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  • ASP.NET MVC View ReRenders Part of Itself

    - by Jason
    In all my years of .NET programming I have not run across a bug as weird as this one. I discovered the problem because some elements on the page were getting double-bound by jQuery. After some (ridiculous) debugging, I finally discovered that once the view is completely done rendering itself and all its children partial views, it goes back to an arbitrary yet consistent location and re-renders itself. I have been pulling my hair out about this for two days now and I simply cannot get it to render itself only once! For lack of any better debugging idea, I've painstakingly added logging tracers throughout the HTML just so I can pin down what may be causing this. For instance, this code ($log just logs to the console): ... <script type="text/javascript">var x = 0; $log('1');</script> <div id="new-ad-form"> <script type="text/javascript">x++;$log('1.5', x);</script> ... will yield ... <--- this happens before this snippet 1 1.5 1 ... 10 <--- bottom of my form, after snippet 1.5 2 <--- beginning of part that runs again! ... 9 <--- this happens after this snippet I've searched my codebase high and low, but there is NOTHING that says that it should re-render part of a page. I'm wondering if the jQueryUI has anything to do with it, as #new-ad-form is the container for a jQueryUI dialog box. If this is potentially the case, here's my init code for that: $('#new-ad-form').dialog({ autoOpen: false, modal: true, width: 470, title: 'Create A New Ad', position: ['center', 35], close: AdEditor.reset });

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  • .NET WebBrowser control with Adobe SVG Viewer

    I'm having problems with SVG files loading in a .NET 2.0 WebBrowser control. If I create a new WinForms application project, drag a WebBrowser control and a button onto the Form1.cs design surface, and add a line to the button's on-click handler to set the Url property of the WebBrowser control to an SVG file, I get two IE script errors at runtime (as in, the dialog you get when there is a Javascript problem). The only line of code I'm writing is therefore: webBrowser1.Url = new Uri(@"http://wiki.allegro.cc/pub/f/fb/Grozilla.svg"); This SVG file loads fine if I browse directly to the link with IE; the errors I get via my test app are: line 2, char 1, error: Invalid character, followed by line 1, char 1, error: Object expected (assuming I answer yes to the prompt to 'continue running scripts on this page'). I'm using IE 7.0.5730.13, Adobe SVG Viewer 3.03 build 94, Visual Studio 2008. Can anyone replicate this? Has anyone seen it/got any idea how to fix it? (edit: previously setting the URL in the constructor for the purposes of the example, but this raised the question of whether or not the control had finished initialising, so have changed the example to use a button - the problem still occurs. This bug originally appeared in production code so the example program I wrote was an attempt to isolate the issue and reproduce it as simply as possible.) (edit 2: having tested on several different machines, this problems seems to be related to IE7 - run IE6, and everything works fine.)

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  • Fixing a multi-threaded pycurl crash.

    - by Rook
    If I run pycurl in a single thread everything works great. If I run pycurl in 2 threads python will access violate. The first thing I did was report the problem to pycurl, but the project died about 3 years ago so I'm not holding my breath. My (hackish) solution is to build a 2nd version of pycurl called "pycurl_thread" which will only be used by the 2nd thread. I downloaded the pycurl module from sourceforge and I made a total of 4 line changes. But python is still crashing. My guess is that even though this is a module with a different name (import pycurl_thread), its still sharing memory with the original module (import pycurl). How should I solve this problem? Changes in pycurl.c: initpycurl(void) to initpycurl_thread(void) and m = Py_InitModule3("pycurl", curl_methods, module_doc); to m = Py_InitModule3("pycurl_thread", curl_methods, module_doc); Changes in setup.py: PACKAGE = "pycurl" PY_PACKAGE = "curl" to PACKAGE = "pycurl_thread" PY_PACKAGE = "curl_thread" Here is the seg fault i'm getting. This is happening within the C function do_curl_perform(). *** longjmp causes uninitialized stack frame ***: python2.7 terminated ======= Backtrace: ========= /lib/libc.so.6(__fortify_fail+0x37)[0x7f209421b537] /lib/libc.so.6(+0xff4c9)[0x7f209421b4c9] /lib/libc.so.6(__longjmp_chk+0x33)[0x7f209421b433] /usr/lib/libcurl.so.4(+0xe3a5)[0x7f20931da3a5] /lib/libpthread.so.0(+0xfb40)[0x7f209532eb40] /lib/libc.so.6(__poll+0x53)[0x7f20941f6203] /usr/lib/libcurl.so.4(Curl_socket_ready+0x116)[0x7f2093208876] /usr/lib/libcurl.so.4(+0x2faec)[0x7f20931fbaec] /usr/local/lib/python2.7/dist-packages/pycurl.so(+0x892b)[0x7f209342c92b] python2.7(PyEval_EvalFrameEx+0x58a1)[0x4adf81] python2.7(PyEval_EvalCodeEx+0x891)[0x4af7c1] python2.7(PyEval_EvalFrameEx+0x538b)[0x4ada6b] python2.7(PyEval_EvalFrameEx+0x65f9)[0x4aecd9]

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  • How to get rid of Internet Explorer 7 reloading on fragment change

    - by Philippe Beaudoin
    I have an anchor <a href="#!admin">General</a> somewhere in my page. Clicking this in any browser but IE7 (haven't tried IE6) causes no page reload, as expected. However, under IE7 it reloads the page as soon as it's clicked. The strangest thing is that I have the exact same anchor elsewhere in the page and it causes no reload. The only difference I can see between these is a slight difference in style, and the fact that the faulty anchor is deeply nested in divs, where the other is closer to the top. My questions: Is this a known bug with IE7? If so, is there any work around? If not, any clue as to what might be going wrong? Edit: If you want to see this yourself, go to http://filouguestbook.appspot.com/#!main sign-in with a google account and click on the Settings link the the top bar. Switch between the General and Accounts pages, the app will reload. From the Accounts page, click on Settings in the top bar, this will switch tab but not reload!

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  • No JSON object could be decoded - RPC POST call

    - by user1307067
    var body = JSON.stringify(params); // Create an XMLHttpRequest 'POST' request w/ an optional callback handler req.open('POST', '/rpc', async); req.setRequestHeader("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); req.setRequestHeader("Content-length", body.length); req.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); if (async) { req.onreadystatechange = function() { if(req.readyState == 4 && req.status == 200) { var response = null; try { response = JSON.parse(req.responseText); } catch (e) { response = req.responseText; } callback(response); } }; } // Make the actual request req.send(body); ---- on the server side ---- class RPCHandler(BaseHandler): '''@user_required''' def post(self): RPCmethods = ("UpdateScenario", "DeleteScenario") logging.info(u'body ' + self.request.body) args = simplejson.loads(self.request.body) ---- Get the following error on the server logs body %5B%22UpdateScenario%22%2C%22c%22%2C%224.5%22%2C%2230frm%22%2C%22Refinance%22%2C%22100000%22%2C%22740%22%2C%2294538%22%2C%2250000%22%2C%22owner%22%2C%22sfr%22%2C%22Fremont%22%2C%22CA%22%5D= No JSON object could be decoded: line 1 column 0 (char 0): Traceback (most recent call last): File "/base/python_runtime/python_lib/versions/1/google/appengine/ext/webapp/_webapp25.py", line 703, in call handler.post(*groups) File "/base/data/home/apps/s~mortgageratealert-staging/1.357912751535215625/main.py", line 418, in post args = json.loads(self.request.body) File "/base/python_runtime/python_lib/versions/1/simplejson/init.py", line 388, in loads return _default_decoder.decode(s) File "/base/python_runtime/python_lib/versions/1/simplejson/decoder.py", line 402, in decode obj, end = self.raw_decode(s, idx=_w(s, 0).end()) File "/base/python_runtime/python_lib/versions/1/simplejson/decoder.py", line 420, in raw_decode raise JSONDecodeError("No JSON object could be decoded", s, idx) JSONDecodeError: No JSON object could be decoded: line 1 column 0 (char 0) --- firebug shows the following --- Parameters application/x-www-form-urlencoded ["UpdateScenario","c","4.... Source ["UpdateScenario","c","4.5","30frm","Refinance","100000","740","94538","50000","owner","sfr","Fremont","CA"] Based on the firebug report and also the logs shows self.request.body as anticipated. However simplejson load doesn't like it. Please help!

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  • EF Forced Concurrency Checks

    - by Imran
    Hi, I have an issue with EF 4.0 that I hope someone can help with. I currently have an entity that I want to update in a last in wins fashion (i.e. ignore concurrency checks and just overwrite whats in the db with what is submitted). It seems Entity Framework not only includes the primary key of the entity in the where clause of the generated sql, but also any foreign key fields. This is annoying as it means that I don't get true last in wins semantics and need to know what value the fk field had before the update or I get a concurrency exception. I am aware that this can be short circuited by including a foreign key field as well as the navigation property on the entity. I would like to avoid this if possible as it's not a very clean solution. I was just wondering if there was any other way to override this behaviour? It seems like more of a bug than a feature. I have no problem with ef doing concurrency checks if I instruct it to do so but not being able to bypass concurrency completely is a bit of a hindrance as there are many valid scenarios where this is not needed

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  • Enum and Dictionary<Enum, Action>

    - by Selcuk
    I hope I can explain my problem in a way that it's clear for everyone. We need your suggestions on this. We have an Enum Type which has more than 15 constants defined. We receive a report from a web service and translate its one column into this Enum type. And based on what we receive from that web service, we run specific functions using Dictionary Why am I asking for ideas? Let's say 3 of these Enum contants meet specific functions in our Dictionary but the rest use the same function. So, is there a way to add them into our Dictionary in a better way rather than adding them one by one? I also want to keep this structure because when it's time, we might have specific functions in the future for the ones that I described as "the rest". To be more clear here's an example what we're trying to do: Enum: public enum Reason{ ReasonA, ReasonB, ReasonC, ReasonD, ReasonE, ReasonF, ReasonG, ReasonH, ReasonI, ReasonJ, ReasonK } Defining our Dictionary: public Dictionary<Reason, Action<CustomClassObj, string>> ReasonHandlers = new Dictionary<Reason, Action<CustomClassObj, string>>{ { Reason.ReasonA, HandleReasonA }, { Reason.ReasonB, HandleReasonB }, { Reason.ReasonC, HandleReasonC }, { Reason.ReasonD, HandleReasonGeneral }, { Reason.ReasonE, HandleReasonGeneral }, { Reason.ReasonF, HandleReasonGeneral }, { Reason.ReasonG, HandleReasonGeneral }, { Reason.ReasonH, HandleReasonGeneral }, { Reason.ReasonI, HandleReasonGeneral }, { Reason.ReasonJ, HandleReasonGeneral }, { Reason.ReasonK, HandleReasonGeneral } }; So basically what I'm asking is, is there a way to add Reason, Function pair more intelligently? Because as you can see after ReasonC, all other reasons use the same function. Thank you for your suggestions.

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  • Practical refactoring using unit tests

    - by awhite
    Having just read the first four chapters of Refactoring: Improving the Design of Existing Code, I embarked on my first refactoring and almost immediately came to a roadblock. It stems from the requirement that before you begin refactoring, you should put unit tests around the legacy code. That allows you to be sure your refactoring didn't change what the original code did (only how it did it). So my first question is this: how do I unit-test a method in legacy code? How can I put a unit test around a 500 line (if I'm lucky) method that doesn't do just one task? It seems to me that I would have to refactor my legacy code just to make it unit-testable. Does anyone have any experience refactoring using unit tests? And, if so, do you have any practical examples you can share with me? My second question is somewhat hard to explain. Here's an example: I want to refactor a legacy method that populates an object from a database record. Wouldn't I have to write a unit test that compares an object retrieved using the old method, with an object retrieved using my refactored method? Otherwise, how would I know that my refactored method produces the same results as the old method? If that is true, then how long do I leave the old deprecated method in the source code? Do I just whack it after I test a few different records? Or, do I need to keep it around for a while in case I encounter a bug in my refactored code? Lastly, since a couple people have asked...the legacy code was originally written in VB6 and then ported to VB.NET with minimal architecture changes.

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  • Apple's Sample App TopSongs has 26 Leaks, Ugh!

    - by RoLYroLLs
    Hey all, I've been building an app for a client and part of it uses Apple's TopSongs sample app to download data on another thread. I finally got enough done to start testing that part and found 1000 leaks!!! A closer look at the leaks made me check TopSongs for leaks, since none of the my methods were in leaks report. Running TopSongs returned 26 leaks. Not quite sure how to fix them, or if they are part of some library from Apple. I bet you're asking if it has 26, why do you have 1000? Well, I use their sample to make roughly 48 calls to webservices to get all the information needed on initial install (48 calls x 26 leaks = 1248 leaks!!). Later it makes at least 12 calls + 4 to check for updated information on other sections of the app. Can't do a thing about it, can't make one call, or less calls, please don't comment about this part. I seen people respond to posts that aren't necessarily answering the question the user originally posted, which in this case is has anyone tried patching up the leaks, if they are patchable, or is this a bug in Apple's libraries? Thanks so much.

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  • Using the Apple Scripting bridge with Mail to send an attachment causes the message background to go

    - by Naym
    Hello, When I use the Apple Scripting Bridge to send a message with an attachment the background of the message is set to black which is a problem because the text is also black. The code in question is: MailApplication *mail = [SBApplication applicationWithBundleIdentifier:@"com.apple.Mail"]; /* create a new outgoing message object */ MailOutgoingMessage *emailMessage = [[[mail classForScriptingClass:@"outgoing message"] alloc] initWithProperties: [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: emailSubject, @"subject", [self composeEmailBody], @"content", nil]]; /* add the object to the mail app */ [[mail outgoingMessages] addObject: emailMessage]; /* set the sender, show the message */ emailMessage.sender = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"%@ <%@>",[[[mail accounts] objectAtIndex:playerOptions.mailAccount] fullName],[[[[mail accounts] objectAtIndex:playerOptions.mailAccount] emailAddresses] objectAtIndex:0]]; emailMessage.visible = YES; /* create a new recipient and add it to the recipients list */ MailToRecipient *theRecipient = [[[mail classForScriptingClass:@"to recipient"] alloc] initWithProperties: [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: opponentEmail, @"address", nil]]; [emailMessage.toRecipients addObject: theRecipient]; /* add an attachment, if one was specified */ if ( [playerInfo.gameFile length] > 0 ) { /* create an attachment object */ MailAttachment *theAttachment = [[[mail classForScriptingClass:@"attachment"] alloc] initWithProperties: [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys: playerInfo.gameFile, @"fileName", nil]]; /* add it to the list of attachments */ [[emailMessage.content attachments] addObject: theAttachment]; } /* send the message */ [emailMessage send]; The actual change to the background colour occurs on the second last line, which is: [[emailMessage.content attachments] addObject: theAttachment]; The code sections above are essentially lifted from the SBSendMail example code from Apple. At this stage I've really only made the changes necessary to integrate with the data from my application. If I build and run the SBSendMail example after freshly downloading it from Apple the message background is also changed to black with execution of the same line. It does not appear to matter which type of file is attached, where it is located, or on which computer or operating system is used. This could be a bug in Apple's scripting bridge but has anyone come across this problem and found a solution? ALternatively does anyone know if the background colour of a MailOutgoingMessage instance can be changed with the scripting bridge? Thanks for any assistance with this, Naym.

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  • Strange Behaviour in Swift: constant defined with LET but behaving like a variable defined with VAR

    - by Sam
    Stuck on the below for a day! Any insight would be greatly appreciated. The constant in the first block match0 behaves as expected. The constant defined in the second block does not behave as nicely in the face of a change to its "source": var str = "+y+z*1.0*sum(A1:A3)" if let range0 = str.rangeOfString("^\\+|^\\-|^\\*|^\\/", options: NSStringCompareOptions.RegularExpressionSearch){ let match0 = str[range0] println(match0) //yields "+" - as expexted str.removeRange(range0) println(match0) //yields "+" - as expected str.removeRange(range0) println(match0) //yields "+" - as expected } if let range1 = str.rangeOfString("^\\+|^\\-|^\\*|^\\/", options: NSStringCompareOptions.RegularExpressionSearch){ let match1 = str[range1] println(match1) //yields "+" as expected str.removeRange(range1) println(match1) //!@#$ OMG!!!!!!!!!!! a constant variable has changed! This prints "z" } The following are the options I can see: match1 has somehow obtained a reference to its source instead of being copied by value [Problem: Strings are value types in Swift] match1 has somehow obtained a closure to its source instead of just being a normal constant/variable? [Problem: sounds like science fiction & then why does match0 behave so well?] Could there be a bug in the Swift compiler? [Problem: Experience has taught me that this is very very very rarely the solution to your problem...but it is still in beta]

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  • No expires header

    - by Tom Gullen
    I have the report from YSlow: (no expires) http://static3.scirra.net/avatars/128/40cfdcbd1b1ec1842e199c97c4b85a4a.png (And a lot more similar). In my web.config though, I have: <system.webServer> <staticContent> <clientCache httpExpires="Sun, 29 Mar 2020 00:00:00 GMT" cacheControlMode="UseExpires" /> </staticContent> <caching> <profiles> <add extension=".ashx" policy="CacheForTimePeriod" kernelCachePolicy="DontCache" duration="01:00:00" /> <add extension=".png" policy="CacheUntilChange" kernelCachePolicy="CacheUntilChange" location="Any" /> </profiles> </caching> <rewrite> <rules> <rule name="Avatar"> <match url="avatars/([0-9]+)/(.*).png" /> <action type="Rewrite" url="gravatar.ashx?hash={R:2}&amp;size={R:1}" appendQueryString="false" /> </rule> </rules> </rewrite> Should this not be adding the expires header correctly? My objectives are: Gravatar.ashx fetches image from Gravatar server Server caches result for 1 hour (similar to SO) Expires header is added so client doesn't keep fetching it from my server

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  • Lookup site column not saving/storing metadata for Office 2007 documents?

    - by Greg Hurlman
    I'm having this issue on several server environments. We have a list at the site collection root. There is a site column created as a multi-value lookup on that list's Title field. This site column is used in document libraries in subsites as a required field. When we upload anything but an Office 2007 document, the user is presented with the document metadata fill-in screen (EditForm.aspx?Mode=Upload), the user fills in the appropriate data (including picking a value(s) for this lookup), and clicks "check in" - the document is checked in as expected, with the lookup field's value filled in. With an Office 2007 document, this fails. The user selected values for the lookup field do not ever make it to the server - no errors are thrown, but the field is not saved with the document. We have an event listener on these document libraries, and if we inspect the incoming SPListItem on the event listener method before a single line of our code has run, we see that the value for the lookup field is null. It smells like a SharePoint bug to me - but before I go calling Microsoft, has anyone seen this & worked around it? Edit: the only entry I see in the SP trace logs relating to the problem: CMS/Publishing/8ztg/Medium/Got List Item Version, but item was null

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  • Viewing namespaced global variables in Visual Studio debugger?

    - by Chris
    When debugging a non-managed C++ project in Visual Studio 2008, I occasionally want to see the value of a global variable. We don't have a lot of these but those that are there all declared within a namespace called 'global'. e.g. namespace global { int foo; bool bar; ... } The problem is that when the code is stopped at a breakpoint, the default debugging tooltip (from pointing at the variable name) and quickwatch (shift-f9 on the variable name) don't take the namespace into consideration and hence won't work. So for example I can point at 'foo' and nothing comes up. If I shift-f9 on foo, it will bring up the quickwatch, which then says 'CXX0017: Error: symbol "foo" not found'. I can get around that by manually editing the variable name in the quickwatch window to prefix it with "global::" (which is cumbersome considering you have to do it each time you want to quickwatch), but there is no fix for the tooltip that I can work out. Setting the 'default namespace' of the project properties doesn't help. How can I tell the VS debugger to use the namespace that it already knows the variable is declared in (since it has the declaration right there), or, alternatively, tell it a default namespace to look for variables in if it doesn't find them? My google-fu has failed to find an answer. This report lists the same problem, with MS saying it's "by design", but even so I am hoping there is some way to work around it (perhaps with clever use of autoexp.dat?)

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  • Class 'org.springframework.http.converter.ResourceHttpMessageConverter' not found - how to correct?

    - by Ash Kim
    Eclipse STS is reporting I have problem with my spring project. It's a fresh project generated from the Spring Web MVC Project Template (File-New-Spring Template Project-Spring Web MVC ). When I create the project it has no problems - it's only once I modify the pom (by adding the hibernate dependencies) that STS then picks up the spring problem. Strangely if I revert the pom the problem remains. Also I can run the project on a spring tc server and all works correctly. Any ideas how I can satisfy this problem report? "Class 'org.springframework.http.converter.ResourceHttpMessageConverter' not found" mvc-config.xml /src/main/webapp/WEB-INF/spring line 9 Spring Beans Problem mvc-config.xml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:mvc="http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc" xsi:schemaLocation=" http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans-3.0.xsd http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc http://www.springframework.org/schema/mvc/spring-mvc-3.0.xsd"> <mvc:annotation-driven /> <!-- <= PROBLEMATIC LINE REPORTED BY STS --> <!-- Resolves view names to protected .jsp resources within the /WEB-INF/views directory --> <bean class="org.springframework.web.servlet.view.InternalResourceViewResolver"> <property name="prefix" value="/WEB-INF/views/"/> <property name="suffix" value=".jsp"/> </bean> </beans>

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  • In C#, are event handler arguments contravariant?

    - by Roger Lipscombe
    If I have a class that raises an event, with (e.g.) FrobbingEventArgs, am I allowed to handle it with a method that takes EventArgs? Here's some code: class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Frobber frobber = new Frobber(); frobber.Frobbing += FrobberOnFrobbing; frobber.Frob(); } private static void FrobberOnFrobbing(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Do something interesting. Note that the parameter is 'EventArgs'. } } internal class Frobber { public event EventHandler<FrobbingEventArgs> Frobbing; public event EventHandler<FrobbedEventArgs> Frobbed; public void Frob() { OnFrobbing(); // Frob. OnFrobbed(); } private void OnFrobbing() { var handler = Frobbing; if (handler != null) handler(this, new FrobbingEventArgs()); } private void OnFrobbed() { var handler = Frobbed; if (handler != null) handler(this, new FrobbedEventArgs()); } } internal class FrobbedEventArgs : EventArgs { } internal class FrobbingEventArgs : EventArgs { } The reason I ask is that ReSharper seems to have a problem with (what looks like) the equivalent in XAML, and I'm wondering if it's a bug in ReSharper, or a mistake in my understanding of C#.

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  • Static library woes in iPhone 3.x with categories and C libraries

    - by hgpc
    I have a static library (let's call it S) that uses a category (NSData+Base64 from MGTwitterEngine) and a C library (MiniZip wrapped by ZipArchive). This static library is used in an iPhone 3.x project (let's call it A). To be able to use the MiniZip library I included its files in project A as well as the static library S. If not I get compilation errors. Project A works fine on the simulator. When I run it on the device, I get unrecognized selector errors when the category is used. As pointed out here, it seems there's a linker bug that affects categories in iPhone 3.x (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1147676/categories-in-static-library-for-iphone-device-3-0). The workaround is to add -all_load to the Other Linker Flags of the project that references the static library. However, if I do this then I get duplicate symbol errors because I included the MiniZip libraries in project A. A workaround is to include the category files in project A as well. If I do this, project A works well in the device, but fails to build on the simulator because of duplicate symbol errors. How should I set up project A to make it work on the simulator and the device with the same configuration?

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  • Mysql - What's wrong with the query...?

    - by SpikETidE
    Hi everybody.... I am trying to query a database to find the following If a customer searches for a hotel in a city between dates A and B, find and return the hotels in which rooms are free between the two dates. There will be more than one room in each room type(i.e. 5 Rooms in type A, 10 rooms in Type B etc) and we have to query the db to find only those hotels in which there is atleast one room free in atleast one type. This is my table structure.... **Structure for table 'reservations'** reservation_id hotel_id room_id customer_id payment_id no_of_rooms check_in_date check_out_date reservation_date **Structure for table 'hotels'** hotel_id hotel_name hotel_description hotel_address hotel_location hotel_country hotel_city hotel_type hotel_stars hotel_image hotel_deleted **Structure for table 'rooms'** room_id hotel_id room_name max_persons total_rooms room_price room_image agent_commision room_facilities service_tax vat city_tax room_description room_deleted And this is my query $city_search = '15'; $check_in_date = '29-03-2010'; $check_out_date = '31-03-2010'; $dateFormat_check_in = "DATE_FORMAT('$reservations.check_in_date','%d-%m-%Y')"; $dateFormat_check_out = "DATE_FORMAT('$reservations.check_out_date','%d-%m-%Y')"; $dateCheck = "$dateFormat_check_in >= '$check_in_date' AND $dateFormat_check_out <= '$check_out_date'"; $query = "SELECT $rooms.room_id, $rooms.room_name, $rooms.max_persons, $rooms.room_price, $hotels.hotel_id, $hotels.hotel_name, $hotels.hotel_stars, $hotels.hotel_type FROM $hotels,$rooms,$reservations WHERE $hotels.hotel_city = '$city_search' AND $hotels.hotel_id = $rooms.hotel_id AND $hotels.hotel_deleted = '0' AND $rooms.room_deleted = '0' AND $rooms.total_rooms - (SELECT SUM($reservations.no_of_rooms) as tot FROM $reservations WHERE $dateCheck GROUP BY $reservations.room_id) > '0'"; The number of rooms already reserved in each room type in each hotel will be stored in the reservations table... The thing is the query doesn't return any result at all...even though it should if i calculate it myself manually... I tried running the sub-query alone and i don't get any result... And i have lost quite some amount of hair trying to de-bug this query from yesterday... What's wrong with this...? Or is there a better way to do what i mentioned above...? Thanks for your time... Edit : Code edited to remove an bud... thanks to

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  • jQuery UI + Gmaps = Problems (for me at least) HELP!!

    - by Luis
    Hi there! I started using jQuery as soon as I found out about it, it is very powerfull but I started struggling when I tried to load Gmaps api into the tabs jQuery UI brings. Strangly enough in IE 6,7,8 it works fine, but in Firefox, Safari (I'm using mac but tested it in windows and they both give the same problems) the map doesn't load entirely. When I click on the tab where the map loads in, only part of the map is fully operational, the rest is grey and not clickable. Please take a look at the link below and click the third tab in firefox/safari and IE and you will see the problem. http://movewithusoverseas.com/index-new.php?z=product-info.html&pid=1 I don't know if it is a bug in the jQuery UI code or I'm doing something wrong. If I load the map out of the tabs the map is shown OK. I'm fighting with this problem for a week and a half... any help will be much appreciated. Thanks in advance. Luis

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  • Having an issue with Nullable MySQL columns in SubSonic 3.0 templates

    - by omegawkd
    Looking at this line in the Settings.ttinclude string CheckNullable(Column col){ string result=""; if(col.IsNullable && col.SysType !="byte[]" && col.SysType !="string") result="?"; return result; } It describes how it determines if the column is nullable based on requirements and returns either "" or "?" to the generated code. Now I'm not too familiar with the ? nullable type operator but from what I can see a cast is required. For instance, if I have a nullable integer MySQL column and I generate the code using the default template files it returns a line similar to this: int? _User_ID; When trying to compile the project I get the error: Cannot implicitly convert type 'int?' to 'int'. An explicit conversion exists (are you missing a cast?) I checked teh Settings files for the other database types and they all seems to have the same routine. So my question is, is this behaviour expected or is this a bug? I need to solve it one way or the other before I can procede. Thanks for your help.

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  • How Can I Create Reports in a Custom C#.NET Windows Application? - General Question

    - by user311509
    Assume i have a custom Windows application written in C#. This application has only the following functionalists, add, edit, delete and view. For example, a user can add a sale, change sales record, delete a sale record or view the whole sales record. I need to add some reporting functionalists e.g. i want a user to print the sales of a certain customer from 2008 to 2009 into pdf, what all products a certain customer has purchased from us and so on. I will only include the basic common report requests that are usually needed in the office. Any other kind of reports that are requested inconsistently, i would do it manually from my side at the back end and send the results manually to the requester. What i would do is: If a user wants more info of a certain customer, a special window box appears for that customer. This window box will have different controls that allows user to request more info such as, print customer purchases from ..... to ..... (user chooses the dates) and user will view results in pdf or so. Of course, at the back scene i will write an appropriate SQL Query with parameters that meets a certain function. Is this how it should be done? I have heard about SQL Reporting, i don't know anything about it yet. I will check it out. Anyhow, your suggestions won't harm. I'm still a student, so i don't have practical experience yet. I hope my question is clear enough. Thank you.

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  • Destroy process-less console windows left by Visual Studio debug sessions

    - by jon hanson
    A known bug with security update KB978037 can occur with Visual Studio 2003 (and 2008) where sometimes if you restart a debugging session on a console app then the console window doesn't get closed even though the owner process no longer exists. The problem is discussed further here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2402875/visual-studio-debug-console-sometimes-stays-open-and-is-impossible-to-close These zombie windows then can not be closed via the Taskbar or via the TaskManager, and typically require a power off/on to get rid of them. Over the period of even a single day you can accumulate quite a few of them, which clog up your TaskBar and are generally annoying. I thought I would knock up a simple C++ Win32 utility to attempt to call DestroyWindow() on these windows by passing the windows handle as a cmd-line argument and converting it to a HWND. I'm converting the handle from a string by parsing it as a DWORD then casting the DWORD to a HWND. This appears to be working as if I call GetWindowInfo() on the handle it succeeds. However calling DestroyWindow() on the handle fails with error 5 (access denied), presumably because the caller process (i.e. my app) doesn't own the window in question. Any ideas as to how I might get rid of the zombie windows, either via the above approach or any other alternative short of rebooting? I'm in a corporate environment so installing/uninstalling updates/service-packs etc isn't an option.

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  • Can iPad/iPhone Touch Points be Wrong Due to Calibration?

    - by Kristopher Johnson
    I have an iPad application that uses the whole screen (that is, UIStatusBarHidden is set true in the Info.plist file). The main window's frame is set to (0, 0, 768, 1024), as is the main view in that frame. The main view has multitouch enabled. The view has code to handle touches: - (void)touchesMoved:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { for (UITouch *touch in touches) { CGPoint location = [touch locationInView:nil]; NSLog(@"touchesMoved at location %@", NSStringFromCGPoint(location)); } } When I run the app in the simulator, it works pretty much as expected. As I move the mouse from one edge of the screen to the other, reported X values go from 0 to 767. Reported Y values go from 20 to 1023, but it is a known issue that the simulator doesn't report touches in the top 20 pixels of the screen, even when there is no status bar. Here's what's weird: When I run the app on an actual iPad, the X values go from 0 to 767 as expected, but reported Y values go from -6 to 1017. The fact that it seems to work properly on the simulator leads me to suspect that real devices' touchscreens are not perfectly calibrated, and mine is simply reporting values six pixels too low. Can anyone verify that this is the case? Otherwise, is there anything else that could account for the Y values being six pixels off from what I expect? (In a few days, I should have a second iPad, so I can test this with another device and compare the results.)

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  • Are dots legal in the name property of an HTML button

    - by justSteve
    a page with a bit of MVC code: <%=Html.SubmitButton("ChooseWebinar.Submit", "Continue to Registration Details")%><br/> that generates an input button where the '.' is embedded in the name: [rendered html] At page load this control (the submit button) is hidden - when one of two different dropdowns registers a value, the button is shown: function toggleChooseWebinarSubmit() { if ($("#ChooseWebinar_RecordedWebinarId").val() || $("#ChooseWebinar_UpcomingWebinarId").val()) { $("#ChooseWebinar_Submit").show(); } else { $("#ChooseWebinar_Submit").hide(); } I've just received a report from an IE8 user who says that after selecting a value in a dropdown, the button is _not displaying. I can't reproduce the condition (i've tried compatibility mode too). Obviously the show/hide is targeting the 'ID' selector but i can't help but wonder about that period in the control's name. Any known issues? - or perhaps the .change is problematic and the toggle's never getting called: $(window).load(function() { toggleChooseWebinarSubmit(); $("#ChooseWebinar_UpcomingWebinarId").change(function() { if ($(this).val()) { $("#ChooseWebinar_RecordedWebinarId").val(""); } toggleChooseWebinarSubmit(); }); $("#ChooseWebinar_RecordedWebinarId").change(function() { if ($(this).val()) { $("#ChooseWebinar_UpcomingWebinarId").val(""); } toggleChooseWebinarSubmit(); }); }); thx

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  • Visual Studio 2010 / ASP.NET MVC / Publish

    - by SevenCentral
    I just did a clean install on Windows 7 x64 Professional with the final release of Visual Studio 2010 Premium. In order to duplicate what I'm experiencing do the following in: Create a new ASP.NET MVC 2 Web Application Right click the project and select Properties On the Web tab, select "Use Local IIS Web Server" Click on Create Virtual Directory Save all Unload the project Edit the project file Change MvcBuildViews to true Save all Reload project Right click the project and select Publish Choose the file system publish method Enter a target location Choose Delete all existing files Select Publish Right click the project Select Publish Each time I do the above I get the following errror: "It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level..." The error originates from obj\debug\package\packagetmp\web.config, relative to the project directory. I can repeat this all day long with any MVC 2 project I've built. In order to fix this problem, I need to set MvcBuildViews to false in the project file. That's not really an option. This wasn't a problem in Visual Studio 2008 and it seems to be an issue with the way the Publish command stages files beneath the project directory. Can anyone else duplicate this error? Is this a bug or by design? Is there a fix, workaround, etc...? Thanks.

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