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• Consuming SharePoint Web Services fails when behind Proxy server

  - by Jan Petersen

  Hi All, I've seen a number of post about consuming Web Services from behind a proxy server, but none that seams to address this problem. I'm building a desktop application, using Java, JAX-WS in NetBeans. I have a working prototype, that can query the server for authentication mode, successfully authenticate and retrieve a list of web site. However, if I run the same app from a network that is behind a proxy server (the proxy does not require authentication), then I'm running into trouble. The normal -dhttp.proxyHost ... settings does not seam to help any. But I have found that by creating a ProxySelector class and setting it as default, I can regain access to the authentication web service, but I still can't retrieve the list of web sites from the SharePoint server. Anyone have any experience on how to make this work? I have put the source text java class files of a demo app up, showing the issue at the following urls (it's a bit to long even in the short demo form to post here). link text When running the code from a network behind a proxy server, I successfully retrieve the Authentication mode from the server, but the request for the Web Site list generates an exception originating at: com.sun.xml.internal.ws.transport.http.client .HttpClientTransport.readResponseCodeAndMessage(HttpClientTransport.java:201) The output from the source when no proxy is on the network is listed below: Successfully retrieved the SharePoint WebService response for Authentication SharePoint authentication method is: WINDOWS Calling Web Service to retrieve list of web site. Web Service call response: -------------- XML START -------------- <Webs xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/sharepoint/soap/"> <Web Title="Collaboration Lab" Url="http://host.domain.com/collaboration"/> <Web Title="Global Data Lists" Url="http://host.domain.com/global_data_lists"/> <Web Title="Landing" Url="http://host.domain.com/Landing"/> <Web Title="SharePoint HelpDesk" Url="http://host.domain.com/helpdesk"/> <Web Title="Program Management" Url="http://host.domain.com/programmanagement"/> <Web Title="Project Site" Url="http://host.domain.com/Project Site"/> <Web Title="SharePoint Administration Tools" Url="http://host.domain.com/admin"/> <Web Title="Space Management Project" Url="http://host.domain.com/spacemgmt"/> </Webs> -------------- XML END -------------- Br Jan

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• Which HTTP redirect status code is best for this REST API scenario?

  - by Aseem Kishore

  I'm working on a REST API. The key objects ("nouns") are "items", and each item has a unique ID. E.g. to get info on the item with ID foo: GET http://api.example.com/v1/item/foo New items can be created, but the client doesn't get to pick the ID. Instead, the client sends some info that represents that item. So to create a new item: POST http://api.example.com/v1/item/ hello=world&hokey=pokey With that command, the server checks if we already have an item for the info hello=world&hokey=pokey. So there are two cases here. Case 1: the item doesn't exist; it's created. This case is easy. 201 Created Location: http://api.example.com/v1/item/bar Case 2: the item already exists. Here's where I'm struggling... not sure what's the best redirect code to use. 301 Moved Permanently? 302 Found? 303 See Other? 307 Temporary Redirect? Location: http://api.example.com/v1/item/foo I've studied the Wikipedia descriptions and RFC 2616, and none of these seem to be perfect. Here are the specific characteristics I'm looking for in this case: The redirect is permanent, as the ID will never change. So for efficiency, the client can and should make all future requests to the ID endpoint directly. This suggests 301, as the other three are meant to be temporary. The redirect should use GET, even though this request is POST. This suggests 303, as all others are technically supposed to re-use the POST method. In practice, browsers will use GET for 301 and 302, but this is a REST API, not a website meant to be used by regular users in browsers. It should be broadly usable and easy to play with. Specifically, 303 is HTTP/1.1 whereas 301 and 302 are HTTP/1.0. I'm not sure how much of an issue this is. At this point, I'm leaning towards 303 just to be semantically correct (use GET, don't re-POST) and just suck it up on the "temporary" part. But I'm not sure if 302 would be better since in practice it's been the same behavior as 303, but without requiring HTTP/1.1. But if I go down that line, I wonder if 301 is even better for the same reason plus the "permanent" part. Thoughts appreciated!

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• Going from a math career to a cs career: how to do it?

  - by Joseph

  Hey, I'm looking for some advice on how to successfully make the transition from mathematics to CS. My academic background is in mathematics (BS and MSc), and I've taken loads of math courses as well. You name it, and I took it: Measure Theory, Algebra, PDES, Manifolds, Complex Analysis, etc. I progressed quite far along this track, and at one point, I thought I would be a professional mathematician...But around the time I was finishing my MSc, I really got sick of it. Studying very abstract mathematics was fun, but it really lost it's appeal to me. Outside of a couple hundred people, I'm not sure if anybody would understand my research. I did not want to be 60 years old and say that my only contribution to the world consisted of published papers. Anyways, I've been an off and on hobbyist programmer since 2002. I've programmed in C and Java (just small projects), and I really started to be drawn to the area as time passed. There's a real appeal to CS work because, well, it actually means something to other people out there! I enjoy all parts of it: designing webpages (a real artistic appeal). On the other end, I do enjoy toying with compilers and more nitty-gritty stuff as well. Suffice to say, I have broad interests out there. Anyways, I know it's a bit late, but I was wondering if there were other folks out there who made the change, and if so, how I could do so. I know I have some fairly big gaps to fill in terms of data structures, lack of internship experience, etc. But I really would like to make this work. So my question is simply: How can I make the switch from math to CS? To pay the bills, I'll be doing financial analysis for a company, but I'd like to eventually transition into a developer type position. I've been reading "Algorithm Design" by Tardos and doing all the problems. It's not hard to make progress since the problems are far more concrete than the stuff I've been doing the past six years. I feel I can make fairly rapid progress in picking up all the materials from data structures, etc. but none of it can substitute the past several years I've lost. Anyways, I'm eager to learn but would love some advice/concrete direction. Thanks, Joseph

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• I'm cloning a table row that contains an input that's being set to jQuery TimeEntry that errors when

  - by Kendall Crouch

  I'm adding a TimeEntry to a page where the user can add a row (clone) to a table. The row that is cloned is hidden (display:none). The user clicks a button and javascript is run to clone the row which renames all of the fields and then appends the new row to the table. <tr id="blankRowShift"> <td> <input type="text" id="timeStart" name="timeStart" /> </td> <td> <input type="text" id="timeEnd" name="timeEnd" /> </td> <td> <select id="userLevel"> <option value="0">Please Select One</option> <option value="2">Admin</option> <option value="1">Employee</option> <option value="3">Scheduler</option> </select> </td> </tr> var r = $("#tbl #blankRowShift").clone().removeAttr("id"); $("#timeStart", r).attr("name", "timeStart" + nn).attr("id", "timeStart" + nn); $("#timeEnd", r).attr("name", "timeEnd" + nn).attr("id", "timeEnd" + nn); $("#userLevel option:nth(0)", r).attr("selected", "selected"); $("#userLevel", r).attr("name", "userLevel" + nn).attr("id", "userLevel" + nn).attr("value", 0); $("#tbl").append(r); $("#timeStart" + nn).timeEntry({ show24Hours: false, showSeconds: false, timeSteps: [1, 15, 0], spinnerImage: 'includes/js/spinnerOrange.png', beforeShow: customRangeStart }); $("#timeStart" + nn).timeEntry('setTime', new Date()); $("#timeEnd" + nn).timeEntry({ show24Hours: false, showSeconds: false, timeSteps: [1, 15, 0], spinnerImage: 'includes/js/spinnerOrange.png', beforeShow: customRangeEnd }); $("#timeEnd" + nn).timeEntry('setTime', new Date()); The spinner works just fine and the times can be changed. Then when submitting the form, I validate the time. The getTime errors in jQuery with the message "elem is undefined var id = elem[ expando ];". I've placed the statement 'console.dir(input)' in the _getTimeTimeEntry: function and it returns nothing for the cloned fields. el = $("#timeStart" + i); if (el.timeEntry("getTime") == null) {

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• WinRT ControlTemplate ItemsPanel

  - by user1427149

  I'm new to WinRT and am trying to create a standard gridview which has a group heading with a number of tiles beneath it. That bit is easy. I'm trying to modify it so that beneath the grid of tiles I can also add a footer using the containers style: <GridView x:Name="itemGridView" AutomationProperties.AutomationId="ItemGridView" AutomationProperties.Name="Grouped Items" Margin="116,0,40,46" ItemsSource="{Binding Source={StaticResource groupedItemsViewSource}}" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource Project200x200ItemTemplate}" SelectionMode="None" IsItemClickEnabled="True" ItemClick="ItemView_ItemClick"> <GridView.ItemsPanel> <ItemsPanelTemplate> <VirtualizingStackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"/> </ItemsPanelTemplate> </GridView.ItemsPanel> <GridView.GroupStyle> <GroupStyle> <GroupStyle.HeaderTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Grid Margin="1,0,0,6"> <Button AutomationProperties.Name="Group Title" Content="{Binding Name}" Click="Header_Click" Style="{StaticResource TextButtonStyle}" FontWeight="{Binding IsSelected, ConverterParameter=FontWeight, Converter={StaticResource BooleanToFontWeightConverter}}" /> </Grid> </DataTemplate> </GroupStyle.HeaderTemplate> <GroupStyle.Panel> <ItemsPanelTemplate> <VariableSizedWrapGrid Background="Red" Orientation="Vertical" Margin="0,0,40,0" /> </ItemsPanelTemplate> </GroupStyle.Panel> <GroupStyle.ContainerStyle> <Style TargetType="GroupItem"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate> <StackPanel> <ContentPresenter/> <ItemsPresenter/> <TextBlock Text="*** End of group ***"/> </StackPanel> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> </GroupStyle.ContainerStyle> </GroupStyle> </GridView.GroupStyle> </GridView> This almost works but after adding the container style, the grid of tiles no longer shows... the group header and 'End of group' textblock is showing, but I've lost the tile grid. Can anyone spot what I'm doing wrong...?

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• Parsing a .NET DataSet returned from a .NET Web Service in Java

  - by Chris Dail

  I have to consume a .NET hosted web service from a Java application. Interoperability between the two is usually very good. The problem I'm running into is that the .NET application developer chose to expose data using the .NET DataSet object. There are lots of articles written as to why you should not do this and how it makes interoperability difficult: http://www.hanselman.com/blog/ReturningDataSetsFromWebServicesIsTheSpawnOfSatanAndRepresentsAllThatIsTrulyEvilInTheWorld.aspx http://www.lhotka.net/weblog/ThoughtsOnPassingDataSetObjectsViaWebServices.aspx http://aspnet.4guysfromrolla.com/articles/051805-1.aspx http://www.theserverside.net/tt/articles/showarticle.tss?id=Top5WSMistakes My problem is that despite this not being recommended practice, I am stuck with having to consume a web service returning a DataSet with Java. When you generate a proxy for something like this with anything other than .NET you basically end up with an object that looks like this: @XmlElement(namespace = "http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema", required = true) protected Schema schema; @XmlAnyElement(lax = true) protected Object any; This first field is the actual schema that should describe the DataSet. When I process this using JAX-WS and JAXB in Java, it bring all of XS-Schema in as Java objects to be represented here. Walking the object tree of JAXB is possible but not pretty. The any field represents the raw XML for the DataSet that is in the schema specified by the schema. The structure of the dataset is pretty consistent but the data types do change. I need access to the type information and the schema does vary from call to call. I've though of a few options but none seem like 'good' options. Trying to generate Java objects from the schema using JAXB at runtime seems to be a bad idea. This would be way too slow since it would need to happen everytime. Brute force walk the schema tree using the JAXB objects that JAX-WS brought in. Maybe instead of using JAXB to parse the schema it would be easier to deal with it as XML and use XPath to try and find the type information I need. Are there other options I have not considered? Is there a Java library to parse DataSet objects easily? What have other people done who may have similar situations?

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• Tracking upstream svn changes with git-svn and github?

  - by Joseph Turian

  How do I track upstream SVN changes using git-svn and github? I used git-svn to convert an SVN repo to git on github: $ git svn clone -s http://svn.osqa.net/svnroot/osqa/ osqa $ cd osqa $ git remote add origin [email protected]:turian/osqa.git $ git push origin master I then made a few changes in my git repo, committed, and pushed to github. Now, I am on a new machine. I want to take upstream SVN changes, merge them with my github repo, and push them to my github repo. This documentation says: "If you ever lose your local copy, just run the import again with the same settings, and you’ll get another working directory with all the necessary SVN metainfo." So I did the following. But none of the commands work as desired. How do I track upstream SVN changes using git-svn and github? What am I doing wrong? $ git svn clone -s http://svn.osqa.net/svnroot/osqa/ osqa $ cd osqa $ git remote add origin [email protected]:turian/osqa.git $ git push origin master To [email protected]:turian/osqa.git ! [rejected] master -> master (non-fast forward) error: failed to push some refs to '[email protected]:turian/osqa.git' $ git pull remote: Counting objects: 21, done. remote: Compressing objects: 100% (17/17), done. remote: Total 17 (delta 7), reused 9 (delta 0) Unpacking objects: 100% (17/17), done. From [email protected]:turian/osqa * [new branch] master -> origin/master From [email protected]:turian/osqa * [new tag] master -> master You asked me to pull without telling me which branch you want to merge with, and 'branch.master.merge' in your configuration file does not tell me either. Please name which branch you want to merge on the command line and try again (e.g. 'git pull <repository> <refspec>'). See git-pull(1) for details on the refspec. ... $ /usr//lib/git-core/git-svn rebase warning: refname 'master' is ambiguous. First, rewinding head to replay your work on top of it... Applying: Added forum/management/commands/dumpsettings.py error: Ref refs/heads/master is at 6acd747f95aef6d9bce37f86798a32c14e04b82e but expected a7109d94d813b20c230a029ecd67801e6067a452 fatal: Cannot lock the ref 'refs/heads/master'. Could not move back to refs/heads/master rebase refs/remotes/trunk: command returned error: 1

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• How can I include additional markup within a 'Content' inner property of an ASP.Net WebControl?

  - by GenericTypeTea

  I've searched the site and I cannot find a solution for my problem, so apologies if it's already been answered (I'm sure someone must have asked this before). I have written a jQuery Popup window that I've packaged up as a WebControl and IScriptControl. The last step is to be able to write the markup within the tags of my control. I've used the InnerProperty attribute a few times, but only for including lists of strongly typed classes. Here's my property on the WebControl: [PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerProperty)] [DesignerSerializationVisibility(DesignerSerializationVisibility.Content)] public something??? Content { get { if (_content == null) { _content = new something???(); } return _content; } } private something??? _content; Here's the HTML Markup of what I'm after: <ctr:WebPopup runat="server" ID="win_Test" Hidden="false" Width="100px" Height="100px" Modal="true" WindowCaption="Test Window" CssClass="window"> <Content> <div style="display:none;"> <asp:Button runat="server" ID="Button1" OnClick="Button1_Click" /> </div> <%--Etc--%> <%--Etc--%> </Content> </ctr:WebPopup> Unfortunately I don't know what type my Content property should be. I basically need to replicate the UpdatePanel's ContentTemplate. EDIT: So the following allows a Template container to be automatically created, but no controls show up, what's wrong with what I'm doing? [PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerProperty)] [DesignerSerializationVisibility(DesignerSerializationVisibility.Content)] public ITemplate Content { get { return _content; } set { _content = value; } } private ITemplate _content; EDIT2: Overriding the CreateChildControls allows the controls within the ITemplate to be rendered: protected override void CreateChildControls() { if (this.Content != null) { this.Controls.Clear(); this.Content.InstantiateIn(this); } base.CreateChildControls(); } Unfortunately I cannot now access the controls within the ITemplate from the codebehind file on the file. I.e. if I put a button within my mark as so: <ctr:WebPopup runat="server" ID="win_StatusFilter"> <Content> <asp:Button runat="server" ID="btn_Test" Text="Cannot access this from code behind?" /> </Content> </ctr:WebPopup> I then cannot access btn_Test from the code behind: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { btn_Test.Text = "btn_Test is not present in Intellisense and is not accessible to the page. It does, however, render correctly."; }

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• What does N years of experience with a language really mean?

  - by marcgg

  I've been looking at jobs descriptions since I'm graduating soon and looking for a job and what's always coming back - I'm not teaching you anything - is the "N years of experience in this language". It has been discussed in this question that if you work professionally with let's say Ruby for 2 years, but during these two years you also did some C# and PHP and were actually coding in Ruby 50% of the time. Do you say you have 1 year of experience in Ruby? 2 years? Another issue that hasn't been reviewed in the other post is for "non-professional experience". I'll give you a personal example: I've been working with Ruby on Rails since 2004 while at school. I did a lot of personal projects and school projects using this technology. I also used Rails in 2 6-month internships. Do I have 5 years of Rails experience (2004-now)? Do I have 1 year(2 internships)? Do I have nothing? I feel like I don't deserve the credit for 5 years, because the first years I wasn't working a lot with rails, but since last year I launched some websites and invested myself a lot in this technology and just saying 1 year doesn't really reflect how much I know the technology... Another example: I Learned C++ at school and did 1 big project with it (2-3 month of work and a semester of classes). I never used it in a company but I'd be able to be productive fairly quickly if I had to work on a C++ project and I have a good grasp of the concepts. Do I have no experience? 3 months? 6 months? ... something else? What I'm really trying to do is to find a way to present my skill set in a way that is compliant to what recruiters expect. I also don't want to end up at an interview that would go something like this... Recruiter (finding out the horrible truth): Oh but you said that you had 2 years of experience with this when you have none! / slaps me in the face / Me (in pain): Oh! The irony! Recruiter (yelling): Get out of my office / calls security, punches me in the throat /

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• Windowsless property is not working in Firefox ONLY

  - by lmenaria

  Hello, I have created a simple silverlight application to display some text at realtime from xml. The text display using HTML DIV tag. I have added plugin property windowless=true, enablehtmlaccess=true,background=transparent. On Silverlight I have added a Button "Continue" at Top & Bottom, which shows some message on that click. Silverlight Plugin resize based in XML contents. My code : MainPage.xaml: MainPage.xaml.cs: Creating HTML DIV on Application Start using : HtmlDocument _document = HtmlPage.Document; HtmlElement iDIV = _document.CreateElement("DIV"); iDIV.SetAttribute("id", "divHTMLViewer"); iDIV.SetStyleAttribute("position", "absolute"); iDIV.SetStyleAttribute("z-index", "1"); iDIV.SetStyleAttribute("display", "INLINE"); iDIV.SetStyleAttribute("top", "100px"); iDIV.SetStyleAttribute("height", "0px"); iDIV.SetStyleAttribute("width", "96%"); iDIV.SetStyleAttribute("left", "15px"); iDIV.SetStyleAttribute("text-align", "justify"); HtmlElement body = _document.GetElementsByTagName("BODY")[0] as HtmlElement; body.RemoveChild(iDIV); body.AppendChild(iDIV); Set the XML text : HtmlElement divHTMLViewer = HtmlPage.Document.GetElementById("divHTMLViewer"); sText = sText.Replace("<", "<").Replace(">", ""); divHTMLViewer.SetStyleAttribute("display", "none"); divHTMLViewer.SetStyleAttribute("width", "96%"); divHTMLViewer.SetStyleAttribute("top", "100px"); divHTMLViewer.SetStyleAttribute("left", "15px"); divHTMLViewer.RemoveStyleAttribute("color"); divHTMLViewer.RemoveStyleAttribute("fontSize"); divHTMLViewer.SetProperty("innerHTML", sText); divHTMLViewer.SetStyleAttribute("display", "INLINE"); setSilverlightControlHeight(UILAYOUT.INSTRUCTIONS); Silverlight Plugin size increase code : isilverlightControlHost.SetStyleAttribute("height", HtmlPage.Window.Eval("document.documentElement.scrollHeight").ToString() + "px"); isilverlightControlHost.SetStyleAttribute("position", "absolute"); All these code is working fine in Internet Explorer, Crome & Safari but "Continue" not visible in FIREFOX ONLY. So is there any issue with this code ? Code Sample :http://lm-bucket-for-forum-post.s3.amazonaws.com/HtMLViewerSilverLight.zip working sample : Just replace ".zip" with "TestPage.html" in above URL. Please let me know how can I solve it ? Thanks in advance, Laxmilal Menaria

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• How to build an offline web app using Flask?

  - by Rafael Alencar

  I'm prototyping an idea for a website that will use the HTML5 offline application cache for certain purposes. The website will be built with Python and Flask and that's where my main problem comes from: I'm working with those two for the first time, so I'm having a hard time getting the manifest file to work as expected. The issue is that I'm getting 404's from the static files included in the manifest file. The manifest itself seems to be downloaded correctly, but the files that it points to are not. This is what is spit out in the console when loading the page: Creating Application Cache with manifest http://127.0.0.1:5000/static/manifest.appcache offline-app:1 Application Cache Checking event offline-app:1 Application Cache Downloading event offline-app:1 Application Cache Progress event (0 of 2) http://127.0.0.1:5000/style.css offline-app:1 Application Cache Error event: Resource fetch failed (404) http://127.0.0.1:5000/style.css The error is in the last line. When the appcache fails even once, it stops the process completely and the offline cache doesn't work. This is how my files are structured: sandbox offline-app offline-app.py static manifest.appcache script.js style.css templates offline-app.html This is the content of offline-app.py: from flask import Flask, render_template app = Flask(__name__) @app.route('/offline-app') def offline_app(): return render_template('offline-app.html') if __name__ == '__main__': app.run(host='0.0.0.0', debug=True) This is what I have in offline-app.html: <!DOCTYPE html> <html manifest="{{ url_for('static', filename='manifest.appcache') }}"> <head> <title>Offline App Sandbox - main page</title> </head> <body> <h1>Welcome to the main page for the Offline App Sandbox!</h1> <p>Some placeholder text</p> </body> </html> This is my manifest.appcache file: CACHE MANIFEST /style.css /script.js I've tried having the manifest file in all different ways I could think of: CACHE MANIFEST /static/style.css /static/script.js or CACHE MANIFEST /offline-app/static/style.css /offline-app/static/script.js None of these worked. The same error was returned every time. I'm certain the issue here is how the server is serving up the files listed in the manifest. Those files are probably being looked up in the wrong place, I guess. I either should place them somewhere else or I need something different in the cache manifest, but I have no idea what. I couldn't find anything online about having HTML5 offline applications with Flask. Is anyone able to help me out?

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• Static Javascript files not loaded in Express app

  - by Dave Long

  I have an express app that has a bunch of static javascript files that aren't being loaded even though they are registered in my app.js file. Even public scripts (like jQuery: http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.6.3/jquery.min.js) aren't processing. I can see the script tags in the generated html, but none of the functionality runs and I can't see the files loading in the web inspector. Here is the code that I have: app.js var express = require('express') var app = module.exports = express.createServer(); // Configuration var port = process.env.PORT || 3000; app.configure(function(){ app.set('views', __dirname + '/views'); app.set('view engine', 'jade'); app.use(express.bodyParser()); app.use(express.methodOverride()); app.use(app.router); app.use(express.static(__dirname + '/public')); }); app.configure('development', function(){ app.use(express.errorHandler({ dumpExceptions: true, showStack: true })); }); app.configure('production', function(){ app.use(express.errorHandler()); }); // Routes app.get('/manage/new', function(req, res){ res.render('manage/new', { title: 'Create a new widget' }); }) app.listen(port); console.log("Express server listening on port %d in %s mode", app.address().port, app.settings.env); /views/manage/layout.jade !!! 5 html(lang="en") head title= title link(rel="stylesheet", href="/stylesheets/demo.css") link(rel="stylesheet", href="/stylesheets/jquery.qtip.css") script(type="text/javascript", href="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.6.3/jquery.min.js") body!= body script(type="text/javascript", href="/javascripts/jquery.formalize.js") script(type="text/javascript", href="/javascripts/jquery.form.js") script(type="text/javascript", href="/javascripts/jquery.qtip.js") script(type="text/javascript", href="/javascripts/formToWizard.js") script(type="text/javascript", href="/javascripts/widget.js") /views/manage/new.jade h1= title div(style="float:left;") form(action="/manage/generate", method="post", enctype="multipart/form-data", name="create-widget") .errors fieldset legend Band / Album Information fieldset legend Social Networks fieldset legend Download All of my javascript files are stored in /public/javascripts and all of my static CSS files are being served up just fine. I'm not sure what I've done wrong.

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• CSS3 Hover transition strange behavior

  - by Aleksandar Ivanov

  So I was playing around with transition/hover effects so that's the code. <pre> <code> /* HTML */ section> a href="#" title="button">CLICK!</a> // deleted the lt sign for visibility reasons! a href="#" title="button">CLICK!</a> a href="#" title="button">CLICK!</a> a href="#" title="button">CLICK!</a> /section> /********/ /* CSS */ section{ width: 700px; height: 500px; margin: 250px auto; position: relative; background: #08c; } section a{ border-radius: 51px; background: #e60; line-height: 100px; text-align: center; color: #04e; font-size: 24px; font-weight: bold; font-family: tahoma; text-decoration: none; display: block; width: 100px; height: 100px; } section a:nth-child(1){ position: absolute; top: -100px; left: -100px; -webkit-transition: left 2s ease; } section a:nth-child(2){ position: absolute; top: -100px; right: -100px; -webkit-transition: top 2s ease; } section a:nth-child(3){ position: absolute; bottom: -100px; right: -100px; -webkit-transition: right 2s ease; } section a:nth-child(4){ position: absolute; bottom: -100px; left: -100px; -webkit-transition: bottom 2s ease; } section a:nth-child(1):hover,section a:nth-child(1):focus{ left: 800px; } section a:nth-child(2):hover{ top: 600px; } section a:nth-child(3):hover{ right: 800px; } section a:nth-child(4):hover{ bottom: 600px; } /*******/ </code> </pre> BUT, I stumbled upon a strange thing. When I hover over a link its starts getting to its right position applied by the hover, but at some point (always different) the effect stops and it gets back to its original position! Have anyone seen this and know what is the problem ?

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• ObjectDisposedException from core .NET code

  - by John

  I'm having this issue with a live app. (Unfortunately this is post-mortem debugging - I only have this stack trace. I've never seen this personally, nor am I able to reproduce). I get this Exception: message=Cannot access a disposed object. Object name: 'Button'. exceptionMessage=Cannot access a disposed object. Object name: 'Button'. exceptionDetails=System.ObjectDisposedException: Cannot access a disposed object. Object name: 'Button'. at System.Windows.Forms.Control.CreateHandle() at System.Windows.Forms.Control.get_Handle() at System.Windows.Forms.Control.PointToScreen(Point p) at System.Windows.Forms.Button.OnMouseUp(MouseEventArgs mevent) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WmMouseUp(Message& m, MouseButtons button, Int32 clicks) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.ButtonBase.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Button.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.OnMessage(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.Callback(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wparam, IntPtr lparam) exceptionSource=System.Windows.Forms exceptionTargetSite=Void CreateHandle() It looks like a mouse event is arriving at a form after the form has been disposed. Note there is none of my code in this stack trace. The only weird (?) thing I'm doing, is that I do tend to Dispose() Forms quite aggressively when I use them with ShowModal() (see "Aside" below). But I only do this after ShowModal() has returned (that should be safe right)? I think I read that events might be queued up in the event queue, but I can't believe this would be the problem. I mean surely the framework must be tolerant to old messages? I can well imagine that under stress messages might back-log and surely the window might go away at any time? Any ideas? If you could even suggest ways of reproducing, that might be useful. John Aside: TBH I've never quite understood whether calling Dispose() after Form.ShowDialog() is strictly necessary - the MSDN docs for ShowDialog() are to my mind a bit ambiguous.

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• validation in javascript - remove the error msg on focus

  - by fusion

  i'm not very well-versed with javascript, so please bear with me. i've a form in which i validate the controls with javascript. the error is displayed when the fields are empty via a div, but when i focus and type something in the textbox, the div should go away. but the error div doesn't and even if i type something valid, it still displays the div. i'd like to know where am i going wrong with this script: <script type="text/javascript"> var err = document.getElementById("errmsg"); function checkInput(inPut) { if (inPut.getValue() == "") { err.setStyle('display', 'block'); err.setTextValue("Field cannot be empty!"); inPut.focus(); return false; } else { return true; } } function checkTextBox(textBox) { if (textBox.getValue() == "") { err.setStyle('display', 'block'); err.setTextValue("Field cannot be empty!"); textBox.focus(); return false; } else if (!checkValidity(textBox.getValue())) { err.setStyle('display', 'block'); err.setTextValue("Please enter a valid email address!"); textBox.focus(); return false; } else { return true; } } . . . <div id="errmsg" class="invalid" style="display:none;"></div> <br /> . . . <input type="text" tabindex="1" name="name" id="name" class="input_contact" onblur="checkInput(this);"/> <br /> . . . <input type="text" tabindex="2" name="email" id="email" class="input_contact" onblur="checkTextBox(this);"/> <br /> it's a form in facebook app but while the fbjs works, i assume there's a problem with my basic javascript.

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• How can I position some divs inside an unordered list so they line up with the root element of the l

  - by Ronedog

  I want to position all the divs to line up to the left on the same x coordinate so it looks nice. Notice the picture below, how based on the number of nested categories the div (and its contents) show up at slightly different x coordinates. I need to have the div's line up at exactly the same x coordinate no matter how deeply nested. Note, the bottom most category always has a div for the content, but that div has to be situated inside the last < li . I am using an unordered list to display the menu and thought the best solution would be to grab the root category (Cat 2, and mCat1) and obtain their left offset using jquery, then simply use that value to update the positioning of the div...but I couldn't seem to get it to work just right. I would appreciate any advice or help that you are willing to give. Heres the HTML <ul id="nav> <li>Cat 2 <ul> <li>sub cat2</li> </ul> </li> <li>mCat1 <ul> <li>Subcat A <ul> <li>Subcat A.1 <ul> <li>Annie</li> </ul> </li> </ul> </li> </ul> </li> </ul> Heres some jquery I tried (I have do insert the div inside this .each() loop in order to retrieve some values, but basically, this selector is grabbing the last < li in the menu tree and placing a div after it and that is the div that I want to position. the 245 value was something I was playing around with to see how I could get things to line up, and I know its out of wack, but the problem is still the same no matter what I do: $("#nav li:not(:has(li))").each(function () { var self = $(this); var position = self.offset(); var xLeft = Math.round(position.left)- 245; console.log("xLeft:", xLeft ); self.after( '<div id="' + self.attr('p_node') + '_p_cont_div" class="property_position" style="display:none; left:' + xLeft + 'px;" /> ' ); }); Heres the css: .property_position{ float:left; position: relative; top: 0px; padding-top:5px; padding-bottom:10px; }

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• .NET Application broken on one PC, unhandleable exception

  - by Bobby

  Hello people. I have a .NET 2.0 application with nothing fancy in it. It worked until yesterday on every PC I installed or copied it to, no matter if 2.0, 3.0, 3.5 or 3.5 SP1 was installed, no matter if it was Win2000, XP or even Win7 (in total 100+ machines). Yesterday I did my normal installation procedure and wanted to start it one time to check if everything is working...and it wasn't. The program crashed hard leaving me with the uninformative "Do you wanna report this error?" dialog. The problem is an exception in the Main(String[] args) routine of my application. The event viewer is showing the following entry: Event Type: ErrorEvent Source: .NET Runtime 2.0 Error Reporting Event Category: None Event ID: 5000 Date: 05/05/2010 Time: 16:09:09 User: N/A Computer: myClientPC Description: EventType clr20r3, P1 apomenu.exe, P2 1.4.90.53, P3 4bdedea4, P4 system.configuration, P5 2.0.0.0, P6 4889de74, P7 1a6, P8 136, P9 ioibmurhynrxkw0zxkyrvfn0boyyufow, P10 NIL. Well...great information. After a lot of searching I finally was able to get further information about this exception (by adding a handler for UnhandledExceptions directly in My.MyApplication.New(), Application.Designer.vb): System.Configuration.ConfigurationErrorsException Configuration system failed to initialize at System.Configuration.ClientConfigurationSystem.EnsureInit(String configKey) at System.Configuration.ClientConfigurationSystem.PrepareClientConfigSystem(String sectionName) at System.Configuration.ClientConfigurationSystem.System.Configuration.Internal.IInternalConfigSystem.GetSection(String sectionName) at System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.GetSection(String sectionName) at System.Configuration.PrivilegedConfigurationManager.GetSection(String sectionName) at System.Net.Configuration.SettingsSectionInternal.get_Section() at System.Net.Sockets.Socket.InitializeSockets() at System.Net.Sockets.Socket.get_SupportsIPv4() at Microsoft.VisualBasic.ApplicationServices.WindowsFormsApplicationBase.get_HostName() at Microsoft.VisualBasic.ApplicationServices.WindowsFormsApplicationBase.RegisterChannel(Boolean SecureChannel) at Microsoft.VisualBasic.ApplicationServices.WindowsFormsApplicationBase.Run(String[] commandLine) at MyAppNameHere.My.MyApplication.Main(String[] Args) in 17d14f5c-a337-4978-8281-53493378c1071.vb:Line 81. And at this point I'm stuck...I'm out of ideas. I'm not using any kind of configuration system from the framework (no reference to System.Configuration, and there never was a MyAppnameHere.exe.config generated or distributed, nor have I seen this error before). I also found a bug report at Microsoft (Google Cache) about this bug (in another context, though). But as it seems, they won't even look at it. Every help is greatly appreciated! Edit: I'm using Visual Studio 2008 Prof.. Crash happens in Release- and Debug-Build on the client machine. Debugging the application directly on this machine is out of question I fear, 300+ Miles and they only have two computers to work with.

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• How would you organize this Javascript?

  - by Anurag

  How do you usually organize complex web applications that are extremely rich on the client side. I have created a contrived example to indicate the kind of mess it's easy to get into if things are not managed well for big apps. Feel free to modify/extend this example as you wish - http://jsfiddle.net/NHyLC/1/ The example basically mirrors part of the comment posting on SO, and follows the following rules: Must have 15 characters minimum, after multiple spaces are trimmed out to one. If Add Comment is clicked, but the size is less than 15 after removing multiple spaces, then show a popup with the error. Indicate amount of characters remaining and summarize with color coding. Gray indicates a small comment, brown indicates a medium comment, orange a large comment, and red a comment overflow. One comment can only be submitted every 15 seconds. If comment is submitted too soon, show a popup with appropriate error message. A couple of issues I noticed with this example. This should ideally be a widget or some sort of packaged functionality. Things like a comment per 15 seconds, and minimum 15 character comment belong to some application wide policies rather than being embedded inside each widget. Too many hard-coded values. No code organization. Model, Views, Controllers are all bundled together. Not that MVC is the only approach for organizing rich client side web applications, but there is none in this example. How would you go about cleaning this up? Applying a little MVC/MVP along the way? Here's some of the relevant functions, but it will make more sense if you saw the entire code on jsfiddle: /** * Handle comment change. * Update character count. * Indicate progress */ function handleCommentUpdate(comment) { var status = $('.comment-status'); status.text(getStatusText(comment)); status.removeClass('mild spicy hot sizzling'); status.addClass(getStatusClass(comment)); } /** * Is the comment valid for submission */ function commentSubmittable(comment) { var notTooSoon = !isTooSoon(); var notEmpty = !isEmpty(comment); var hasEnoughCharacters = !isTooShort(comment); return notTooSoon && notEmpty && hasEnoughCharacters; } // submit comment $('.add-comment').click(function() { var comment = $('.comment-box').val(); // submit comment, fake ajax call if(commentSubmittable(comment)) { .. } // show a popup if comment is mostly spaces if(isTooShort(comment)) { if(comment.length < 15) { // blink status message } else { popup("Comment must be at least 15 characters in length."); } } // show a popup is comment submitted too soon else if(isTooSoon()) { popup("Only 1 comment allowed per 15 seconds."); } });

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• Error using `loess.smooth` but not `loess` or `lowess`

  - by Sandy

  I need to smooth some simulated data, but occasionally run into problems when the simulated ordinates to be smoothed are mostly the same value. Here is a small reproducible example of the simplest case. > x <- 0:50 > y <- rep(0,51) > loess.smooth(x,y) Error in simpleLoess(y, x, w, span, degree, FALSE, FALSE, normalize = FALSE, : NA/NaN/Inf in foreign function call (arg 1) loess(y~x), lowess(x,y), and their analogue in MATLAB produce the expected results without error on this example. I am using loess.smooth here because I need the estimates evaluated at a set number of points. According to the documentation, I believe loess.smooth and loess are using the same estimation functions, but the former is an "auxiliary function" to handle the evaluation points. The error seems to come from a C function: > traceback() 3: .C(R_loess_raw, as.double(pseudovalues), as.double(x), as.double(weights), as.double(weights), as.integer(D), as.integer(N), as.double(span), as.integer(degree), as.integer(nonparametric), as.integer(order.drop.sqr), as.integer(sum.drop.sqr), as.double(span * cell), as.character(surf.stat), temp = double(N), parameter = integer(7), a = integer(max.kd), xi = double(max.kd), vert = double(2 * D), vval = double((D + 1) * max.kd), diagonal = double(N), trL = double(1), delta1 = double(1), delta2 = double(1), as.integer(0L)) 2: simpleLoess(y, x, w, span, degree, FALSE, FALSE, normalize = FALSE, "none", "interpolate", control$cell, iterations, control$trace.hat) 1: loess.smooth(x, y) loess also calls simpleLoess, but with what appears to be different arguments. Of course, if you vary enough of the y values to be nonzero, loess.smooth runs without error, but I need the program to run in even the most extreme case. Hopefully, someone can help me with one and/or all of the following: Understand why only loess.smooth, and not the other functions, produces this error and find a solution for this problem. Find a work-around using loess but still evaluating the estimate at a specified number of points that can differ from the vector x. For example, I might want to use only x <- seq(0,50,10) in the smoothing, but evaluate the estimate at x <- 0:50. As far as I know, using predict with a new data frame will not properly handle this situation, but please let me know if I am missing something there. Handle the error in a way that doesn't stop the program from moving onto the next simulated data set. Thanks in advance for any help on this problem.

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• Storing simulation results in a persistent manner for Python?

  - by Az

  Background: I'm running multiple simuations on a set of data. For each session, I'm allocating projects to students. The difference between each session is that I'm randomising the order of the students such that all the students get a shot at being assigned a project they want. I was writing out some of the allocations in a spreadsheet (i.e. Excel) and it basically looked like this (tiny snapshot, actual table extends to a few thousand sessions, roughly 100 students). | | Session 1 | Session 2 | Session 3 | |----------|-----------|-----------|-----------| |Stu1 |Proj_AA |Proj_AB |Proj_AB | |----------|-----------|-----------|-----------| |Stu2 |Proj_AB |Proj_AA |Proj_AC | |----------|-----------|-----------|-----------| |Stu3 |Proj_AC |Proj_AC |Proj_AA | |----------|-----------|-----------|-----------| Now, the code that deals with the allocation currently stores a session in an object. The next time the allocation is run, the object is over-written. Thus what I'd really like to do is to store all the allocation results. This is important since I later need to derive from the data, information such as: which project Stu1 got assigned to the most or perhaps how popular Proj_AC was (how many times it was assigned / number of sessions). Question(s): What methods can I possibly use to basically store such session information persistently? Basically, each session output needs to add itself to the repository after ending and before beginning the next allocation cycle. One solution that was suggested by a friend was mapping these results to a relational database using SQLAlchemy. I kind of like the idea since this does give me an opportunity to delve into databases. Now the database structure I was recommended was: |----------|-----------|-----------| |Session |Student |Project | |----------|-----------|-----------| |1 |Stu1 |Proj_AA | |----------|-----------|-----------| |1 |Stu2 |Proj_AB | |----------|-----------|-----------| |1 |Stu3 |Proj_AC | |----------|-----------|-----------| |2 |Stu1 |Proj_AB | |----------|-----------|-----------| |2 |Stu2 |Proj_AA | |----------|-----------|-----------| |2 |Stu3 |Proj_AC | |----------|-----------|-----------| |3 |Stu1 |Proj_AB | |----------|-----------|-----------| |3 |Stu2 |Proj_AC | |----------|-----------|-----------| |3 |Stu3 |Proj_AA | |----------|-----------|-----------| Here, it was suggested that I make the Session and Student columns a composite key. That way I can access a specific record for a particular student for a particular session. Or I can merely get the entire allocation run for a particular session. Questions: Is the idea a good one? How does one implement and query a composite key using SQLAlchemy? What happens to the database if a particular student is not assigned a project (happens if all projects that he wants are taken)? In the code, if a student is not assigned a project, instead of a proj_id he simply gets None for that field/object. I apologise for asking multiple questions but since these are closely-related, I thought I'd ask them in the same space.

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• XML Return from an Oracle Stored Procedure

  - by Tequila Jinx

  Unfortunately most of my DB experience has been with MSSQL which tends to hold your hand a lot more than Oracle. What I'm trying to do is fairly trivial in tSQL, however, pl/sql is giving me a headache. I have the following procedure: CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE USPX_GetUserbyID (USERID USERS.USERID%TYPE, USERRECORD OUT XMLTYPE) AS BEGIN SELECT XMLELEMENT("user" , XMLATTRIBUTES(u.USERID AS "userid", u.companyid as "companyid", u.usertype as "usertype", u.status as "status", u.personid as "personid") , XMLFOREST( p.FIRSTNAME AS "firstname" , p.LASTNAME AS "lastname" , p.EMAIL AS "email" , p.PHONE AS "phone" , p.PHONEEXTENSION AS "extension") , XMLELEMENT("roles", (SELECT XMLAGG(XMLELEMENT("role", r.ROLETYPE)) FROM USER_ROLES r WHERE r.USERID = USERID AND r.ISACTIVE = 1 ) ) , XMLELEMENT("watches", (SELECT XMLAGG( XMLELEMENT("watch", XMLATTRIBUTES(w.WATCHID AS "id", w.TICKETID AS "ticket") ) ) FROM USER_WATCHES w WHERE w.USERID = USERID AND w.ISACTIVE = 1 ) ) ) AS "RESULT" INTO USERRECORD FROM USERS u LEFT JOIN PEOPLE p ON p.PERSONID = u.PERSONID WHERE u.USERID = USERID; END USPX_GetUserbyID; When executed, it should return an XML document with the following structure: <user userid="" companyid="" usertype="" status="" personid=""> <firstname /> <lastname /> <email /> <phone /> <extension /> <roles> <role /> </roles> <watches> <watch id="" ticket="" /> </watches> </user> When I execute the query itself, replacing the USERID parameter with a string and removing the "into" clause, the query runs fine and returns the expected structure. However, when the procedure attempts to execute the query, passing the results of the XMLELEMENT function into the USERRECORD output parameter, I get the following exception: Error report: ORA-01422: exact fetch returns more than requested number of rows ORA-06512: at "USPX_GETUSERBYID", line 4 ORA-06512: at line 3 01422. 00000 - "exact fetch returns more than requested number of rows" *Cause: The number specified in exact fetch is less than the rows returned. *Action: Rewrite the query or change number of rows requested I'm baffled trying to nail this down, and unfortunately my google-fu hasn't helped. I've found plenty of Oracle SQL|XML examples, but none that deal with XML returns from a procedure. Note: I know that an alternate method of retrieving XML using DBMS methods exists, however, it's my understanding that that functionality is deprecated in favor of SQL|XML.

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• Problem serializing complex data using WCF

  - by Gustavo Paulillo

  Scenario: WCF client app, calling a web-service (JAVA) operation, wich requires a complex object as parameter. Already got the metadata. Problem: The operation has some required fields. One of them is a enum. In the SOAP sent, isnt the field above (generated metadata) - Im using WCF diagnostics and Windows Service Trace Viewer: [System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCodeAttribute("System.Xml", "2.0.50727.3082")] [System.SerializableAttribute()] [System.Diagnostics.DebuggerStepThroughAttribute()] [System.ComponentModel.DesignerCategoryAttribute("code")] [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlTypeAttribute(TypeName="Consult-Filter", Namespace="http://webserviceX.org/")] public partial class ConsFilter : object, System.ComponentModel.INotifyPropertyChanged { private PersonType customerTypeField; Property: [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlElementAttribute("customer-type", Form=System.Xml.Schema.XmlSchemaForm.Unqualified, Order=1)] public PersonType customerType { get { return this.customerTypeField; } set { this.customerTypeField = value; this.RaisePropertyChanged("customerType"); } } The enum: [System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCodeAttribute("System.Xml", "2.0.50727.3082")] [System.SerializableAttribute()] [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlTypeAttribute(TypeName="Person-Type", Namespace="http://webserviceX.org/")] public enum PersonType { /// <remarks/> F, /// <remarks/> J, } The trace log: <MessageLogTraceRecord> <HttpRequest xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/2004/06/ServiceModel/Management/MessageTrace"> <Method>POST</Method> <QueryString></QueryString> <WebHeaders> <VsDebuggerCausalityData>data</VsDebuggerCausalityData> </WebHeaders> </HttpRequest> <s:Envelope xmlns:s="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"> <s:Header> <Action s:mustUnderstand="1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/ws/2005/05/addressing/none"></Action> <ActivityId CorrelationId="correlationId" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/2004/09/ServiceModel/Diagnostics">activityId</ActivityId> </s:Header> <s:Body xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <filter xmlns="http://webserviceX.org/"> <product-code xmlns="">116</product-code> <customer-doc xmlns="">777777777</customer-doc> </filter> </s:Body> </s:Envelope> </MessageLogTraceRecord>

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• JqTouch - Detect trigger for animation

  - by majman

  Yet another problem I'm having w/ jqTouch... I'm trying to detect what element was clicked to trigger an animation so that I can pass parameters from the clicked item to the subsequent page. My HTML is: <div id="places"> <div class="toolbar"> <h1>Places</h1> <a class="back" href="#">Back</a> </div> <ul> <li id="1"><a href="#singleplace">Place 1</a></li> <li id="2"><a href="#singleplace">Place 2</a></li> <li id="3"><a href="#singleplace">Place 3</a></li> </ul> </div> <div id="singleplace"> <div class="toolbar"> <h1></h1> <a class="back" href="#">Back</a> </div> </div> When I click on any of the list items in #places, I'm able to slide over to #singleplace just fine, but I'm trying to detect which element was clicked so that I can pass parameters into the #singleplace div. My javascript is: var placeID; $('#places a').live('mouseup',function(){ $('#singleplace h1').html($(this).text()) placeID = $(this).parent().attr('id'); }) I've tried several alternatives to the $(el).live('event', fn()) approach including: $('#places a').live('click',fn()... $('#places a').live('mouseup',fn()... $('#places a').live('tap',fn()... $('#places a').tap(fn()... None of which seem to work. Is there a better way I could be handling this? I noticed on jqTouch's issues page, there is this: http://code.google.com/p/jqtouch/issues/detail?id=91 which may be part of the problem...

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• Correct way of using/testing event service in Eclipse E4 RCP

  - by Thorsten Beck

  Allow me to pose two coupled questions that might boil down to one about good application design ;-) What is the best practice for using event based communication in an e4 RCP application? How can I write simple unit tests (using JUnit) for classes that send/receive events using dependency injection and IEventBroker ? Let’s be more concrete: say I am developing an Eclipse e4 RCP application consisting of several plugins that need to communicate. For communication I want to use the event service provided by org.eclipse.e4.core.services.events.IEventBroker so my plugins stay loosely coupled. I use dependency injection to inject the event broker to a class that dispatches events: @Inject static IEventBroker broker; private void sendEvent() { broker.post(MyEventConstants.SOME_EVENT, payload) } On the receiver side, I have a method like: @Inject @Optional private void receiveEvent(@UIEventTopic(MyEventConstants.SOME_EVENT) Object payload) Now the questions: In order for IEventBroker to be successfully injected, my class needs access to the current IEclipseContext. Most of my classes using the event service are not referenced by the e4 application model, so I have to manually inject the context on instantiation using e.g. ContextInjectionFactory.inject(myEventSendingObject, context); This approach works but I find myself passing around a lot of context to wherever I use the event service. Is this really the correct approach to event based communication across an E4 application? how can I easily write JUnit tests for a class that uses the event service (either as a sender or receiver)? Obviously, none of the above annotations work in isolation since there is no context available. I understand everyone’s convinced that dependency injection simplifies testability. But does this also apply to injecting services like the IEventBroker? This article describes creation of your own IEclipseContext to include the process of DI in tests. Not sure if this could resolve my 2nd issue but I also hesitate running all my tests as JUnit Plug-in tests as it appears impractible to fire up the PDE for each unit test. Maybe I just misunderstand the approach. This article speaks about “simply mocking IEventBroker”. Yes, that would be great! Unfortunately, I couldn’t find any information on how this can be achieved. All this makes me wonder whether I am still on a "good path" or if this is already a case of bad design? And if so, how would you go about redesigning? Move all event related actions to dedicated event sender/receiver classes or a dedicated plugin?

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• Purpose of Explicit Default Constructors

  - by Dennis Zickefoose

  I recently noticed a class in C++0x that calls for an explicit default constructor. However, I'm failing to come up with a scenario in which a default constructor can be called implicitly. It seems like a rather pointless specifier. I thought maybe it would disallow Class c; in favor of Class c = Class(); but that does not appear to be the case. Some relevant quotes from the C++0x FCD, since it is easier for me to navigate [similar text exists in C++03, if not in the same places] 12.3.1.3 [class.conv.ctor] A default constructor may be an explicit constructor; such a constructor will be used to perform default-initialization or value initialization (8.5). It goes on to provide an example of an explicit default constructor, but it simply mimics the example I provided above. 8.5.6 [decl.init] To default-initialize an object of type T means: — if T is a (possibly cv-qualified) class type (Clause 9), the default constructor for T is called (and the initialization is ill-formed if T has no accessible default constructor); 8.5.7 [decl.init] To value-initialize an object of type T means: — if T is a (possibly cv-qualified) class type (Clause 9) with a user-provided constructor (12.1), then the default constructor for T is called (and the initialization is ill-formed if T has no accessible default constructor); In both cases, the standard calls for the default constructor to be called. But that is what would happen if the default constructor were non-explicit. For completeness sake: 8.5.11 [decl.init] If no initializer is specified for an object, the object is default-initialized; From what I can tell, this just leaves conversion from no data. Which doesn't make sense. The best I can come up with would be the following: void function(Class c); int main() { function(); //implicitly convert from no parameter to a single parameter } But obviously that isn't the way C++ handles default arguments. What else is there that would make explicit Class(); behave differently from Class();? The specific example that generated this question was std::function [20.8.14.2 func.wrap.func]. It requires several converting constructors, none of which are marked explicit, but the default constructor is.

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