-b13) Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM (build 24.55-b03, mixed mode) C:\>java.exe -version java version "1.8.0_05" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.8.0_05-b13) Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM (build 25.5-b02, mixed mode) As you can see, JAVA_HOME is completely ignored. I also have Java in the path, using "%JAVA_HOME%\bin", which resolve correctly to Java 7 when I check the path in a DOS box, but it still makes no difference. I checked in the "Java Control Panel" (not sure if this affects the default command-line Java version). Under the "Java" tab, the "View..." button, you get to see "registered" Java versions. I can add all the versions under the "User" tab, but under "System" there is only Java 8, and no way to change it. Am I missing something, or did Oracle just make it impossible to use Java 7, unless I de-install Java 8? I don't want to have to specify the "source" and "target" everywhere, and I don't even know if it is possible for me to specify it everywhere, where Java is used. EDIT: What I did is I de-installed all Java. Then installed the latest Java7 (both 86 and x64), and then the latest Java8 (both 86 and x64). After I did that, I noticed that the x64 JDK was gone. It seems Java8 killed it. So I re-installed the JDK 7 x64, after the JDK 8 x64. Still, JDK7 x64 did not seem to "replace" the "java.exe" which is copied into the "Windows" directory itself (I assume THAT is the problem).

    Read the article

  • Error with MySQL Query

    - by Ken
    Okay, I must be an idiot, because this is my 3rd question for today. Here's my code: date_default_timezone_set("America/Los_Angeles"); include("mainmenu.php"); $con = mysql_connect("localhost", "root", "********"); if(!$con){ die(mysql_error()); } $usrname = $_POST['usrname']; $fname = $_POST['fname']; $lname = $_POST['lname']; $password = $_POST['password']; $email = $_POST['email']; mysql_select_db("`users`, $con) or die(mysql_error()"); $query = ("INSERT INTO `users`.`data` (`id`, `usrname`, `fname`, `lname`, `email`, `password`) VALUES (NULL, '$usrname', '$fname', '$lname', '$email', 'password'))"); mysql_query('$query') or die(mysql_error()); mysql_close($con); echo("Thank you for registering!"); I always get the error returned as: "You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '$query' at line 1. Help a newbie. I'm about to stab my monitor.

    Read the article

  • sql statement question. Need to query 3 tables in one go!

    - by Stefan
    Hey there, I have an sql database. In this database is 3 tables I need to query. The first table has all the item info called item and the other two tables has data for votes and comments called userComment and the third for votes called userItem I currently have a function which uses this sql query to get the latest more popular (in terms of both votes and comments): $sql = "SELECT itemID, COUNT(*) AS cnt FROM ( SELECT `itemID` FROM `userItem` WHERE FROM_UNIXTIME( `time` ) >= NOW() - INTERVAL 1 DAY UNION ALL SELECT `itemID` FROM `userComment` WHERE FROM_UNIXTIME( `time` ) >= NOW() - INTERVAL 1 DAY AND `itemID` > 0 ) q GROUP BY `itemID` ORDER BY cnt DESC"; I know how to change this for either by votes alone or comments.... HOWEVER - I need to query the database to only return the itemID's of the ones which have specific conditions in only the item table these are WHERE categoryID = 'xx' AND typeID = 'xx' If the sql ninja could please help me on this one? Do I have to first return the results from the above query and the for each in the array fetched then check each against the item table and see if it fits the conditions to build a new array - or is that overkill? Thanks, Stefan

    Read the article

  • testng multiple suites

    - by Eli
    Hi people. my problem is as follows: i am testing a web-ui using selenium and testng. i have a test suite with many test classes in it. i have a method with the @BeforeSuite witch also has a @Parameters annotation, this method recieves as a parameter the browser in witch the selenium will test by run,executing the lines: selenium = new DefaultSelenium("localhost", 4444, **browser**, "http://localhost:8099"); selenium.start(); the xml im using to run the test suite is: <suite name="suite"> <parameter name = "browser" value = "*firefox"/> <test name="allTests"> <classes> <class name="test.webui.MemcachedDeploymentTest" /> </classes> </test> </suite> this works fine and the test runs in firefox. my problem is that i would like to somehow run this suite again, immediatly after the first run finishes, but this time with chrome as the browser. i now have 2 xml suites, one with chrome and one with firefox, is there any way to run these test suites one after the other automatically? maybe using a third xml? Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • How might one cope with the ambiguous value produced by GetDllDirectory?

    - by Integer Poet
    GetDllDirectory produces an ambiguous value. When the string this call produces is empty, it means one of the following: nobody has called SetDllDirectory somebody passed NULL to SetDllDirectory somebody passed an empty string to SetDllDirectory The first two cases are equivalent for my purposes, but the third case is a problem. If I want to write save/restore code (call GetDllDirectory to save the "old" value, SetDllDirectory to set a "new" value temporarily, and later SetDllDirectory again to restore the "old" value), I run the risk of reversing some other programmer's intent. If the other programmer intended for the current working directory to be in the DLL search order (in other words, one of the first two bullets is true), and I pass an empty string to SetDllDirectory, I will be taking the current working directory out of the DLL search order, reversing the other programmer's intent. Can anyone suggest an approach to eliminate or work around this ambiguity? P.S. I know having the current working directory in the DLL search order could be interpreted as a security hole. Nevertheless, it is the default behavior, and my code is not in a position to undo that; my code needs to be compatible with the expectations of all potential callers, many of which are large and old and beyond my control.

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to Kick off a java process under Windows Service with C#?

    - by Wing C. Chen
    I would like to wrap a java program into a windows service with C# using System.ServiceProcess.ServiceBase. So I came up with the following code: /// <summary> /// The main entry point for the application. /// </summary> static void Main() { System.ServiceProcess.ServiceBase.Run(new JavaLauncher()); } protected override void OnStart(string[] args) { Thread _thread; _thread = new Thread(StartService); _thread.Start(); base.OnStart(args); } protected override void OnStop() { Thread _thread; _thread = new Thread(StopService); _thread.Start(); base.OnStop(); } static public void StartService() { System.Diagnostics.Process proc = new System.Diagnostics.Process(); proc.EnableRaisingEvents = false; proc.StartInfo.FileName = "javaw"; proc.StartInfo.Arguments = config.generateLaunchCommand(); proc.Start(); } static public void StopService() { System.Diagnostics.Process proc = new System.Diagnostics.Process(); proc.EnableRaisingEvents = false; proc.StartInfo.FileName = "javaw"; proc.StartInfo.Arguments = "-jar stop.jar"; proc.Start(); } Firstly I had to use Threads in OnStart and OnStop. If not, an exception occurs complaining that the service is terminated because of doing nothing. Secondly, the service can be hooked up to windows smoothly. However, the service terminates a short while after it is started. I looked into the process monitor, only the service process stays alive for that short while, the javaw process never showed up, however. Is there anyone who knows how this can be fixed? It works fine in an ordinary console environment. I think it has something to do with Windows service.

    Read the article

  • Java data structure suggestion.

    - by techoverflow
    Hi folks, I am a newbie in this field so please excuse my silly mistakes :) So the issue I am facing is: On my webpage, I am displaying a table. For now my issue is concerned with three columns of the table. First is : Area Code Second is : Zone Code Third is: Value The relationship between these three is: 1 Area Code has 6 different Zone code's and all those 6 Zone codes have corresponding "Value" I need a data structer that would give me the flexibility to get a "Value" for a Zone code, which falls under a particular Area code. I have the same zone codes for all the Area codes: Zone codes are: 111, 222, 333, 444, 555, 666 After surfing your stackoverflow, I thought I can go with this structure: Map<Integer, Map<Integer, Double>> retailPrices = new HashMap<Integer, Map<Integer, Double>>(); Map<Integer, Double> codes = new HashMap<Integer, Double>(); where reatailPrices would hold an Area Code and a Map of Zone code as Key and "Value" as Value. but when I am trying to populate this through a SQL resultset, I am getting the following error: The method put(Integer, Map<Integer,Double>) in the type Map is not applicable for the arguments (Integer, Double) on line: `while(oResult.next()) retailPrices.put((new Integer(oResult.getString("AREA"))), (pegPlPrices.put(new Integer(oResult.getString("ZONE_CODE")), new Double(oResult.getString("VALUE"))))); }` please help me figure out this problem. Am I following the right approach?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 375 376 377 378 379 380 381 382 383 384 385 386  | Next Page >