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  • Object reference not set to an instance of an object

    - by MBTHQ
    Can anyone help with the following code? I'm trying to get data from the database colum to the datagridview... I'm getting error over here "Dim sql_1 As String = "SELECT * FROM item where item_id = '" + DataGridView_stockout.CurrentCell.Value.ToString() + "'"" Private Sub DataGridView_stockout_CellMouseClick(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.DataGridViewCellMouseEventArgs) Handles DataGridView_stockout.CellMouseClick Dim i As Integer = Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables(0).Rows.Count > 0 Dim thiscur_stok As New System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection("Data Source=MBTHQ\SQLEXPRESS;Initial Catalog=stock_check;Integrated Security=True") ' Sql Query Dim sql_1 As String = "SELECT * FROM item where item_id = '" + DataGridView_stockout.CurrentCell.Value.ToString() + "'" ' Create Data Adapter Dim da_1 As New SqlDataAdapter(sql_1, thiscur_stok) ' Fill Dataset and Get Data Table da_1.Fill(Stock_checkDataSet1, "item") Dim dt_1 As DataTable = Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables("item") If i >= DataGridView_stockout.Rows.Count Then 'MessageBox.Show("Sorry, DataGridView_stockout doesn't any row at index " & i.ToString()) Exit Sub End If If 1 >= Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables.Count Then 'MessageBox.Show("Sorry, Stock_checkDataSet1 doesn't any table at index 1") Exit Sub End If If i >= Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables(1).Rows.Count Then 'MessageBox.Show("Sorry, Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables(1) doesn't any row at index " & i.ToString()) Exit Sub End If If Not Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables(1).Columns.Contains("os") Then 'MessageBox.Show("Sorry, Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables(1) doesn't any column named 'os'") Exit Sub End If 'DataGridView_stockout.Item("cs_stockout", i).Value = Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables(0).Rows(i).Item("os") Dim ab As String = Stock_checkDataSet1.Tables(0).Rows(i)(0).ToString() End Sub I keep on getting the error saying "Object reference not set to an instance of an object" I dont know where I'm going wrong. Help really appreciated!!

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  • Main Function Error C++

    - by Arjun Nayini
    I have this main function: #ifndef MAIN_CPP #define MAIN_CPP #include "dsets.h" using namespace std; int main(){ DisjointSets s; s.uptree.addelements(4); for(int i=0; i<s.uptree.size(); i++) cout <<uptree.at(i) << endl; return 0; } #endif And the following class: class DisjointSets { public: void addelements(int x); int find(int x); void setunion(int x, int y); private: vector<int> uptree; }; #endif My implementation is this: void DisjointSets::addelements(int x){ for(int i=0; i<x; i++) uptree.push_back(-1); } //Given an int this function finds the root associated with that node. int DisjointSets::find(int x){ //need path compression if(uptree.at(x) < 0) return x; else return find(uptree.at(x)); } //This function reorders the uptree in order to represent the union of two //subtrees void DisjointSets::setunion(int x, int y){ } Upon compiling main.cpp (g++ main.cpp) I'm getting these errors: dsets.h: In function \u2018int main()\u2019: dsets.h:25: error: \u2018std::vector DisjointSets::uptree\u2019 is private main.cpp:9: error: within this context main.cpp:9: error: \u2018class std::vector \u2019 has no member named \u2018addelements\u2019 dsets.h:25: error: \u2018std::vector DisjointSets::uptree\u2019 is private main.cpp:10: error: within this context main.cpp:11: error: \u2018uptree\u2019 was not declared in this scope I'm not sure exactly whats wrong. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Exception handling in Spring MVC with 3 layer architecture

    - by Chorochrondochor
    I am building a simple web applications with 3 layers - DAO, Service, MVC. When in my Controller I want to delete menu group and it contains menus I am getting ConstraintViolationException. Where should I handle this exception? In DAO, Service, or in Controller? Currently I am handling the exception in Controller. My code below. DAO method for deleting menu groups: @Override public void delete(E e){ if (e == null){ throw new DaoException("Entity can't be null."); } getCurrentSession().delete(e); } Service method for deleting menu groups: @Override @Transactional(readOnly = false) public void delete(MenuGroupEntity menuGroupEntity) { menuGroupDao.delete(menuGroupEntity); } Controller method for deleting menu groups in Controller: @RequestMapping(value = "/{menuGroupId}/delete", method = RequestMethod.GET) public ModelAndView delete(@PathVariable Long menuGroupId, RedirectAttributes redirectAttributes){ MenuGroupEntity menuGroupEntity = menuGroupService.find(menuGroupId); if (menuGroupEntity != null){ try { menuGroupService.delete(menuGroupEntity); redirectAttributes.addFlashAttribute("flashMessage", "admin.menu-group-deleted"); redirectAttributes.addFlashAttribute("flashMessageType", "success"); } catch (Exception e){ redirectAttributes.addFlashAttribute("flashMessage", "admin.menu-group-could-not-be-deleted"); redirectAttributes.addFlashAttribute("flashMessageType", "danger"); } } return new ModelAndView("redirect:/admin/menu-group"); }

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  • How to link a table to a field a in MySQL server

    - by Nek
    I have this data from a xml file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <words> <id>...</id> <word>...</word> <meaning>...</meaning> <translation> <ES>...</ES> <PT>...</PT> </translation> </words> This forms the table named "words", which has four fields ("id","word","meaning" and "translation"). On the other hand, the "translation" field can hold several languages like ES,PT,EN,JA,KO,etc... So I create a table ("words.translation", one field is "id" and the others ones are languages ids like "ES","PT",...). I'm sorry for this newby question, but I'd like to know a couple of things about this one-to-many relationship. How to join (or link?) this two tables in MySQL? What information does the "translation" field in the "words" table has to store? How is the sql query to get all the word information (JOIN syntax used?) Thanks for your patience.

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  • If the dependency is a unique snapshot version and install is called, what does maven select?

    - by chrsk
    Imagine two projects. The first is the framework-core project which is in version 1.1.0 and has several snapshot builds. The other is the example-business project which has the following dependency to framework-core on the build-iteration number 9. <dependency> <groupId>org.example</groupId> <artifactId>framework-core</artifactId> <version>1.1.0-20100518.134928-9</version> </dependency> What happens if mvn install is called on the framework-core? I found out that the artifact is copied to the folder and is named to *.1.1.0-SNAPSHOT.jar (as expected). This lead me to the assumption that this version is only used if even this 1.1.0-SNAPSHOT version is defined as dependency and not the precise build. To test something local without deploying it to the maven repository: call mvn install, change the dependency to 1.1.0-SNAPSHOT -- and the artifact just installed is used? Or is it possible to overwrite the specific build (with using the install lifecycle phase)?

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  • Macports and virtualenv site-packages Fallback

    - by Streeter
    I've installed django and python as this link suggested with macports. However, I'd like to use virtualenv to install more packages. My understanding is that if I do not pass in the --no-site-packages to virtualenv, I should get the currently installed packages in addition to whatever packages I install into the virtual environment. Is this correct? As an example, I've installed django through macports and then create a virtual environment, but I cannot import django from within that virtual environment: [streeter@mordecai]:~$ mkvirtualenv django-test New python executable in django-test/bin/python Installing setuptools............done. ... (django-test)[streeter@mordecai]:~$ pip install django-debug-toolbar Downloading/unpacking django-debug-toolbar Downloading django-debug-toolbar-0.8.4.tar.gz (80Kb): 80Kb downloaded Running setup.py egg_info for package django-debug-toolbar Installing collected packages: django-debug-toolbar Running setup.py install for django-debug-toolbar Successfully installed django-debug-toolbar Cleaning up... (django-test)[streeter@mordecai]:~$ python Python 2.6.1 (r261:67515, Jun 24 2010, 21:47:49) [GCC 4.2.1 (Apple Inc. build 5646)] on darwin Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information. >>> import django Traceback (most recent call last): File "<stdin>", line 1, in <module> ImportError: No module named django >>> So I can install packages into the virtual environment, but it isn't picking up the global site-packages. Or am I not doing something correctly / missing something / misunderstanding how virtualenv works? I've got Mac OS 10.6 (Snow Leopard), have updated my macports packages and am using macports' python26 (via python_select python26).

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  • Reducing a set of non-unique elements via transformations

    - by Andrey Fedorov
    I have: 1) a "starting set" of not-necessarily-unique elements, e.x. { x, y, z, z }, 2) a set of transformations, e.x. (x,z) = y, (z,z) = z, x = z, y = x, and 3) a "target set" that I am trying to get by applying transformations to the starting set, e.x. { z }. I'd like to find an algorithm to generate the (possibly infinite) possible applications of the transformations to the starting set that result in the target set. For example: { x, y, z, z }, y => x { x, x, z, z }, x => z { z, x, z, z }, x => z { z, z, z, z }, (z, z) => z { z, z, z }, (z, z) => z { z, z }, (z, z) => z { z } This sounds like something that's probably an existing (named) problem, but I don't recognize it. Can anyone help me track it down, or suggest further reading on something similar?

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  • Prepare your site images for google image search indexing

    - by Vittorio Vittori
    Hi, I'm trying to understand how can I do to let my site be reachable from google image search spiders. I like how last.fm solution, and I thought to use a technique like his staff do to let google find artists images on their pages. When I'm looking for an artist and I search it on google image search, as often as not I find an image from last.fm artists page, I make an example: If I search the band Pure Reason Revolution It brings me here, the artist's image page http://www.last.fm/music/Pure+Reason+Revolution/+images/4284073 Now if I take a look to the image file, i can see it's named: http://userserve-ak.last.fm/serve/500/4284073/Pure+Reason+Revolution+4.jpg so if I try to undertand how the service works I can try to say: http://userserve-ak.last.fm/serve/ the server who serve the images 500/ the selected size for the image 4284073/ the image id for database Pure+Reason+Revolution+4.jpg the image name I thought it's difficult to think the real filename for the image is Pure+Reason+Revolution+4.jpg for image overwrite problems when an user upload it, in fact if I digit: http://userserve-ak.last.fm/serve/500/4284073.jpg I probably find the real image location and filename With this tecnique the image is highly reachable from search engines and easily archived. My question is, does exist some guide or tutorial to approach on this kind of tecniques, or something similar?

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  • Why is a Silverlight application created from an exported template show a blank screen in the browse

    - by Edward Tanguay
    I created a silverlight app (without website) named TestApp, with one TextBox: <UserControl x:Class="TestApp.MainPage" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:d="http://schemas.microsoft.com/expression/blend/2008" xmlns:mc="http://schemas.openxmlformats.org/markup-compatibility/2006" mc:Ignorable="d" d:DesignWidth="640" d:DesignHeight="480"> <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot"> <TextBlock Text="this is a test"/> </Grid> </UserControl> I press F5 and see "this is a test" in my browser (firefox). I select File | Export Template | name it TestAppTemplate and save it. I create a new silverlight app based on the above template. The MainPage.xaml has the exact same XAML as above. I press F5 and see a blank screen in my browser. I look at the HTML source of both of these and they are identical. Everything I have compared in both projects is identical. What do I have to do so that a Silverlight application which is created from my exported template does not show a blank screen?

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  • How to emulate mod_rewrite in PHP

    - by Tyler Crompton
    I have a few URLs that I want to map to certain files via PHP. Currently, I am just using mod_rewrite in Apache. However, my application is getting too large for the rewriting to be done with regular expressions. So I created a file router.php that does the rewriting. I understand to do a redirect I could just send the Location: header. However, I don't always want to do a redirect. For example, I may want /api/item/ to map to the file /herp/derp.php relative to the document root. I need to preserve the HTTP method as well. "No problem," I thought. I made my .htaccess have the following snippet. RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^api/item/$ /cgi-bin/router.php [L] And my router.php file looks as follows: <?php $uri = parse_url($_SERVER['REQUEST_URI']); $query = isset($uri['query']) ? $uri['query'] ? array(); // some code that modifies the query require_once "{$_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT']}/herp/derp.php?" . http_build_query($query); ?> However, this doesn't work, because the OS is looking for a file named derp.php?some=query. How can I simulate a rewrite rule such as RewriteRule ^api/item/$ /herp/derp/ [L] in PHP. In other words, how do I tell the server to process a different URL than requested and preserve the query and HTTP method without causing a redirect? Note: Using variables set in router.php is less than desirable and is bad structure since it's only supposed to be responsible for handling URLs. I am open to using a light-weight third party solution.

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  • Should I use IDisposable for purely managed resources?

    - by John Gietzen
    Here is the scenario: I have an object called a Transaction that needs to make sure that only one entity has permission to edit it at any given time. In order to facilitate a long-lived lock, I have the class generating a token object that can be used to make the edits. You would use it like this: var transaction = new Transaction(); using (var tlock = transaction.Lock()) { transaction.Update(data, tlock); } Now, I want the TransactionLock class to implement IDisposable so that its usage can be clear. But, I don't have any unmanaged resources to dispose. however, the TransctionLock object itself is a sort of "unmanaged resource" in the sense that the CLR doesn't know how to properly finalize it. All of this would be fine and dandy, I would just use IDisposable and be done with it. However, my issue comes when I try to do this in the finalizer: ~TransactionLock() { this.Dispose(false); } I want the finalizer to release the transaction from the lock, if possible. How, in the finalizer, do I detect if the parent transaction (this.transaction) has already been finalized? Is there a better pattern I should be using? The Transaction class looks something like this: public sealed class Transaction { private readonly object lockMutex = new object(); private TransactionLock currentLock; public TransactionLock Lock() { lock (this.lockMutex) { if (this.currentLock != null) throw new InvalidOperationException(/* ... */); this.currentLock = new TransactionLock(this); return this.currentLock; } } public void Update(object data, TransactionLock tlock) { lock (this.lockMutex) { this.ValidateLock(tlock); // ... } } internal void ValidateLock(TransactionLock tlock) { if (this.currentLock == null) throw new InvalidOperationException(/* ... */); if (this.currentLock != tlock) throw new InvalidOperationException(/* ... */); } internal void Unlock(TransactionLock tlock) { lock (this.lockMutex) { this.ValidateLock(tlock); this.currentLock = null; } } }

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  • d3: Coloring Multiple Lines from Nested Data

    - by diet_coke
    I'm currently assembling some line graphs with circles at the datapoints from arrays of JSON objects formatted like so: var data = [{ "name": "metric1", "datapoints": [ [10.0, 1333519140], [48.0, 1333519200] ] }, { "name": "metric2", "datapoints": [ [48.0, 1333519200], [12.0, 1333519260] ] }] I want to have a color for each metric, so I'm trying to color them based on the index of the object within the array data. The code I have currently for just placing the circles looks like: // We bind an svg group to each metric. var metric_groups = this.vis.selectAll("g.metric_group") .data(data).enter() .append("g") .attr("class", "metric_group"); // Then bind a circle for each datapoint. var circles = metric_groups.selectAll("circle") .data(function(d) { return d.datapoints; }); circles.enter().append("circle") .attr("r", 3.5); Now if I change that last bit to something like: circles.enter().append("circle") .attr("r", 3.5); .style("fill", function(d,i) { return i%2 ? "red" : "blue"; } I get alternating red and blue circles, as could be expected. Taking some advice from Nested Selections : 'Nesting and Index', I tried: circles.enter().append("circle") .attr("r", 3.5); .style("fill", function(d,i,j) { return j%2 ? "red" : "blue"; } Which doesn't work (j is undefined), presumably because we are in the named property datapoints, rather than an array element. How might I go about doing the coloring that I want without changing my data structure? Thanks!

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  • PHP & MySQL Image deletion problem?

    - by IMAGE
    I have this script that deletes a users avatar image that is stored in a folder name thumbs and another named images and the image name is stored in a mysql database. But for some reason the script deletes all the users info for example if the users id is 3 all of the users info like first name last name age and so are deleted as well, basically everything is deleted including the user how do I fix this so only the images and image name is deleted? Here is the code. $user_id = '3'; if (isset($_POST['delete_image'])) { $a = "SELECT * FROM users WHERE avatar = '". $avatar ."' AND user_id = '". $user_id ."'"; $r = mysqli_query ($mysqli, $a) or trigger_error("Query: $a\n<br />MySQL Error: " . mysqli_error($mysqli)); if ($r == TRUE) { unlink("../members/" . $user_id . "/images/" . $avatar); unlink("../members/" . $user_id . "/images/thumbs/" . $avatar); $a = "DELETE FROM users WHERE avatar = '". $avatar ."' AND user_id = '". $user_id ."'"; $r = mysqli_query ($mysqli, $a) or trigger_error("Query: $a\n<br />MySQL Error: " . mysqli_error($mysqli)); } }

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  • sql server mdf file database attachment

    - by jnsohnumr
    hello all i'm having a bear of a time getting visual studio 2010 (ultimate i think) to properly attach to my database. it was moved from original spot to #MYAPP#/#MYAPP#.Web/App_Data/#MDF_FILE#.mdf. I have three instances of sql server running on this machine. i have tried to replace the old mdf file with my new one and cannot get the connectionstring right for it. what i'm really wanting to do is to just open some DB instance, run a DB create script. Then I can have a DB that was generated via my edmx (generate database from model) in silverlight business application (c#) right now, when i go to server explorer in VS, choose add new connection, choose MS SQL Server Database FIle (SqlClient), choose my file location (app_data directory), use windows authentication, and hit the Test Connection button I get the following error: Unable to open the physical file "". Operating system error 5: "5(Access Denied.)". An attempt to attach to an auto-named database for file"" failed. A database with the same name exists, or specified file cannot be opened, or it is located on UNC share. The mdf file was created on the same machine by connecting to (local) on the sql server management studio, getting a new query, pasting in the SQL from the generated ddl file, adding a CREATE DATABASE [NcrCarDatabase]; GO before the pasted SQL, and executing the query. I then disconnected from the DB in management studio, closed management studio, navigated to the DATA directory for that instance, and copying the mdf and ldf files to my application's app_data folder. I am then trying to connect to the same file inside visual studio. I hope that gives more clarity to my problems :). Connection string is: Data Source=.\SQLEXPRESS;AttachDbFilename=C:\SourceCode\NcrCarDatabase\NcrCarDatabase.Web\App_Data\NcrCarDatabase.mdf;Integrated Security=True;Connect Timeout=30;User Instance=True

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  • SQL Server problems reading columns with a foreign key

    - by illdev
    I have a weird situation, where simple queries seem to never finish for instance SELECT top 100 ArticleID FROM Article WHERE ProductGroupID=379114 returns immediately SELECT top 1000 ArticleID FROM Article WHERE ProductGroupID=379114 never returns SELECT ArticleID FROM Article WHERE ProductGroupID=379114 never returns SELECT top 1000 ArticleID FROM Article returns immediately By 'returning' I mean 'in query analyzer the green check mark appears and it says "Query executed successfully"'. I sometimes get the rows painted to the grid in qa, but still the query goes on waiting for my client to time out - 'sometimes': SELECT ProductGroupID AS Product23_1_, ArticleID AS ArticleID1_, ArticleID AS ArticleID18_0_, Inventory_Name AS Inventory3_18_0_, Inventory_UnitOfMeasure AS Inventory4_18_0_, BusinessKey AS Business5_18_0_, Name AS Name18_0_, ServesPeople AS ServesPe7_18_0_, InStock AS InStock18_0_, Description AS Descript9_18_0_, Description2 AS Descrip10_18_0_, TechnicalData AS Technic11_18_0_, IsDiscontinued AS IsDisco12_18_0_, Release AS Release18_0_, Classifications AS Classif14_18_0_, DistributorName AS Distrib15_18_0_, DistributorProductCode AS Distrib16_18_0_, Options AS Options18_0_, IsPromoted AS IsPromoted18_0_, IsBulkyFreight AS IsBulky19_18_0_, IsBackOrderOnly AS IsBackO20_18_0_, Price AS Price18_0_, Weight AS Weight18_0_, ProductGroupID AS Product23_18_0_, ConversationID AS Convers24_18_0_, DistributorID AS Distrib25_18_0_, type AS Type18_0_ FROM Article AS articles0_ WHERE (IsDiscontinued = '0') AND (ProductGroupID = 379121) shows this behavior. I have no idea what is going on. Probably select is broken ;) I got a foreign key on ProductGroups ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Article] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_ProductGroup_Articles] FOREIGN KEY([ProductGroupID]) REFERENCES [dbo].[ProductGroup] ([ProductGroupID]) GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[Article] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_ProductGroup_Articles] there are some 6000 rows and IsDiscontinued is a bit, not null, but leaving this condition out does not change the outcome. Anyone can tell me how to handle such a situation? More info, anyone? Additional Info: this does not seem to be restricted to this Foreign Key, but all/some referencing this entity.

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  • Does C# allow method overloading, PHP style (__call)?

    - by mr.b
    In PHP, there is a special method named __call($calledMethodName, $arguments), which allows class to catch calls to non-existing methods, and do something about it. Since most of classic languages are strongly typed, compiler won't allow calling a method that does not exist, I'm clear with that part. What I want to accomplish (and I figured this is how I would do it in PHP, but C# is something else) is to proxy calls to a class methods and log each of these calls. Right now, I have code similar to this: class ProxyClass { static logger; public AnotherClass inner { get; private set; } public ProxyClass() { inner = new AnotherClass(); } } class AnotherClass { public void A() {} public void B() {} public void C() {} // ... } // meanwhile, in happyCodeLandia... ProxyClass pc = new ProxyClass(); pc.inner.A(); pc.inner.B(); // ... So, how can I proxy calls to an object instance in extensible way? Extensible, meaning that I don't have to modify ProxyClass whenever AnotherClass changes. In my case, AnotherClass can have any number of methods, so it wouldn't be appropriate to overload or wrap all methods to add logging. I am aware that this might not be the best approach for this kind of problem, so if anyone has idea what approach to use, shoot. Thanks!

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  • Writing to the DataContext

    - by user738383
    I have a function. This function takes an IEnumerable<Customer> (Customer being an entity). What the function needs to do is tell the DataContext (which has a collection of Customers as a property) that its Customers property needs to be overwritten with this passed in IEnumerable<Customer>. I can't use assignment because DomainContext.Customers cannot be assigned to, as it is read only. I guess it's not clear what I'm asking, so I suppose I should say... how do I do that? So we have DataContext.Customers (of type System.Data.Linq.Table) which wants to be replaced with a System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable. I can't just assign the latter to the former because DataContext's properties are read only. But there must be a way. Edit: here's an image: Further edit: Yes, this image does not feature a collection of the type 'Customer' but rather 'Connection'. It doesn't matter though, they are both created from tables within the linked SQL database. So there is a dc.Connections, a dc.Customers, a dc.Media and so on. Thanks in advance.

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  • Polling servers at the same port - Threads and Java

    - by John
    Hi there. I'm currently busy working on an IP ban tool for the early versions of Call of Duty 1. (Apparently such a feature wasn't implemented in these versions). I've finished a single threaded application but it won't perform well enough for multiple servers, which is why I am trying to implement threading. Right now, each server has its own thread. I have a Networking class, which has a method; "GetStatus" -- this method is synchronized. This method uses a DatagramSocket to communicate with the server. Since this method is static and synchronized, I shouldn't get in trouble and receive a whole bunch of "Address already in use" exceptions. However, I have a second method named "SendMessage". This method is supposed to send a message to the server. How can I make sure "SendMessage" cannot be invoked when there's already a thread running in "GetStatus", and the other way around? If I make both synchronized, I will still get in trouble if Thread A is opening a socket on Port 99999 and invoking "SendMessage" while Thread B is opening a socket on the same port and invoking "GetStatus"? (Game servers are usually hosted on the same ports) I guess what I am really after is a way to make an entire class synchronized, so that only one method can be invoked and run at a time by a single thread. Hope that what I am trying to accomplish/avoid is made clear in this text. Any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • Hibernate does not allow an embedded object with an int field to be null?

    - by Jason Novak
    Hibernate does not allow me to persist an object that contains an null embedded object with an integer field. For example, if I have a class called Thing that looks like this @Entity public class Thing { @Id public String id; public Part part; } where Part is an embeddable class that looks like this @Embeddable public class Part { public String a; public int b; } then trying to persist a Thing object with a null Part causes Hibernate to throw an Exception. In particular, this code Thing th = new Thing(); th.id = "thing.1"; th.part = null; session.saveOrUpdate(th); causes Hibernate to throw this Exception org.hibernate.PropertyValueException: not-null property references a null or transient value: com.ace.moab.api.jobs.Thing.part My guess is that this is happening because Part is an embedded class and so Part.a and Part.b are simply columns in the Thing database table. Since the Thing.part is null Hibernate wants to set the Part.a and Part.b column values to null for the row for thing.1. However, Part.b is an integer and Hibernate will not allow integer columns in the database to be null. This is what causes the Exception, right? So I am looking for workarounds for this problem. I noticed making Part.b an Integer instead of an int seems to work, but for reasons I won't bore you with this is not a good option for us. Thanks!

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  • Make Trac use a Drupal user database for authentication

    - by denisw
    I am trying to set up a Trac instance as a complement to a Drupal site and would like to give users the possibility to use their Drupal account in Trac, too, ideally in a single sign-on fashion (if the user is already logged into Drupal, he is automatically logged into Trac). The question now is how to accomplish this. I have found a plugin named DrupalIntegration which seems to implement that functionality; however, it is poorly documented - in fact, not documented at all. I managed to install it, but don't know how to configure it. Here is what I came up with from looking at the source code and the documentation of the AccountManager plugin (on which DrupalIntegration depends): [components] trac.web.auth.loginmodule = disabled acct_mgr.api = enabled acct_mgr.web_ui.LoginModule = enabled acct_mgr.web_ui.RegistrationModule = disabled TracDrupalIntegration.DrupalIntegration = enabled [account-manager] drupal_database = mysql://<usernam>:<password>@localhost/<db> password_store = DrupalIntegration (<username>, <password> and <db> are naturally substituted with the correct data). While the Trac log says: 2010-12-18 10:54:09,570 Trac[loader] DEBUG: Loading TracDrupalIntegration from /usr/lib/python2.5/site-packages/TracDrupalIntegration-0.1-py2.5.egg this doesn't seem to work: trying to log in with a Drupal username / password results in an "Invalid username or password" error. Has someone used the DrupalIntegration and can point out to me what I did wrong? Or is there any other approach you know (or even have used in the past) to integrate Drupal and Trac that way?

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  • Link error for user defined class type template parameter

    - by isurulucky
    Hi, I implemented a Simple STL map in C++. Factored out the comparison as a type as I was instructed to, then implemented the comparison as shown below: template <typename T> int KeyCompare<T>::operator () (T tKey1, T tKey2) { if(tKey1 < tKey2) return -1; else if(tKey1 > tKey2) return 1; else return 0; } here, tKey1 and tKet2 are the two keys I'm comparing. This worked well for all the basic data types and string. I added a template specialization to compare keys of a user defined type named Test and added a specialization as follows: int KeyCompare<Test>::operator () (Test tKey1, Test tKey2) { if(tKey1.a < tKey2.a) return -1; else if(tKey1.a > tKey2.a) return 1; else return 0; } when I run this, I get a linking error saying SimpleMap.obj : error LNK2005: "public: int __thiscall KeyCompare::operator()(class Test,class Test)" (??R?$KeyCompare@VTest@@@@QAEHVTest@@0@Z) already defined in MapTest.obj SimpleMap.obj : error LNK2005: "public: __thiscall KeyCompare::~KeyCompare(void)" (??1?$KeyCompare@VTest@@@@QAE@XZ) already defined in MapTest.obj SimpleMap.obj : error LNK2005: "public: __thiscall KeyCompare::KeyCompare(void)" (??0?$KeyCompare@VTester@@@@QAE@XZ) already defined in MapTest.obj MapTest.cpp is the test harness class in which I wrote the test case. I have used include guards as well, to stop multiple inclusions. Any idea what the matter is?? Thank you very much!!

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  • PHP Sessions and Passing Session ID

    - by Jason McCreary
    I have an API where I am passing the session id back and forth between calls. I set up the session like so: // start API session session_name('apikey'); session_id($data['apikey']); // required to link session session_start(); Although I named my session and am passing the session id via GET and POST using the name, PHP does not automatically resume that session. It always creates a new one unless I set the explicitly set the session id. I found some old user comments on www.php.net that said unless the session id is the first parameter PHP won't set it automatically. This seems odd, but even when I call tried it still didn't work: rest_services.php?apikey=sdr6d3subaofcav53cpf71j4v3&q=testing I have used PHP for years, but am a little confused on why I needed to explicitly set the session with session_id() when I am naming the session and passing it's key accordingly. UPDATE It seems I wasn't clear. My question is why is setting the session ID with session_id() required when I am passing the id, using the session name apikey, via $_GET or $_POST. Theoretically this is no different than PHP's SID when cookies are disabled. But for me it doesn't work unless I explicitly set the session ID. Why?

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  • Reporting Services: Tablix RepeatColumnHeaders doesn't work on some reports

    - by I Have the Hat
    So I've got various reports that consist of a DataSet rendered in a Tablix... pretty garden variety stuff. There is a property for the Tablix control named RepeatColumnHeaders, which I have set to True for each report in question. The explanation for this property states “Indicates whether column headers are repeated on each page on which part of the data region appear.” Sounds pretty straightforward, but on some reports it works and on others it does not. I can't seem to find what's different about the reports that might affect this. On one report where the headers do repeat, there is some fairly arcane grouping mojo, but in an example where it doesn't work the Tablix only has one level--no grouping. I would expect the multi-nested one to be the problem, not the flat one. Maybe it's a different problem altogether. I threw together a simple Tablix rendering SELECT * FROM Foo, accepted all the default values, which results in RepeatColumnHeaders being set to False, and lo and behold the column headers do repeat for that report... Grrr. Any insights greatly appreciated.

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  • How can I set the tab on a webpage depending on which page you come from in ASP.Net MVC?

    - by uriDium
    I have a rather large entity. It has a parent relationship with many different child tables. Each of the child tables I have represented as a tab (luckily it makes sense and looks nice and makes things easier to navigate). If the users wants to add a new child row, they go the particular tab, and there they see a list of rows which is owned by the parent and they can do the usual CRUD. The CRUD takes them to a new controller and action and passes the ID of the parent to the action. (This is as far as I can tell what I was meant to do, any other ideas??) When they have finsihed they click save and it takes them back to the original page BUT I want it to automatically go to the right tab. How can I do this? I am using Jquery UI tabs, ASP.Net MVC 2.0. One idea I had was to just go back to the bookmark (the href part with the #, for e.g. /Parent/Details/4/#tabname). Apparently JQuery UI tabs can handle this. Or to set the tab name as part of the query string (/Parent/Details/4?tab=name) What is the best practise here?

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  • Starting Beyond Compare from the Command Line

    - by Logan
    I have Beyond Compare 3 installed at; "C:\Program Files\Beyond Compare 3\BCompare.exe" and Cygwin; "C:\Cygwin\bin\bash.exe" What I would like is to be able to use a command such as; diff <file1> <file2> into the Cygwin shell and to have the shell fork a process opening the two files in beyond compare. I looked at the Beyond Compare Support Page but I'm afraid It was too brief for me. I tried copying the text verbatim (apart from path to executable) to no avail; Instead of using a batch file, create a file named "bc.sh" with the following line: "$(cygpath 'C:\Progra~1\Beyond~1\bcomp.exe')" `cygpath -w "$6"` `cygpath -w "$7"` /title1="$3" /title2="$5" /readonly Was I supposed to replace cygpath? I get a 'Command not found' error when I enter the name of the script on the command line. gavina@whwgavina1 /cygdrive $ "C:\Documents and Settings\gavina\Desktop\bc.sh" bash: C:\Documents and Settings\gavina\Desktop\bc.sh: command not found Does anyone have Beyond Compare working as I have described? Is this even possible in a Windows environment? Thanks in advance!

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