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• Log session and session changes of a asp.net web user

  - by Johan Wikström

  This is going to be a quite broad question, and any suggestions, examples, links are very welcome! I'm looking for a good way to log my users session, and actions on the site up to a certain point. The site in question is a site for doing bookings. The users start with doing a search, doing a few steps of data gathering and selections and end up with a booking. So what I need to implement is some kind of logging of the current session variables at each step the user takes. And perhaps some other valid information. Logging should preferably be done to the a database. At the end i would like to associate all these session with a booking reference. The goal is to later if something goes wrong with the booking or we need to investigate a situation have all information we need. I understand log4net is a popular choice for logging, and used it a bit myself for simple purposes, but can not find any good examples regarding my situation. This should be a common situation, i'm curious how others do it.

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• Set DetailsView as selected row of GridView

  - by Nix

  I am afraid this is a brain fart question. But I have searched around and have not been able to find the answer. I am creating a GridView/DetailsView page. I have a grid that displays a bunch of rows, when a row is selected it uses a DetailsView to allow for Insert/Update. My question is what is the best way to link these? I do not want to reach out to the web service again, all the data i need is in the selected grid view row. I basically have 2 separate data sources that share the same "DataObjectTypeName", the first data source retrieves the data, and the other to do the CRUD. What is the best way to transfer the Selected Grid View row to the Details View? Am I going to have to manualy handle the Insert/Update events and call the data source myself? <asp:GridView ID="gvDetails" runat="server" DataKeyNames="ID, Code" DataSourceID="odsSearchData" > <Columns> <asp:BoundField DataField="RowA" HeaderText="A" SortExpression="RowA" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="RowB" HeaderText="B" SortExpression="RowB" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="RowC" HeaderText="C" SortExpression="RowC" /> ....Code... <asp:DetailsView ID="dvDetails" runat="server" DataKeyNames="ID, Code" DataSourceID="odsCRUD" GridLines="None" DefaultMode="Edit" AutoGenerateRows="false" Visible="false" Width="100%"> <Fields> <asp:BoundField DataField="RowA" HeaderText="A" SortExpression="RowA" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="RowB" HeaderText="B" SortExpression="RowB" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="RowC" HeaderText="C" SortExpression="RowC" /> ...

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• Performing centralized authorization for multiple applications

  - by Vaibhav

  Here's a question that I have been wrestling with for a while. We have a situation wherein we have a number of applications that we have created. These have grown organically over a period of time. All of these applications have permissions code built into them that controls access to various parts of the application depending on whether the currently logged in user has the necessary permissions or not. Alongside these applications is a utility application which allows an administrator to map users to permissions for all applications - the way it works is that every application has code which reads this external database of the said utility application to check if the currently logged in user has the necessary permission or not. Now, the question is this. Should the user-permissions mapping information reside in and be owned by the applications themselves, or is it okay to have this information reside within an external entity/DB (as in this case the utility application's database). Part of me thinks that application permissions are very specific to the application context itself, so shouldn't be separated from the application itself. But I am not sure. Any comments?

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• What is the correct install process to setup Node.js with Windows Azure Emulator

  - by PazoozaTest Pazman

  This question is related to this question: Node.js running under IIS Express Keeps Crashing to which I need help with reinstalling and getting node.js up and running in windows emulator working. Hello I am reinstalling my machine: Toshiha Laptop 2 GB Ram 32 bit processor What is the correct procedure from start to finish to get node.js development working, so far nothing has worked and the emulator (IIS Express) worker processor keeps crashing. No matter how many instances they all end up crashing. Up until two weeks ago my node development was working fine, but I had to do a reinstall, and since then I haven't been doing any node.js development on windows emulator because the latest June 2012 Azure SDK for Node.js is buggy. These are the steps I have taken: 1) Reformat HD 2) Insert Windows 7 N SP1 CD 3) Reboot machine into CD installation 4) Follow and wait until Windows 7 installed 5) Run Add/Remove programs + enable IIS + IIS management tools 6) Run Windows Update (installed about 53 updates) 7) Go here http://www.windowsazure.com/en-us/develop/nodejs/ 8) Click Windows Installer June 2012 and install Windows Azure SDK for Node.js - June 2012 9) Run Azure Powershell 10) Navigate to c:\node\testSite\webrole1 11) launch site: start-azureemulator -launch 12) Play around on website (then crash!) Problem signature: Problem Event Name: APPCRASH Application Name: iisexpress.exe Application Version: 8.0.8298.0 Application Timestamp: 4f620349 Fault Module Name: iiscore.dll Fault Module Version: 8.0.8298.0 Fault Module Timestamp: 4f63b65c Exception Code: c0000005 Exception Offset: 00021767 OS Version: 6.1.7601.2.1.0.256.28 Locale ID: 1033 Additional Information 1: f66d Additional Information 2: f66d807b515d6b2dc6f28f66db769a01 Additional Information 3: 7b2f Additional Information 4: 7b2f6797d07ebc2c23f2b227e779722e Am I missing a step in my resintall process? Do I have all the required files to do node.js windows azure emulator development? Why is IIS Express crashing all the time? Can I still do node.js windows azure emulator development without using IIS Express and use my local Windows 7 N (SP1) IIS 7.x that comes shipped?

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• When is a bool not a bool (compiler warning C4800)

  - by omatai

  Consider this being compiled in MS Visual Studio 2005 (and probably others): CPoint point1( 1, 2 ); CPoint point2( 3, 4 ); const bool point1And2Identical( point1 == point2 ); // C4800 warning const bool point1And2TheSame( ( point1 == point2 ) == TRUE ); // no warning What the...? Is the MSVC compiler brain-dead? As far as I can tell, TRUE is #defined as 1, without any type information. So by what magic is there any difference between these two lines? Surely the type of the expression inside the brackets is the same in both cases? [This part of the question now satisfactorily answered in the comments just below] Personally, I think that avoiding the warning by using the == TRUE option is ugly (though less ugly than the != 0 alternative, despite being more strictly correct), and it is better to use #pragma warning( disable:4800 ) to imply "my code is good, the compiler is an ass". Agree? Note - I have seen all manner of discussion on C4800 talking about assigning ints to bools, or casting a burger combo with large fries (hold the onions) to a bool, and wondering why there are strange results. I can't find a clear answer on what seems like a much simpler question... that might just shine line on C4800 in general.

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• How to get notified about changes of the history via history.pushState?

  - by Felix Kling

  So now that HTML5 introduces history.pushState to change the browsers history, websites start using this in combination with Ajax instead of changing the fragment identifier of the URL. Sadly that means that those calls cannot be detect anymore by onhashchange. My question is: Is there a reliable way (hack? ;)) to detect when a website uses history.pushState? The specification does not state anything about events that are raised (at least I couldn't find anything). I tried to create a facade and replaced window.history with my own JavaScript object, but it didn't have any effect at all. Further explanation: I'm developing a Firefox add-on that needs to detect these changes and act accordingly. I know there was a similar question a few days ago that asked whether listening to some DOM events would be efficient but I would rather not rely on that because these events can be generated for a lot of different reasons. Update: Here is a jsfiddle (use Firefox 4 or Chrome 8) that shows that onpopstate is not triggered when pushState is called (or am I doing something wrong? Feel free to improve it!). Update 2: Another (side) problem is that window.location is not updated when using pushState (but I read about this already here on SO I think).

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• What prevents a user from adding controls to an ASP.NET page client side?

  - by Curtis White

  This goes back to my other question which I thought was sufficiently answers but upon reflect am not sure that it was (sorry). Backgrounder: I am generating a form dynamically. I am pulling from the database the controls. I must associate each control with a database ID which is not the user's session id. I do this currently by storing my ID in the ID for the web control with some other stuff to make it unique/clear what I am doing. On the post back, I iterate through all the controls on my web page checking for my special identifier, ie, MyGeneratedTextBox_ID_Unique. This process enables for 2 important steps, identifying the control was one I generated and also getting the ID for this input field. And, all of this works but I'm still concerned about the security of it. I do not see a security issue with showing the actual database ID's in this case, although agree it is not desirable. However, I am concerned of the following possibilities: If a user could add a nefarious control to my collection and use that for a SQL injection attack. More academic, but if a user could somehow store data for fields they do not have access too by changing the id's. I agree this is a "hack" of a way to do it. But my question is, is it a security risk and is there an 'easy' way to do it in a less hack way? I assume that only the controls that are created/instantiated on the page are added to the controls list.. thus all controls must be created server side and thus the security issue is address but just wanted to validate. Thanks again. PS: I could see adding a property for each control and encrypting the viewstate would be a little more secure.

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• Implimenting Zend MVC for my existing site-first step?

  - by Joel

  Hi guys, OK-newbie question here. I'll try not to bombard SO with lots of questions-and hopefully this first one will show me the method I'll need to follow for subsequent conversions. I have a web-based calendar system that I developed, but it was coded for me procedurally (using PHP). I'm now working on learning OO and wanting to integrate this site into my localhost Zend Framework and slowly start converting parts to OO and the Zend Framework MVC process in particular. As I've said before, I understand that this will be a slow process, and when I'm done, I still probably won't have anything as OO friendly as if I had rewritten it from scratch, but I'd like to use this as a learning experience. So, I have dropped the whole site into my localhose/zend/Public folder, and everything is showing up great and linking to the database, etc. My question is-what would be the easiest first component to switch over to the MVC model? This site has a bit of everything-forms, login, authentication, some jQuery, etc. Can anyone point to a tutorial that would address what I'm trying to do? If indeed, a form would be one of the simpler things to switch, can someone walk me through those changes? Another idea is changing over all the header info, etc? Thanks for any pointers on where to start! EDIT: Also, I understand that SO is mainly for specific coding questions-I'm happy to share specific code, once I have an idea about which section to tackle first...

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• C++ - Distributing different headers than development

  - by Ben

  I was curious about doing this in C++: Lets say I have a small library that I distribute to my users. I give my clients both the binary and the associated header files that they need. For example, lets assume the following header is used in development: #include <string> ClassA { public: bool setString(const std::string & str); private: std::string str; }; Now for my question. For deployment, is there anything fundamentally wrong with me giving a 'reduced' header to my clients? For example, could I strip off the private section and simply give them this: #include <string> ClassA { public: bool setString(const std::string & str); }; My gut instinct says "yes, this is possible, but there are gotchas", so that is why I am asking this question here. If this is possible and also safe, it looks like a great way to hide private variables, and thus even avoid forward declaration in some cases. I am aware that the symbols will still be there in the binary itself, and that this is just a visibility thing at the source code level. Thanks!

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• Accessing Instance Variables from NSTimer selector

  - by Timbo

  Firstly newbie question: What's the difference between a selector and a method? Secondly newbie question (who would have thought): I need to loop some code based on instance variables and pause between loops until some condition (of course based on instance variables) is met. I've looked at sleep, I've looked at NSThread. In both discussions working through those options many asked why don't I use NSTimer, so here I am. Ok so it's simple enough to get a method (selector? ) to fire on a schedule. Problem I have is that I don't know how to see instance variables I've set up outside the timer from within the code NSTimer fires. I need to see those variables from the NSTimer selector code as I 1) will be updating their values and 2) will set labels based on those values. Here's some code that shows the concept… eventually I'd invalidate the timers based on myVariable too, however I've excluded that for code clarity. MyClass *aMyClassInstance = [MyClass new]; [aMyClassInstance setMyVariable:0]; [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1.0 target:self selector:@selector(doStuff) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:5.0 target:self selector:@selector(doSomeOtherStuff) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; - (void) doStuff { [aMyClassInstance setMyVariable:11]; // don't actually have access to set aMyClassInstance.myVariable [self updateSomeUILabel:[NSNumber numberWithInt:aMyClassInstance.myVariable]]; // don't actually have access to aMyClassInstance.myVariable } - (void) doSomeOtherStuff { [aMyClassInstance setMyVariable:22]; // don't actually have access to set aMyClassInstance.myVariable [self updateSomeUILabel:[NSNumber numberWithInt:aMyClassInstance.myVariable]]; // don't actually have access to aMyClassInstance.myVariable } - (void) updateSomeUILabel:(NSNumber *)arg{ int value = [arg intValue]; someUILabel.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"myVariable = %d", value]; // Updates the UI with new instance variable values }

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• codeigniter cron job with http access

  - by user1313850

  Sorry if this is a duplicate question...I've searched around and found similar advice but nothing that helps my exact problem. And please excuse the noob questions, CRON is a new thing for me. I have a codeigniter script that scrapes the html DOM of another site and stores some of that in a database. I'd like to run this script at a regular interval. This has lead me to looking into cron jobs. The page I have is at myserver.com/index.php/update I realize I can run a cron job with curl and run this page. If I want to be a bit more secure I can put a string at the end like: myserver.com/index.php/update/asdfh2784fufds And check for that in my CI controller. This seems like it would be mostly secure, but doesn't seem like the "right" way to do things. I've looked into running CI from the command line, and can execute basic pages like: php index.php mycontroller But when I try to do: php index.php update It doesn't work. I suspect this is because it needs to use HTTP to scrape the DOM of the outside page. So, my question: How do I securely run a codeigniter script with a cron job that needs HTTP access?

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• JQuery: Current, Well-Formatted, Printable Documentation?

  - by Eli

  Hi All, I'm looking for a current (1.2), well-formatted, printable version of the jQuery documentation. I've checked the alternative resources page and see the PDF versions from CF and Java, but both are out of date. The jQuery site has the API browser with "Printable Version" in the toolbox, but it prints terribly, and I don't really want to print one page or tab at a time. I have a hard time believing that there is no print doc for a tool this popular - all I want is a simple listing with descriptions and examples ON PAPER. Am I missing something? I can buy one of the books if I need to, but not sure which is for the current version. Thanks! Update: I can see that somebody voted this down. I know it's a pretty basic question, but it is not asked lightly or frivolously. I have made a pretty solid effort to find this on my own, and am pretty good at finding information when I need it. Perhaps the person who thought the question not worth asking knows where to find the print doc?

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• Is there an algorithm for finding an item that matches certain properties, like a 20 questions game?

  - by lala

  A question about 20 questions games was asked here: However, if I'm understanding it correctly, the answers seem to assume that each question will go down a hierarchal branching tree. A binary tree should work if the game went like this: Is it an animal? Yes. Is it a mammal? Yes. Is it a feline? Yes. Because feline is an example of a mammal and mammal is an example of an animal. But what if the questions go like this? Is it a mammal? Yes. Is it a predator? Yes. Does it have a long nose? No. You can't branch down a tree with those kinds of questions, because there are plenty of predators that aren't mammals. So you can't have your program just narrow it down to mammal and have predators be a subset of mammals. So is there a way to use a binary search tree that I'm not understanding or is there a different algorithm for this problem?

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• Algorithm to determine indices i..j of array A containing all the elements of another array B

  - by Skylark

  I came across this question on an interview questions thread. Here is the question: Given two integer arrays A [1..n] and B[1..m], find the smallest window in A that contains all elements of B. In other words, find a pair < i , j such that A[i..j] contains B[1..m]. If A doesn't contain all the elements of B, then i,j can be returned as -1. The integers in A need not be in the same order as they are in B. If there are more than one smallest window (different, but have the same size), then its enough to return one of them. Example: A[1,2,5,11,2,6,8,24,101,17,8] and B[5,2,11,8,17]. The algorithm should return i = 2 (index of 5 in A) and j = 9 (index of 17 in A). Now I can think of two variations. Let's suppose that B has duplicates. This variation doesn't consider the number of times each element occurs in B. It just checks for all the unique elements that occur in B and finds the smallest corresponding window in A that satisfies the above problem. For example, if A[1,2,4,5,7] and B[2,2,5], this variation doesn't bother about there being two 2's in B and just checks A for the unique integers in B namely 2 and 5 and hence returns i=1, j=3. This variation accounts for duplicates in B. If there are two 2's in B, then it expects to see at least two 2's in A as well. If not, it returns -1,-1. When you answer, please do let me know which variation you are answering. Pseudocode should do. Please mention space and time complexity if it is tricky to calculate it. Mention if your solution assumes array indices to start at 1 or 0 too. Thanks in advance.

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• data ownership and performance

  - by Ami

  We're designing a new application and we ran into some architectural question when thinking about data ownership. we broke down the system into components, for example Customer and Order. each of this component/module is responsible for a specific business domain, i.e. Customer deals with CRUD of customers and business process centered around customers (Register a n new customer, block customer account, etc.). each module is the owner of a set of database tables, and only that module may access them. if another module needs data that is owned by another module, it retrieves it by requesting it from that module. so far so good, the question is how to deal with scenarios such as a report that needs to show all the customers and for each customer all his orders? in such a case we need to get all the customers from the Customer module, iterate over them and for each one get all the data from the Order module. performance won't be good...obviously it would be much better to have a stored proc join customers table and orders table, but that would also mean direct access to the data that is owned by another module, creating coupling and dependencies that we wish to avoid. this is a simplified example, we're dealing with an enterprise application with a lot of business entities and relationships, and my goal is to keep it clean and as loosely coupled as possible. I foresee in the future many changes to the data scheme, and possibly splitting the system into several completely separate systems. I wish to have a design that would allow this to be done in a relatively easy way. Thanks!

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• List all foreign key constraints that refer to a particular column in a specific table

  - by Sid

  I would like to see a list of all the tables and columns that refer (either directly or indirectly) a specific column in the 'main' table via a foreign key constraint that has the ON DELETE=CASCADE setting missing. The tricky part is that there would be an indirect relationships buried across up to 5 levels deep. (example: ... great-grandchild- FK3 = grandchild = FK2 = child = FK1 = main table). We need to dig up the leaf tables-columns, not just the very 1st level. The 'good' part about this is that execution speed isn't of concern, it'll be run on a backup copy of the production db to fix any relational issues for the future. I did SELECT * FROM sys.foreign_keys but that gives me the name of the constraint - not the names of the child-parent tables and the columns in the relationship (the juicy bits). Plus the previous designer used short, non-descriptive/random names for the FK constraints, unlike our practice below The way we're adding constraints into SQL Server: ALTER TABLE [dbo].[UserEmailPrefs] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK_UserEmailPrefs_UserMasterTable_UserId] FOREIGN KEY([UserId]) REFERENCES [dbo].[UserMasterTable] ([UserId]) ON DELETE CASCADE GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[UserEmailPrefs] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK_UserEmailPrefs_UserMasterTable_UserId] GO The comments in this SO question inpire this question.

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• Website. VoteUp or VoteDown Videos. How to restrict users voting multiple times?

  - by DJDonaL3000

  Im working on a website (html,css,javascript, ajax, php,mysql), and I want to restrict the number of times a particular user votes for a particular video. Its similar to the YouTube system where you can voteUp or voteDown a particular video. Each vote involves adding a row to the video.votes table, which logs the time, vote direction(up or down), the client IPaddress( using PHP: $ip = $_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR']; ), and of course the ID of the video in question. Adding votes is as simple as; (pseudocode): Javascript:onClick( vote( a,b,c,d ) ), which passes variables to PHP insertion script via ajax, and finally we replace the voteing buttons with a "Thank You For Voting" message. THE PROBLEM: If you reload/refresh the page after voting, you can vote again, and again, and again, you get the point. MY QUESTION: How do you limit the amount of times a particular user votes for a particular video?? MY THOUGHTS: Do you use cookies, and add a new cookie with the id of the video. And check for a cookie before you insert a new vote.? OR Before you insert the vote, do you use the IPaddress and the videoID to see if this same user(IP) has voted for this same video(vidID) in the past 24hrs(mktime), and either allow or dissallow the voteInsertion based on this query? OR Do you just not care? Take the assumption that most users are sane, and have better things to do than refresh pages and vote repeatedly.?? Any suggestions or ideas welcome.

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• Does the managed main UI thread stay on the same (unmanaged) Operation System thread?

  - by Daniel Rose

  I am creating a managed WPF UI front-end to a legacy Win32-application. The WPF front-end is the executable; as part of its startup routines I start the legacy app as a DLL in a second thread. Any UI-operation (including CreateWindowsEx, etc.) by the legacy app is invoked back on the main UI-thread. As part of the shutdown process of the app I want to clean up properly. Among other things, I want to call DestroyWindow on all unmanaged windows, so they can properly clean themselves up. Thus, during shutdown I use EnumWindows to try to find all my unmanaged windows. Then I call DestroyWindow one the list I generate. These run on the main UI-thread. After this background knowledge, on to my actual question: In the enumeration procedure of EnumWindows, I have to check if one of the returned top-level windows is one of my unmanaged windows. I do this by calling GetWindowThreadProcessId to get the process id and thread id of the window's creator. I can compare the process id with Process.GetCurrentProcess().Id to check if my app created it. For additional security, I also want to see if my main UI-thread created the window. However, the returned thread id is the OS's ThreadId (which is different than the managed thread id). As explained in this question, the CLR reserves the right to re-schedule the managed thread to different OS threads. Can I rely on the CLR to be "smart enough" to never do this for the main UI thread (due to thread-affinity of the UI)? Then I could call GetCurrentThreadId to get the main UI-thread's unmanaged thread id for comparison.

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• Is there a way to specify a per-host deploy_to path with Capistrano?

  - by Chad Johnson

  I have searched and searched and asked a question already and have not received a clear answer. I have the following deploy script (snippet): set :application, "testapplication" set :repository, "ssh://domain.com//srv/hg/#{application}" set :scm, :mercurial set :deploy_to, "/srv/www/#{application}" role :web, "domain1.com", "domain2.com" role :app, "domain1.com", "domain2.com" role :db, "domain1.com", :primary => true, :norelease => true role :db, "domain2.com", :norelease => true As you see, I have set deploy_to to a specific path. And, I also have specified multiple web servers. However, each web server should have a different deployment path. I want to be able to run "cap deploy" and deploy to all hosts in one shot. I am NOT trying to deploy to staging and then to production. This is all production. My question is: how exactly do I specify a path per server? I have read the "Roles" documentation for Capistrano, and this is unclear. Can someone please post a deploy file example? I have read the documentation, and it is unclear how to do this. Does anyone know? Am I crazy? Am I thinking of this wrong or something? No answers anywhere online. Nowhere. Nothing. Please, someone help.

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• Facebook Connect: Permissions Error [200] using "stream.publish" with PHP

  - by Sarah

  Hi all, I've been implementing Facebook Connect into a site and am using both the PHP API, to allow me to automatically post data to a user's wall, as well as the JS API, for manual posting, permissions dialogs, etc. When the user uses the manual method it works 100%...the popups are displayed correctly, and the data gets posted to their wall properly. However, when I try to use the PHP API I am getting inconsistencies. When I try posting automatically using the PHP API using one account it works perfect, every time. But for some other accounts it never works, always returning "Permissions error." The error code is 200, and I've checked the Facebook API documentation and it's pretty vague, saying only "Permissions error. The application does not have permission to perform this action." But that's not true, since it works on some accounts and doesn't work on others. First, I've made sure that the users in question have enabled the extended permission "publish_stream" and that the manual method using the JS API works, so it doesn't seem to be a problem with those specific permissions. There are no apparent differences between the Facebook accounts I've used. So my question is has anyone run into this problem and found a solution to it? Is there some sort of other permission setting that users must enable for this to work? I've been searching Google and these forums but have not found any solution. The request I am sending is: (Note: The content/image url/link url are not the actual data I use) $attachment = array( 'caption' => '{*actor*} commented on <title> "<comment>"', 'media' => array( array( 'type' => 'image', 'src' => 'http://www.test.com/image.jpg', 'href' => 'http://www.test.com' ) ) ); $Facebook->api_client->stream_publish('', $attachment); Thanks, Sarah

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• Trying to create a group of button sprites

  - by user1449653

  Good day, I have like 15 images I need to be buttons. I have buttons working with a Box() (Box - looks like this) class Box(pygame.sprite.Sprite): def __init__(self): pygame.sprite.Sprite.__init__(self) self.image = pygame.Surface((35, 30)) self.image = self.image.convert() self.image.fill((255, 0, 0)) self.rect = self.image.get_rect() self.rect.centerx = 25 self.rect.centery = 505 self.dx = 10 self.dy = 10 I am trying to make the buttons work with image sprites. So I attempted to copy the class style of the box and do the same for my Icons.. code looks like this... class Icons(pygame.sprite.Sprite): def __init__(self): pygame.sprite.Sprite.__init__(self) self.image = pygame.image.load("images/airbrushIC.gif").convert() self.rect = self.image.get_rect() self.rect.x = 25 self.rect.y = 550 the code in the main() rect = image.get_rect() rect.x = 25 rect.y = 550 ic1 = Icons((screen.get_rect().x, screen.get_rect().y)) screen.blit(ic1.image, ic1.rect) pygame.display.update() This code produces a positional (accepts 1 argument but 2 are there) error or an image is not referenced error (inside the Icon class). I'm unsure if this is the right way to go about this anyways.. I know for sure that I need to load all the images (as sprites)... store them in an array... and then have my mouse check if it is clicking one of the items in the array using a for loop. Thanks. EDIT QUESTION 2: class Icons(pygame.sprite.Sprite): def init(self, *args): pygame.sprite.Sprite.init(self, *args) self.image = pygame.image.load("images/airbrushIC.gif").convert() self.rect = self.image.get_rect() ic1 = self.image self.rect.x = 10 self.rect.y = 490 self.image = pygame.image.load("images/fillIC.gif").convert() self.rect = self.image.get_rect() ic2 = self.image self.rect.x = 10 self.rect.y = 540 Thanks to your help I got the Icons class loading ONE image. Its not loading both. Obviously because its being overwritten by the second one. It seems that "class" for this purpose isn't what I need. Which begs the question how I make sprites outside of a class.. If there is a way to make the class work please let me know.

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• PHP sleep() excution sequence while echoeing.

  - by Babiker

  I have the following: echo time()."<br>"; sleep(1); echo time()."<br>"; sleep(1); echo time()."<br>"; I wrote the preceding code with intention to echo time()."<br>" ln 1,echo time()."<br>" ln 4, wait a final second and then echo the final time()."<br>". Altough the time bieng echoed is correct when it comes to the intervals between time(), all echo functions are echoeing after the total of the waiting period/parameters in each sleep function. This is how the script runs: Excutes. Waits 2 secons. echoes 1275540664 1275540665 1275540666 Notice the correct incrementation in time() being echoed. My question is why is it not behaving like expected to where it echoes, waits a second, echoes again, waits one final second and then echos the last parameter? I know my question is a little confusing due to my wording, but i will try my hardest to answer any comments regarding this, thanks.

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• How to accommodate for the next iPhones totally different screen resolution?

  - by mystify

  This is a programming question! Read on before you vote to close! According to Gizmodo, the next iPhone will have a new screen resolution: The 3.5-inch screen has a resolution of 960?×?640 pixels This little detail affects our apps in a heavy way. Most of the demo apps on the net have one thing in common: They position views in the believe that the screen has a fixed size of 320 x 480 pixels. So what most -if not all- developers do is: They designed everything in such a way, that a touchable area is -for example- 50 x 50 pixels big. Just enough to tap it. Things have been positioned relative to the upper left, to reach a specific position on screen - let's say the center, or somewhere at the bottom. So the big question is: How will the developers compensate their layout and graphics? Are there already solutions which can be used to calculate coordinates and sizes in a normalized manner, which then appear to be exactly the same when viewing them on a screen of any resolution, assuming at least that the aspect ration won't change? This is community wiki. Just add anything that you think is relevant to this huge problem (constant screen res was one of the main reasons why I didn't go for Android!!).

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• Angular throws "Error: Invalid argument." in IE

  - by przno

  I have a directive which takes element's text and places wbr elements after every 10th character. I'm using it for example on table cells with long text (e.g. URLs), so it does not span over the table. Code of the directive: myApp.directive('myWbr', function ($interpolate) { return { restrict: 'A', link: function (scope, element, attrs) { // get the interpolated text of HTML element var expression = $interpolate(element.text()); // get new text, which has <wbr> element on every 10th position var addWbr = function (inputText) { var newText = ''; for (var i = 0; i < inputText.length; i++) { if ((i !== 0) && (i % 10 === 0)) newText += '<wbr>'; // no end tag newText += inputText[i]; } return newText; }; scope.$watch(function (scope) { // replace element's content with the new one, which contains <wbr>s element.html(addWbr(expression(scope))); }); } }; }); Works fine except in IE (I have tried IE8 and IE9), where it throws an error to the console: Error: Invalid argument. Here is jsFiddle, when clicking on the button you can see the error in console. So obvious question: why is the error there, what is the source of it, and why only in IE? (Bonus question: how can I make IE dev tools to tell me more about error, like the line from source code, because it took me some time to locate it, Error: Invalid argument. does not tell much about the origin.) P.S.: I know IE does not know the wbr at all, but that is not the issue. Edit: in my real application I have re-written the directive to not to look on element's text and modify that, but rather pass the input text via attribute, and works fine now in all browsers. But I'm still curious why the original solution was giving that error in IE, thus starting the bounty.

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• Passing user_id, site_id, and question_id to same table on create...

  - by bgadoci

  I can't seem to figure out how to do this. I am trying to pass four different variables to a single table. To be more specific I am trying to create a "like" in a likes table that also captures the site_id (like an answer), user_id, and the question_id. Here is the set up. class Like < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :site belongs_to :user belongs_to :question end I will spare you the reverse, has_many associations but they are there. Here is the likes controller where I think the problem is. class LikesController < ApplicationController def create @user = current_user @site = Site.find(params[:site_id]) @like = @site.likes.create!(params[:like]) @like.user = current_user @like.save respond_to do |format| format.html { redirect_to @site} format.js end end end This code successfully passes the like and site_id but after many different variations of trying I can't get it to pass the question id. Here is my form: /views/sites/_site.html.erb (though the partial is being displayed in the /views/questions/show.html.erb file). <% remote_form_for [site, Like.new] do |f| %> <%= f.hidden_field :site_name, :value => "#{site.name}" %> <%= f.hidden_field :ip_address, :value => "#{request.remote_ip}" %> <%= f.hidden_field :like, :value => "1" %> <%= submit_tag "^" , :class => 'voteup' %> <% end %>

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