Search Results

Search found 1292 results on 52 pages for 'readonly'.

Page 38/52 | < Previous Page | 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45  | Next Page >

  • How to create a fully lazy singleton for generics

    - by Brendan Vogt
    I have the following code implementation of my generic singleton provider: public sealed class Singleton<T> where T : class, new() { Singleton() { } public static T Instance { get { return SingletonCreator.instance; } } class SingletonCreator { static SingletonCreator() { } internal static readonly T instance = new T(); } } This sample was taken from 2 articles and I merged the code to get me what I wanted: http://www.yoda.arachsys.com/csharp/singleton.html and http://www.codeproject.com/Articles/11111/Generic-Singleton-Provider. This is how I tried to use the code above: public class MyClass { public static IMyInterface Initialize() { if (Singleton<IMyInterface>.Instance == null // Error 1 { Singleton<IMyInterface>.Instance = CreateEngineInstance(); // Error 2 Singleton<IMyInterface>.Instance.Initialize(); } return Singleton<IMyInterface>.Instance; } } And the interface: public interface IMyInterface { } The error at Error 1 is: 'MyProject.IMyInterace' must be a non-abstract type with a public parameterless constructor in order to use it as parameter 'T' in the generic type or method 'MyProject.Singleton<T>' The error at Error 2 is: Property or indexer 'MyProject.Singleton<MyProject.IMyInterface>.Instance' cannot be assigned to -- it is read only How can I fix this so that it is in line with the 2 articles mentioned above? Any other ideas or suggestions are appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How do I unit test controllers for an asp.net mvc site that uses StructureMap and NHibernate?

    - by Jim Geurts
    I have an asp.net mvc2 application that is using StructureMap 2.6 and NHibernate 3.x. I would like to add unit tests to the application but am sort of at a loss for how to accomplish it. Say I have a basic controller called Posts that has an action called Index. The controller looks something like: public class PostsController : Controller { private readonly IPostService _postService; public PostsController(IPostService postService) { _postService = postService; } public ActionResult Index() { return View(_postService.QueryOver<Post>().Future()); } } If I wanted to create an nunit test that would verify that the index action is returning all of the posts, how do I go about that? If mocking is recommended, do you just assume that interaction with the database will work? Sorry for asking such a broad question, but my web searches haven't turned up anything decent for how to unit test asp.net mvc actions that use StructureMap (or any other IOC) and NHibernate. btw, if you don't like that I return a QueryOver object from my post service, pretend it is an IQueryable object. I'm using it essentially in the same way.

    Read the article

  • UIImage imageNamed not autoreleasing correctly

    - by MrHen
    For some reason, the retain/release behavior in the following code has me completely baffled. selectedImage = [UIImage imageNamed:@"icon_72.png"]; [selectedImage release]; This should break but does not. Why? I thought imageNamed autoreleased itself which means the release here is redundant and should break when the autorelease occurs. Here are snippets relevant to selectedImage from the .h and .m files: @property (nonatomic, readonly) UIImage *selectedImage; @synthesize delegate, selectedImage, spacerBottom, currentIndex; Other notes, this does break: selectedImage = [UIImage imageNamed:@"icon_72.png"]; [selectedImage release]; [selectedImage release]; //objc[55541]: FREED(id): message release sent to freed object=0x59245b0 //Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_INSTRUCTION”. As does this: selectedImage = [UIImage imageNamed:@"icon_72.png"]; [selectedImage release]; [selectedImage autorelease]; //objc[55403]: FREED(id): message autorelease sent to freed object=0x59b54c0 //Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_INSTRUCTION”. And so does the following: selectedImage = [UIImage imageNamed:@"icon_72.png"]; [selectedImage autorelease]; [selectedImage release]; //objc[55264]: FREED(id): message release sent to freed object=0x592c9a0 //Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_INSTRUCTION”. And so does this: selectedImage = [UIImage imageNamed:@"icon_72.png"]; [selectedImage autorelease]; [selectedImage autorelease]; //objc[55635]: FREED(id): message release sent to freed object=0x5b305d0 //Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_INSTRUCTION”.

    Read the article

  • Is this a clean way to manage AsyncResults with Generic Methods?

    - by Michael Stum
    I've contributed Async Support to a Project I'm using, but I made a bug which I'm trying to fix. Basically I have this construct: private readonly Dictionary<WaitHandle, object> genericCallbacks = new Dictionary<WaitHandle, object>(); public IAsyncResult BeginExecute<T>(RestRequest request, AsyncCallback callback, object state) where T : new() { var genericCallback = new RequestExecuteCaller<T>(this.Execute<T>); var asyncResult = genericCallback.BeginInvoke(request, callback, state); genericCallbacks[asyncResult.AsyncWaitHandle] = genericCallback; return asyncResult; } public RestResponse<T> EndExecute<T>(IAsyncResult asyncResult) where T : new() { var cb = genericCallbacks[asyncResult.AsyncWaitHandle] as RequestExecuteCaller<T>; genericCallbacks.Remove(asyncResult.AsyncWaitHandle); return cb.EndInvoke(asyncResult); } So I have a generic BeginExecute/EndExecute method pair. As I need to store the delegate that is called on EndExecute somewhere I created a dictionary. I'm unsure about using WaitHandles as keys though, but that seems to be the only safe choice. Does this approach make sense? Are WaitHandles unique or could I have two equal ones? Or should I instead use the State (and wrap any user provided state into my own State value)? Just to add, the class itself is non-generic, only the Begin/EndExecute methods are generic.

    Read the article

  • Help, my CentOS servers keep going down , No route to host after a random uptime [closed]

    - by user249071
    Hello , I have a couple of Centos linux servers, that have a very simple task, they run nginx + fastcgi for php , and some NFS mounts between them, readonly They have some RPC commands to start some downloading processes with wget, nothing fancy , from a main server, but their behavior is very unstable, they simply go down, we tried to monitor ram , processor usage, even network connections, they don't load up so much, max network connections up to... 250 max, 15% processor usage and memory , well, doesn't even fill up, 2.5GB from 8GB max , I have no ideea why can a linux server go down like that, they aren't even public servers, no domain names installed no public serving, for sites. The only thing that I've discovered was that if i didn't restart the network service every couple of hours or so... the servers were becoming very slow, starting apps very slow, but not repoting a high usage of resources...Maybe Centos doesn't free the timeout connections, or something like that...It's based on Red Hat right? I'm not a linux expert , but I'm sure that there are a few guys out there that can easily have an answer to this , or even have some leads to what i can do ... I haven't installed snort, or other things to view if we have some DOS attacks, still the scheduled script that restarts the network each hour should put the system back online, and it doesn't.... Thank you in advance

    Read the article

  • Customizing orchard theme parts

    - by madcapnmckay
    Hi, I am trying to write a custom theme for orchard and am not having much success so far. I have read Bertrand Le Roy's article on part alternates but I can't seem to get it to work. I am displaying a list of recent blog posts on the front page, pretty standard. I wish to change the markup produced by the meta data part i.e the time format. I have written a IShapeTableProvider to create blog specific alternates for the metadata summary part. public class MetaDataShapeProvider : IShapeTableProvider { private readonly IWorkContextAccessor workContextAccessor; public MetaDataShapeProvider(IWorkContextAccessor workContextAccessor) { this.workContextAccessor = workContextAccessor; } public void Discover(ShapeTableBuilder builder) { builder .Describe("Parts_Common_Metadata_Summary") .OnDisplaying(displaying => { ContentItem contentItem = displaying.Shape.ContentItem; if (contentItem != null) displaying.ShapeMetadata.Alternates.Add("Metadata__" + contentItem.ContentType); }); } } This is being caught correctly but the contentItem is null. Should I just create an alternate with a fixed name like "Metadata-BlogPost" and use that, to make this general purpose it should really be a dynamic name so I can use another alternate template elsewhere. Thanks, Ian

    Read the article

  • Disposing underlying object from finalizer in an immutable object

    - by Juan Luis Soldi
    I'm trying to wrap around Awesomium and make it look to the rest of my code as close as possible to NET's WebBrowser since this is for an existing application that already uses the WebBrowser. In this library, there is a class called JSObject which represents a javascript object. You can get one of this, for instance, by calling the ExecuteJavascriptWithResult method of the WebView class. If you'd call it like myWebView.ExecuteJavascriptWithResult("document", string.Empty).ToObject(), then you'd get a JSObject that represents the document. I'm writing an immutable class (it's only field is a readonly JSObject object) called JSObjectWrap that wraps around JSObject which I want to use as base class for other classes that would emulate .NET classes such as HtmlElement and HtmlDocument. Now, these classes don't implement Dispose, but JSObject does. What I first thought was to call the underlying JSObject's Dispose method in my JSObjectWrap's finalizer (instead of having JSObjectWrap implement Dispose) so that the rest of my code can stay the way it is (instead of having to add using's everywhere and make sure every JSObjectWrap is being properly disposed). But I just realized if more than two JSObjectWrap's have the same underlying JSObject and one of them gets finalized this will mess up the other JSObjectWrap. So now I'm thinking maybe I should keep a static Dictionary of JSObjects and keep count of how many of each of them are being referenced by a JSObjectWrap but this sounds messy and I think could cause major performance issues. Since this sounds to me like a common pattern I wonder if anyone else has a better idea.

    Read the article

  • Unable to use stored procs in a generic repository for the entity framework. (ASP.NET MVC 2)

    - by Matt
    Hi, I have a generic repository that uses the entity framework to manipulate the database. The original code is credited to Morshed Anwar's post on CodeProject. I've taken his code and modified is slightly to fit my needs. Unfortunately I'm unable to call an Imported Function because the function is only recognized for my specific instance of the entity framework public class Repository<E, C> : IRepository<E, C>, IDisposable where E : EntityObject where C : ObjectContext { private readonly C _ctx; public ObjectResult<MyObject> CallFunction() { // This does not work because "CallSomeImportedFunction" only works on // My object. I also cannot cast it (TrackItDBEntities)_ctx.CallSomeImportedFunction(); // Not really sure why though... but either way that kind of ruins the genericness off it. return _ctx.CallSomeImportedFunction(); } } Anyone know how I can make this work with the repository I already have? Or does anyone know a generic way of calling stored procedures with entity framework? Thanks, Matt

    Read the article

  • Translating Where() to sql

    - by MBoros
    Hi. I saw DamienG's article (http://damieng.com/blog/2009/06/24/client-side-properties-and-any-remote-linq-provider) in how to map client properties to sql. i ran throgh this article, and i saw great potential in it. Definitely mapping client properties to SQL is an awesome idea. But i wanted to use this for something a bit more complicated then just concatenating strings. Atm we are trying to introduce multilinguality to our Business objects, and i hoped we could leave all the existing linq2sql queries intact, and just change the code of the multilingual properties, so they would actually return the given property in the CurrentUICulture. The first idea was to change these fields to XMLs, and then try the Object.Property.Elements().Where(...), but it got stuck on the Elements(), as it couldnt translate it to sql. I read somewhere that XML fields are actually regarded as strings, and only on the app server they become XElements, so this way the filtering would be on the app server anyways, not the DB. Fair point, it wont work like this. Lets try something else... SO the second idea was to create a PolyGlots table (name taken from http://weblogic.sys-con.com/node/102698?page=0,1), a PolyGlotTranslations table and a Culture table, where the PolyGlots would be referenced from each internationalized property. This way i wanted to say for example: private static readonly CompiledExpression<Announcement, string> nameExpression = DefaultTranslationOf<Announcement> .Property(e => e.Name) .Is(e=> e.NamePolyGlot.PolyGlotTranslations .Where(t=> t.Culture.Code == Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture.Name) .Single().Value ); now unfortunately here i get an error that the Where() function cannot be translated to sql, what is a bit disappointing, as i was sure it will go through. I guess it is failing, cause the IEntitySet is basically an IEnumerable, not IQueryable, am i right? Is there another way to use the compiledExpressions class to achieve this goal? Any help appreciated.

    Read the article

  • MEF and ASP.NET MVC

    - by denis_n
    I want to use MEF with asp.net mvc. I wrote following controller factory: public class MefControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { private CompositionContainer _Container; public MefControllerFactory(Assembly assembly) { _Container = new CompositionContainer(new AssemblyCatalog(assembly)); } protected override IController GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) { if (controllerType != null) { var controllers = _Container.GetExports<IController>(); var controllerExport = controllers.Where(x => x.Value.GetType() == controllerType).FirstOrDefault(); if (controllerExport == null) { return base.GetControllerInstance(requestContext, controllerType); } return controllerExport.Value; } else { throw new HttpException((Int32)HttpStatusCode.NotFound, String.Format( "The controller for path '{0}' could not be found or it does not implement IController.", requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Path ) ); } } } In Global.asax.cs I'm setting my controller factory: protected void Application_Start() { AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); ControllerBuilder.Current.SetControllerFactory(new MefControllerFactory.MefControllerFactory(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly())); } I have an area: [Export(typeof(IController))] [PartCreationPolicy(CreationPolicy.NonShared)] public class HomeController : Controller { private readonly IArticleService _articleService; [ImportingConstructor] public HomeController(IArticleService articleService) { _articleService = articleService; } // // GET: /Articles/Home/ public ActionResult Index() { Article article = _articleService.GetById(55); return View(article); } } IArticleService is an interface. There is a class which implements IArticleService and Exports it. It works. Is this everything what I need for working with MEF? How can I skip setting PartCreationPolicy and ImportingConstructor for controller? I want to set my dependencies using constructor. When PartCreationPolicy is missing, I get following exception: A single instance of controller 'MvcApplication4.Areas.Articles.Controllers.HomeController' cannot be used to handle multiple requests. If a custom controller factory is in use, make sure that it creates a new instance of the controller for each request.

    Read the article

  • How to color HTML elements based on a user command string

    - by Anonymous the Great
    When you type something like "red:Hi:" it will type "Hi" in red. The following script does not work and I do not know why, (The one who made the sorting PHP function is Graphain, thanks again!) <?php function getit($raw) { # If the value was posted $raw = isset($raw) ? $raw : ""; # Split it based on ':' $parsed = explode(':', $raw); $colorClass = ""; $text = ""; if (count($parsed) >= 2) { $colorClass = $parsed[0]; $text = $parsed[1]; $text = "~~~" . $text . "~~~" . $colorClass; return $text; } } ?> <script type="text/javascript"> function postit() { var preview = document.getElementById("preview").value; var submit = document.getElementById("post").value; var text = <?php getit(submit); ?> var t = text[0]; preview = t; } </script> <textarea id="preview" cols=70 rows=5 readonly>Preview box</textarea> <p> <textarea id="post" cols=70 rows=5/>Submit box</textarea> <p> <input type="button" onclick="postit();" value="Submit"/>

    Read the article

  • Create x509 certificate with openssl/makecert tool

    - by Zé Carlos
    I'm creating a x509 certificate using makecert with the following parameters: makecert -r -pe -n "CN=Client" -ss MyApp I want to use this certificate to encrypt and decrypt data with RSA algoritm. I look to generated certificate in windows certificate store and everything seems ok (It has a private key, public key is a RSA key with 1024 bits and so on..) Now i use this C# code to encrypt data: X509Store store = new X509Store("MyApp", StoreLocation.CurrentUser); store.Open(OpenFlags.ReadOnly); X509Certificate2Collection certs = store.Certificates.Find(X509FindType.FindBySubjectName, "Client", false); X509Certificate2 _x509 = certs[0]; using (RSACryptoServiceProvider rsa = (RSACryptoServiceProvider)_x509.PrivateKey) { byte[] dataToEncrypt = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes("hello"); _encryptedData = rsa.Encrypt(dataToEncrypt, true); } When executing the Encrypt method, i receive a CryptographicException with message "Bad key". I think the code is fine. Probably i'm not creating the certificate properly. Any comments? Thanks ---------------- EDIT -------------- If anyone know how to create the certificate using OpenSsl, its also a valid answer for me.

    Read the article

  • Problem with UserControl with custom Dependency Property

    - by Mathias Koch
    Hi, I'm writing a user control with a dependency property for a search text called SearchText. It is a dependency property because I want to allow consumers of the control to use data binding. The user control contains a WPF TextBox where the user can enter the search text. I could use data binding to connect the SearchText dependency property of the user control with the Text dependency property of the TextBox, but this binding only fires when the text box looses input focus. What I want is SearchText to be updated after every change of Text. So I have added a TextChanged event handler to the user control where I set SearchText to the value of Text. My Problem is, the SearchText binding doesn't work, the source never gets updated. What am I doing wrong? Here's the relevant part of the user controls code-behind: public partial class UserControlSearchTextBox : UserControl { public string SearchText { get { return (string)GetValue(SearchTextProperty); } set { SetValue(SearchTextProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty SearchTextProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("SearchText", typeof(string), typeof(UserControlSearchTextBox), new UIPropertyMetadata("")); private void TextBox_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { SearchText = ((TextBox)sender).Text; } ... } The window that contains an instance of the user control has its DataContext set to an object that has a property also called SearchText. <uc:UserControlSearchTextBox SearchText="{Binding SearchText}" /> The data context of the Window: public class DataSourceUserManual : DataSourceBase { private string _searchText; public string SearchText { get { return _searchText; } set { _searchText = value; ... OnPropertyChanged("SearchText"); } } } Unfortunately, this setter is not called when I type into the text box. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Save Dialog on top of another custom dialog is behaving strangely!

    - by Raghu
    I have a save as image feature for charts in my application. The chart control is a custom user control with custom logic in them. It also has some scaling based on size, zoom etc. However, while saving them as an image I would like to give the user the option to set the size of the image (eg: 800x600 px @ 300 DPI). To do this I have created a Form with textboxes/checkboxes etc for various settings for image. One of these TextBoxes is for the file name. The file name textbox is readonly and is accompanied with a browse button which shows a SaveFileDialog when clicked. The user clicks "Save As Image" in the main form's menu. I show the ImageExportDialog using the code below: using(ImageExportDialog dlg = new ImageExportDialog()) { if(dlg.ShowDialog() == DialogResult.OK) { //get the settings selected by the user and generate the image } } In the ImageExportDialog, the user clicks on the browse button and the SaveFileDialog is shown as follows: using(SaveFileDialog dlg = new SaveFileDialog()) { if(dlg.ShowDialog() == DialogResult.OK) { txtFileName.Text = dlg.FileName; } } Now the problem is, when the user clicks on "Save" button in the SaveFileDialog, as expected the txtFileName.Text is set, but the parent custom dialog also seems to return from the ShowDialog method and the DialogResult is the same as the one for SaveFileDialog! The control then goes on to the "get the settings selected by the user and generate the image" part of the code above. Not really sure what I am doing wrong here!

    Read the article

  • Generic Singleton Façade design pattern

    - by Paul
    Hi I try write singleton façade pattern with generics. I have one problem, how can I call method from generic variable. Something like this: T1 t1 = new T1(); //call method from t1 t1.Method(); In method SingletonFasadeMethod I have compile error: Error 1 'T1' does not contain a definition for 'Method' and no extension method 'Method' accepting a first argument of type 'T1' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) Any advace? Thank, I am beginner in C#. All code is here: namespace GenericSingletonFasade { public interface IMyInterface { string Method(); } internal class ClassA : IMyInterface { public string Method() { return " Calling MethodA "; } } internal class ClassB : IMyInterface { public string Method() { return " Calling MethodB "; } } internal class ClassC : IMyInterface { public string Method() { return "Calling MethodC"; } } internal class ClassD : IMyInterface { public string Method() { return "Calling MethodD"; } } public class SingletonFasade<T1,T2,T3> where T1 : class,new() where T2 : class,new() where T3 : class,new() { private static T1 t1; private static T2 t2; private static T3 t3; private SingletonFasade() { t1 = new T1(); t2 = new T2(); t3 = new T3(); } class SingletonCreator { static SingletonCreator() { } internal static readonly SingletonFasade<T1,T2,T3> uniqueInstace = new SingletonFasade<T1,T2,T3>(); } public static SingletonFasade<T1,T2,T3> UniqueInstace { get { return SingletonCreator.uniqueInstace; } } public string SingletonFasadeMethod() { //Problem is here return t1.Method() + t2.Method() + t3.Method(); } } } I use this for my problem. public class SingletonFasade<T1, T2, T3> where T1 : class, IMyInterface, new() where T2 : class, IMyInterface, new() where T3 : class, IMyInterface, new() {//...} Is any solution without Interfaces ??

    Read the article

  • Custom Model Validator for MVC

    - by scottrakes
    I am trying to add a custom model validation at the property level but need to pass in two values. Below is my class definition and validation implementation. When it runs, the "value" in the IsValid method is always null. I can get this working at the class level but the property level is causing me issues. What am I missing? Event Class: public class Event { public int? EventID {get;set;} [ValidPURL("EventID", "PURLValue")] public string PURLValue { get; set; } ... } Validation Class [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.All, AllowMultiple = true, Inherited = true)] public sealed class ValidPURL : ValidationAttribute { private const string _defaultErrorMessage = "Web address already exist."; private readonly object _typeId = new object(); public ValidPURL(int eventID, string purlValue) : base(_defaultErrorMessage) { EventID = eventID; PURLValue = purlValue; } public int EventID { get; private set; } public string PURLValue { get; private set; } public override object TypeId { get { return _typeId; } } public override string FormatErrorMessage(string name) { return String.Format(CultureInfo.CurrentUICulture, ErrorMessageString, EventID, PURLValue); } public override bool IsValid(object value) { PropertyDescriptorCollection properties = TypeDescriptor.GetProperties(value); object eventIDValue = properties.Find(EventID, true /* ignoreCase */).GetValue(value); object purlValue = properties.Find(PURLValue, true /* ignoreCase */).GetValue(value); [Some Validation Logic against the database] return true; } } Thank for the help!

    Read the article

  • Use Struct as a Ptr/class? Need a fix .NET

    - by acidzombie24
    I wrote a bunch of code and i would like to fix it the fastest way possible. I'll describe my problem in a easier way. I have apples and oranges, they are both Point and in the list apples, oranges. I create a PictureBox and draw the apple/oranges on screen and move them around and update the Point via Tag. The problem now is since its a struct the tag is a copy so the original elements in the list are not update. So, how do i update them? I consider using Point? But those seem to be readonly. So the only solution i can think of is Clear the list, iterate through all the controls then check the picturebox property to check if the image is a apple or orange then add it to a list I really only thought of this solution typing this question, but my main question is, is there a better way? Is there some List<Ptr<Point>> class i can use so when i update the apples or oranges through the tag the element in the list will update as a class would?

    Read the article

  • Do fluent interfaces significantly impact runtime performance of a .NET application?

    - by stakx
    I'm currently occupying myself with implementing a fluent interface for an existing technology, which would allow code similar to the following snippet: using (var directory = Open.Directory(@"path\to\some\directory")) { using (var file = Open.File("foobar.html").In(directory)) { // ... } } In order to implement such constructs, classes are needed that accumulate arguments and pass them on to other objects. For example, to implement the Open.File(...).In(...) construct, you would need two classes: // handles 'Open.XXX': public static class OpenPhrase { // handles 'Open.File(XXX)': public static OpenFilePhrase File(string filename) { return new OpenFilePhrase(filename); } // handles 'Open.Directory(XXX)': public static DirectoryObject Directory(string path) { // ... } } // handles 'Open.File(XXX).XXX': public class OpenFilePhrase { internal OpenFilePhrase(string filename) { _filename = filename } // handles 'Open.File(XXX).In(XXX): public FileObject In(DirectoryObject directory) { // ... } private readonly string _filename; } That is, the more constituent parts statements such as the initial examples have, the more objects need to be created for passing on arguments to subsequent objects in the chain until the actual statement can finally execute. Question: I am interested in some opinions: Does a fluent interface which is implemented using the above technique significantly impact the runtime performance of an application that uses it? With runtime performance, I refer to both speed and memory usage aspects. Bear in mind that a potentially large number of temporary, argument-saving objects would have to be created for only very brief timespans, which I assume may put a certain pressure on the garbage collector. If you think there is significant performance impact, do you know of a better way to implement fluent interfaces?

    Read the article

  • Programmatically change an EditorGrid's cell value

    - by Snowright
    Hi, I have an Editor Grid where if a specific cell is in focus (is being edited), a window containing a tree panel pops up allowing the user to choose a node from the treepanel as the new value of the cell. This way, the user isn't actually editing the cell in question, but is using the window to choose the new value. However, I am having difficulties setting the value of the cell in question programmatically. Below is the code I use to set the grid up, including the column model that chooses what editor to use for a cell depending on the value type: var editorCM = new Ext.grid.ColumnModel({ //config ,editors : { //rest of editors 'id' : new Ext.grid.GridEditor(new Ext.form.TextField({readOnly : true})) } ,getCellEditor : function(col, row) { //choose editor depending on the type value of a cell } }) var editorGrid = new Ext.grid.EditorGridPanel({ //rest of config ,cm : editorCM }) Below is my code to change the cell's value once the user chooses from the treepanel. function submitNode(newValue) { var temp = editorGrid.GetSelectionModel().getSelectedCell(); //returns array containing column and row position of selected cell, which value we want to change. //temp[1] = column index, temp[0] = row index //Gets the cell editor at specific position and sets new value for that cell editorGrid.getColumnModel().getCellEditor(temp[1], temp[0]).setValue(newValue); } I've also tried a few other ways (all including setValue(newValue)), but have come up empty handed. I've looked through the API and the ExtJS forums for any clue but have also come up empty handed.

    Read the article

  • Best way to get a single value from a DataTable?

    - by PiersMyers
    I have a number of static classes that contain tables like this: using System; using System.Data; using System.Globalization; public static class TableFoo { private static readonly DataTable ItemTable; static TableFoo() { ItemTable = new DataTable("TableFoo") { Locale = CultureInfo.InvariantCulture }; ItemTable.Columns.Add("Id", typeof(int)); ItemTable.Columns["Id"].Unique = true; ItemTable.Columns.Add("Description", typeof(string)); ItemTable.Columns.Add("Data1", typeof(int)); ItemTable.Columns.Add("Data2", typeof(double)); ItemTable.Rows.Add(0, "Item 1", 1, 1.0); ItemTable.Rows.Add(1, "Item 2", 1, 1.0); ItemTable.Rows.Add(2, "Item 3", 2, 0.75); ItemTable.Rows.Add(3, "Item 4", 4, 0.25); ItemTable.Rows.Add(4, "Item 5", 1, 1.0); } public static DataTable GetItemTable() { return ItemTable; } public static int Data1(int id) { DataRow[] dr = ItemTable.Select("Id = " + id); if (dr.Length == 0) { throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException("id", "Out of range."); } return (int)dr[0]["Data1"]; } public static double Data2(int id) { DataRow[] dr = ItemTable.Select("Id = " + id); if (dr.Length == 0) { throw new ArgumentOutOfRangeException("id", "Out of range."); } return (double)dr[0]["Data2"]; } } Is there a better way of writing the Data1 or Data2 methods that return a single value from a single row that matches the given id?

    Read the article

  • Unable to step into interface implementation configured by unity application block

    - by Rahul
    I have configured a set of interface implementations with EntLib. unity block. The constructor of implementation classes work fine as soon as I run the application: 1. The interface to implement when I run the application the cctor runs fine, which shows that unity resolution was successful: But when I try to call a method of this class, the code just passes through without actually invoking the function of the implemented class: Edit: Added on June 11, 2012 Following is the Unity Configuration I have. (This is all the unity configuration I am doing) public class UnityControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { private static readonly IUnityContainer container; private static UnityControllerFactory factory = null; static UnityControllerFactory() { container = new UnityContainer(); UnityConfigurationSection section = (UnityConfigurationSection)ConfigurationManager.GetSection("unity"); section.Configure(container); factory = new UnityControllerFactory(); } public static UnityControllerFactory GetControllerFactory() { return factory; } protected override IController GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) { return container.Resolve(controllerType) as IController; } } I am unable to step into this code and the implementation simply skips out without executing anything. What is wrong here?

    Read the article

  • Visual Studio macro to navigate to T4MVC link

    - by shannon
    I use T4MVC and I'm happy with it and want to keep it - it keeps down run time defects. Unfortunately, it makes it harder to navigate to views and content (a.k.a. Views and Links in T4MVC) though. Even using Resharper, I can't navigate to the referenced item: T4MVC and Resharper Navigation Can I get a hand building a macro to do this? Never having built a VS IDE macro before, I don't have a grasp on how to get at some things, like the internal results of the "Go To Definition" process, if that's even possible. If you aren't familiar with T4MVC, here's generally what the macro might do to help: Given the token: Links.Content.Scripts.jQuery_js in the file MyView.cshtml, '(F12) Go To Definition'. This behaves properly. Having arrived at the the related assignment: public readonly string jQuery_js = "~/Content/Scripts/jQuery.js"; in a file generated by T4MVC (which is very nice, thank you David, but we really don't ever need to see), capture the string assigned and close the file. Navigate in Solution Explorer to the PhysicalPath represented by the captured string. This process would also work for views/layouts/master-pages/partials, etc. If you provide a macro or link to a macro to do this, or have another solution, wonderful. Otherwise, hints on how to do step 3 simply in a VS macro would be especially appreciated and receive upvote from me. I'd post the macro back here as an answer when done. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • DroDownlist in DataGrid produces Error

    - by S Nash
    I have a DataGrid and everytime I change value of it's embeded dropdwonlist I get: "System.Web.HttpException: The IListSource does not contain any data sources." I have a data grid which loads fine: Name column is editable. I have a dropdownlist these : DataDataGrid gets its value from a table. (Select Name, Address From Persons) Dropdown list also gets list of names from the same table. So DataGrid and dropdownlist are bound to 2 different datasets. Here is my code for dataGrid" <Columns> <ASP:ButtonColumn Text="Delete" CommandName="Delete"></ASP:ButtonColumn> <asp:EditCommandColumn ButtonType="LinkButton" UpdateText="Update" CancelText="Cancel" EditText="Edit"></asp:EditCommandColumn> <ASP:TemplateColumn HeaderText="Name" SortExpression="FY" HeaderStyle-HorizontalAlign="center" HeaderStyle-Wrap="True"> <ItemStyle Wrap="false" HorizontalAlign="left" /> <ItemTemplate> <ASP:Label ID="Name" Text='<%# DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "Name") %>' runat="server"/> </ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <ASP:DropDownList id="ddlName" cssClass="DropDownList" runat="server" datasource="<%#allNames%>" DataTextField= "Name" DataValueField="ID" Defaultvalue='<%# DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "ID") %>' OnPreRender="SetDefaultListItem" accessKey="I" AutoPostBack="true" /> </EditItemTemplate> </ASP:TemplateColumn> <asp:BoundColumn DataField="Address" ReadOnly="True" HeaderText="Address"></asp:BoundColumn> </Columns> Error happens here : dg.DataSource = ds dg.DataBind() Any ideas how to solve this issues? All I want is a DataGrid with a editable column ,which can be edited by choosing one of the value of in a dropdownlist.

    Read the article

  • Fluent NHibernate Map to private/protected Field that has no exposing Property

    - by Jon Erickson
    I have the following Person and Gender classes (I don't really, but the example is simplified to get my point across), using NHibernate (Fluent NHibernate) I want to map the Database Column "GenderId" [INT] value to the protected int _genderId field in my Person class. How do I do this? FYI, the mappings and the domain objects are in separate assemblies. public class Person : Entity { protected int _genderId; public virtual int Id { get; private set; } public virtual string Name { get; private set; } public virtual Gender Gender { get { return Gender.FromId(_genderId); } } } public class Gender : EnumerationBase<Gender> { public static Gender Male = new Gender(1, "Male"); public static Gender Female = new Gender(2, "Female"); private static readonly Gender[] _genders = new[] { Male, Female }; private Gender(int id, string name) { Id = id; Name = name; } public int Id { get; private set; } public string Name { get; private set; } public static Gender FromId(int id) { return _genders.Where(x => x.Id == id).SingleOrDefault(); } }

    Read the article

  • Eager loading OneToMany in Hibernate with JPA2

    - by pihentagy
    I have a simple @OneToMany between Person and Pet entities: @OneToMany(mappedBy="owner", cascade=CascadeType.ALL, fetch=FetchType.EAGER) public Set<Pet> getPets() { return pets; } I would like to load all Persons with associated Pets. So I came up with this (inside a test class): @RunWith(SpringJUnit4ClassRunner.class) @ContextConfiguration public class AppTest { @Test @Rollback(false) @Transactional(readOnly = false) public void testApp() { CriteriaBuilder qb = em.getCriteriaBuilder(); CriteriaQuery<Person> c = qb.createQuery(Person.class); Root<Person> p1 = c.from(Person.class); SetJoin<Person, Pet> join = p1.join(Person_.pets); TypedQuery<Person> q = em.createQuery(c); List<Person> persons = q.getResultList(); for (Person p : persons) { System.out.println(p.getName()); for (Pet pet : p.getPets()) { System.out.println("\t" + pet.getNick()); } } However, turning the SQL logging on shows, that it executes 3 queries (having 2 Persons in the DB). Hibernate: select person0_.id as id0_, person0_.name as name0_, person0_.sex as sex0_ from Person person0_ inner join Pet pets1_ on person0_.id=pets1_.owner_id Hibernate: select pets0_.owner_id as owner3_0_1_, pets0_.id as id1_, pets0_.id as id1_0_, pets0_.nick as nick1_0_, pets0_.owner_id as owner3_1_0_ from Pet pets0_ where pets0_.owner_id=? Hibernate: select pets0_.owner_id as owner3_0_1_, pets0_.id as id1_, pets0_.id as id1_0_, pets0_.nick as nick1_0_, pets0_.owner_id as owner3_1_0_ from Pet pets0_ where pets0_.owner_id=? Any tips? Thanks Gergo

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45  | Next Page >