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  • How do I add values to semi-complex JSON object?

    - by Nick Verheijen
    I'm fairly new to using JSON objects and I'm kinda stuck. I've got an JSON object that was converted from this array: Array ( [status] => success [id] => 1 [name] => Zone 1 [description] => Awesome zone deze.. [tiles] => Array ( // Column for the tile grid [0] => Array ( // Row for the tile grid [0] => Array ( [tileID] => 1 [rotation] => 0 ) [1] => Array ( [tileID] => 1 [rotation] => 0 ) // Etc.. ) [1] => Array // etc.. etc.. ) ) I use this object to render out an isometric grid for my HTML5 Canvas game. I'm building a map editor and to put more tiles on the map, i'll have to add values to this json object. This is how I would do it in PHP: mapData[column][row] = array( 'tileID' => 1, 'rotation' => 0 ); So my question is, how do I achieve this with a JSON object in javascript? Thanks in advance! Nick Update I've ran into an error: can't convert undefined to object mapDataTiles[mouseY][mouseX] = { tileID: editorSelectedTile, rotation: 0 }; This is the code i use for clicking & then saving the new tile to the JSON object. At first I though that one of my parameters was 'undefined', so i logged those to the console but they came out perfectly.. // If there is already a tile placed on these coordinates if( mapDataTiles[mouseX] && mapDataTiles[mouseX][mouseY] ) { mapDataTiles[mouseX][mouseY]['tileID'] = editorSelectedTile; } // If there is no tile placed on these coordinates else { mapDataTiles[mouseX][mouseY] = { tileID: editorSelectedTile, rotation: 0 }; } My variables have the following values: MouseX: 5 MouseY: 17 tileID: 2 Also weird fact, that for some coordinates it does actually work and save new data to the array. mapDataTiles[mouseY][mouseX] = { tileID: editorSelectedTile, rotation: 0 };

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  • Rails: How do I unserialize from database?

    - by Macint
    Hello, I am currently trying to save information for an invoice/bill. On the invoice I want to show what the total price is made up of. The procedures & items, their price and the qty. So in the end I hope to get it to look like this: Consult [date] [total_price] Procedure_name [price] [qty] Procedure_name [price] [qty] Consult [date] [total_price] Procedure_name [price] [qty] etc... All this information is available through the database but i want to save the information as a separate copy. That way if the user changes the price of some procedures the invoice information is still correct. I thought i'd do this by serializing and save the data to a column (consult_data) in the Invoice table. My Model: class Invoice < ActiveRecord::Base ...stuff... serialize :consult_data ... end This is what I get from the form (1 consult and 3 procedures): {"commit"=>"Save draft", "authenticity_token"=>"MZ1OiOCtj/BOu73eVVkolZBWoN8Fy1skHqKgih7Sbzw=", "id"=>"113", "consults"=>[{"consult_date"=>"2010-02-20", "consult_problem"=>"ABC", "procedures"=>[{"name"=>"asdasdasd", "price"=>"2.0", "qty"=>"1"}, {"name"=>"AAAnd another one", "price"=>"45.0", "qty"=>"4"}, {"name"=>"asdasdasd", "price"=>"2.0", "qty"=>"1"}], "consult_id"=>"1"}]} My save action: def add_to_invoice @invoice = @current_practice.invoices.find_by_id(params[:id]) @invoice.consult_data=params[:consults] if @invoice.save render :text => "I think it worked" else render :text => "I don't think it worked'" end end It does save to the database and if I look at the entry in the console I can see that it is all there: consult_data: "--- \n- !map:HashWithIndifferentAccess \n consult_da..." (---The question---) But I can't seam to get back my data. I tried defining a variable to the consult_data attribute and then doing "variable.consult_problem" or "variable[:consult_problem]" (also tried looping) but it only throws no-method-errors back at me. How do I unserialize the data from the database and turn it back into hash that i can use? Thank you very much for any help!

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  • Better way to get int from FragmentActivity in a Fragment?

    - by Gimberg
    Hi im trying to get an int from my FragmentActivity and i have a way to do this but the code get very cluttered and long and i did this to shorten the problem and i don't get any errors while in the editor but when i run the app it eminently crashes. Any suggestions? An example of the code that doesn't work MainActivity mainActivity = ((MainActivity)getActivity()); public View onCreateView(LayoutInflater inflater, ViewGroup container, Bundle savedInstanceState) { View view = inflater.inflate(R.layout.upgrades_fragment, container, false); TextView AirFreshenersCost = (TextView) view.findViewById(R.id.AirFreshenersCost ); if(mainActivity.amountAirFresheners == 5){ AirFreshenersCost.setText("5"); } return view; } LogCat 10-27 22:16:37.333: E/AndroidRuntime(5593): FATAL EXCEPTION: main 10-27 22:16:37.333: E/AndroidRuntime(5593): java.lang.NullPointerException 10-27 22:16:37.333: E/AndroidRuntime(5593): at com.free.dennisg.clickingbad.fragments.UpgradesFragment.onCreateView(UpgradesFragment.java:40) 10-27 22:16:37.333: E/AndroidRuntime(5593): at android.support.v4.app.Fragment.performCreateView(Fragment.java:1478) 10-27 22:16:37.333: E/AndroidRuntime(5593): at android.support.v4.app.FragmentManagerImpl.moveToState(FragmentManager.java:927) 10-27 22:16:37.333: E/AndroidRuntime(5593): at android.support.v4.app.FragmentManagerImpl.moveToState(FragmentManager.java:1104) 10-27 22:16:37.333: E/AndroidRuntime(5593): at android.support.v4.app.BackStackRecord.run(BackStackRecord.java:682) 10-27 22:16:37.333: E/AndroidRuntime(5593): at android.support.v4.app.FragmentManagerImpl.execPendingActions(FragmentManager.java:1460) 10-27 22:16:37.333: E/AndroidRuntime(5593): at android.support.v4.app.FragmentManagerImpl.executePendingTransactions(FragmentManager.java:472) 10-27 22:16:37.333: E/AndroidRuntime(5593): at android.support.v4.app.FragmentPagerAdapter.finishUpdate(FragmentPagerAdapter.java:141) 10-27 22:16:37.333: E/AndroidRuntime(5593): at android.support.v4.view.ViewPager.populate(ViewPager.java:1068) 10-27 22:16:37.333: E/AndroidRuntime(5593): at android.support.v4.view.ViewPager.populate(ViewPager.java:914) 10-27 22:16:37.333: E/AndroidRuntime(5593): at android.support.v4.view.ViewPager$3.run(ViewPager.java:244) 10-27 22:16:37.333: E/AndroidRuntime(5593): at android.view.Choreographer$CallbackRecord.run(Choreographer.java:749) 10-27 22:16:37.333: E/AndroidRuntime(5593): at android.view.Choreographer.doCallbacks(Choreographer.java:562) 10-27 22:16:37.333: E/AndroidRuntime(5593): at android.view.Choreographer.doFrame(Choreographer.java:531) 10-27 22:16:37.333: E/AndroidRuntime(5593): at android.view.Choreographer$FrameDisplayEventReceiver.run(Choreographer.java:735) 10-27 22:16:37.333: E/AndroidRuntime(5593): at android.os.Handler.handleCallback(Handler.java:730) 10-27 22:16:37.333: E/AndroidRuntime(5593): at android.os.Handler.dispatchMessage(Handler.java:92) 10-27 22:16:37.333: E/AndroidRuntime(5593): at android.os.Looper.loop(Looper.java:137) 10-27 22:16:37.333: E/AndroidRuntime(5593): at android.app.ActivityThread.main(ActivityThread.java:5289) 10-27 22:16:37.333: E/AndroidRuntime(5593): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invokeNative(Native Method) 10-27 22:16:37.333: E/AndroidRuntime(5593): at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:525) 10-27 22:16:37.333: E/AndroidRuntime(5593): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit$MethodAndArgsCaller.run(ZygoteInit.java:739) 10-27 22:16:37.333: E/AndroidRuntime(5593): at com.android.internal.os.ZygoteInit.main(ZygoteInit.java:555) 10-27 22:16:37.333: E/AndroidRuntime(5593): at dalvik.system.NativeStart.main(Native Method) An example of the code that work public View onCreateView(LayoutInflater inflater, ViewGroup container, Bundle savedInstanceState) { View view = inflater.inflate(R.layout.upgrades_fragment, container, false); TextView AirFreshenersCost = (TextView) view.findViewById(R.id.AirFreshenersCost ); if(((MainActivity)getActivity()).amountAirFresheners == 5){ AirFreshenersCost.setText("5"); } return view; }

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  • XSLT, JSTL e JSF

    - by Paulo S.
    I have a xml file which I want to transform in a jsf code page. To do that I've created a xsl file. xml: <?xml version='1.0' encoding='ISO-8859-1'?> <questionario xmlns:xsi='http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance' xsi:noNamespaceSchemaLocation='Schema2.xsd'> <componente nome='input'> <id>input1</id> </componente> <componente nome='input'> <id>input2</id> </componente> </questionario> code: <%@ taglib uri="http://java.sun.com/jstl/core_rt" prefix="c" %> <%@ taglib uri="http://java.sun.com/jsp/jstl/xml" prefix="x" %> <c:set var="xml" value="${questionarioXSLBean.xml}"/> <c:set var="xsl"> <xsl:stylesheet xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" version="2.0" xmlns:f="http://java.sun.com/jsf/core" xmlns:h="http://java.sun.com/jsf/html" exclude-result-prefixes="f h"> <xsl:template match="/"> <xsl:for-each select="questionario/componente"> <xsl:if test="attribute::nome = 'input'"> <xsl:variable name="id"> <xsl:value-of select="id" /> </xsl:variable> <h:inputText id="{$id}"/> </xsl:if> </xsl:for-each> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> </c:set> <x:transform xml="${xml}" xslt="${xsl}" /> The problem is that nothing is shown in my screen because the generated code for <h:inputText id="input1"/> is <h:inputText id="input_1" xmlns:h="http://java.sun.com/jsf/html"/> how can I replace the xmlns:h="http://java.sun.com/jsf/html" or suppress it. Thanks! Update: Let me clarify what I want to do. I want to generate a jsf page dynamically depending on the attributes of a xml file, for instance, 2 input texts, 3 check boxes, etc. To make the transformation to jsf I thought in two approaches, one using jstl and another using xslt. The problem with the former is that I couldn't integrate jstl with jsf code (to set jsf components attributes using jstl variables) and with the last approach, I'm facing the problem described above.I wouldn't like to create components in java (UIComponents). Any suggestions?

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  • Why Won't My ASP.NET Hyperlink Work in IE?

    - by Giffyguy
    I'm making a very simple ad button system using ASP.NET 2.0 The advertisment is a 150x150px square that is displayed on "the r house." (Scroll down a little and you'll see the bright green "Angry Octopus" on the right side of the screen.) Now, I am not the administrator of "the r house." Instead, I am the administrator of angryoctopus.net Therefore, I don't have the ability to change the ad display code on a whim. So I gave "the r house" this snippet of code to display our ad nicely, while still allowing me to customize the back-end code on my end: <iframe src="http://www.angryoctopus.net/Content/Ad/150x150.aspx" frameborder="0" width="150" height="150" scrolling="no" style="padding: 0; margin: 0;"></iframe> You'll find this snippet in the page source to "the r house." On my side, the code looks like this: <asp:HyperLink runat="server" NavigateUrl="http://www.angryoctopus.net/" Target="_top"> <asp:Panel ID="pnlMain" runat="server" BackColor="#D1E231" style="padding: 0; margin: 0" Width="150" Height="150"> <asp:Image runat="server" ImageUrl="http://www.angryoctopus.net/Content/Ad/150x150.png" BorderStyle="None" style="padding: 0; margin: 0" /> </asp:Panel> </asp:HyperLink> ... and there's some insignificant back-end C# code for hit-counting. This looks all well and good from the code standpoint, as far as I can tell. Everything works in Firefox and Chrome. Also, everything appears to work in IE8 in all of my tests. I haven't tested IE7. But when you view "the r house" in IE(8) the hyperlink doesn't do anything, and the cursor doesn't indicate that the hyperlink is even there. Although you can see the target URL in the status bar. I've considered the fact that "the r house" uses XHTML 1.0 Strict could be causing problems, but that would probably effect Firefox and Chrome right? (My aspx pages use XHTML 1.0 Transitional) My only other theory is that some random CSS class could be applying a weird attribute to my iframe, but again I would expect that would effect Firefox and Chrome. Is this a security issue with IE? Does anyone know what part of the r house's website could be blocking the hyperlink in IE? And how can I get around this without having to hard code anything on the r house's website? Is there an alternative to iframe that would do the same job without requiring complicated scripting?

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  • Is there a way to split a widescreen monitor in to two or more virtual monitors?

    - by Mike Thompson
    Like most developers I have grown to love dual monitors. I won't go into all the reasons for their goodness; just take it as a given. However, they are not perfect. You can never seem to line them up "just right". You always end up with the monitors at slight funny angles. And of course the bezel always gets in the way. And this is with identical monitors. The problem is much worse with different monitors -- VMWare's multi monitor feature won't even work with monitors of differnt resolutions. When you use multiple monnitors, one of them becomes your primary monitor of focus. Your focus may flip from one monitor to the other, but at any point in time you are usually focusing on only one monitor. There are exceptions to this (WinDiff, Excel), but this is generally the case. I suggest that having a single large monitor with all the benefits of multiple smaller monitors would be a better solution. Wide screen monitors are fantastic, but it is hard to use all the space efficiently. If you are writing code you are generally working on the left-hand side of the window. If you maximize an editor on a wide-screen monitor the right-hand side of the window will be a sea of white. Programs like WinSplit Revolution will help to organise your windows, but this is really just addressing the symptom, not the problem. Even with WinSplit Revolution, when you maximise a window it will take up the whole screen. You can't lock a window into a specific section of the screen. This is where virtual monitors comes in. What would be really nice is a video driver that sits on top of the existing driver, but allows a single monitor to be virtualised into multiple monitors. Control Panel would see your single physical monitor as two or more virtual monitors. The software could even support a virtual bezel to emphasise what is happening, or you could opt for seamless mode. Programs like WinSplit Revolution and UltraMon would still work. This virtual video driver would allow you to slice & dice your physical monitor into as many virtual monitors as you want. Does anybody know if such software exists? If not, are there any budding Windows display driver guru's out there willing to take up the challenge? I am not after the myriad of virtual desktop/window manager programs that are available. I get frustrated with these programs. They seem good at first but they usually have some strange behaviour and don't work well with other programs (such as WinSplit Revolution). I want the real thing!

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  • how to refresh list of photos after uploadify jquery

    - by robert
    hello, I want to do a sort of photo editor, i use uploadify to upload images here are my files: http://www.mediafire.com/?nddjyzyygj5 the problem is: after upload the images i dinamicaly generate a thumb .. When I click on it it show me the large pictures in another page, i want to show the picture in a div or a paragraf! after I refresh the page is working! why? from my php script i recive only the image name (response) after UploadifyComplete i append this: jQuery("#" + jQuery(this).attr('id') + ID).html('<a href="uploads/' + response + '"><img width="60px" height="60px" src="uploads/' + response + '" alt="' + response + '" /></a>'); to this: jQuery(queue).append('<li class="uploadifyQueueItem">\ <span class="fileName">' + fileName + ' (' + byteSize + suffix + ')</span>\ <div class="uploadifyProgress">\ <div id="' + jQuery(this).attr('id') + ID + 'ProgressBar" class="uploadifyProgressBar"><!--Progress Bar--></div>\ </div>\ </li>'); } and the result will be: <div class="uploadifyQueue"> <ul id="mainftpQueue"> <li class="uploadifyQueueItem"> <a href="uploads/Winter.jpg"><img height="60px" width="60px" alt="Winter.jpg" src="uploads/Winter.jpg"></a> </li> </ul> </div> i putt all the images in 1 php array after all images uploaded i want to refresh the div where this code is: <div class="uploadifyQueue"> <?php if ($_SESSION['files']){ print '<ul id="mainftpQueue">'."\n"; foreach($_SESSION['files'] as $image ): print '<li class="uploadifyQueueItem">'."\n"; print '<a href="uploads/'.$image.'"><img height="60px" width="60px" alt="'.$image.'" src="uploads/'.$image.'"></a>'."\n"; print "</li>\n"; endforeach; print "</ul>\n"; } ?> </div> i try with: $('#mainftpQueue').load(location.href+" #mainftpQueue>*",""); $('#mainftpQueue').load("/ #mainftpQueue li"); buth no succes sorry 4 my bad english.. if any 1 can edit this thanks

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  • bmp image header doubts

    - by vikramtheone
    Hi Guys, I'm doing a project where I have to make use of the pixel information of a bmp image. So, I'm gathering the image information by reading the header information of the input .bmp image. I'm quite successful with everything but one thing bothers me, can any one here clarify it? The header information of my .bmp image is as follows (My test image is very tiny and gray scale)- BMP File header File size 1210 Offset information 1078 BMP Information header Image Header Size 40 Image Size 132 Image width 9 Image height 11 Image bits_p_p 8 So, from the .bmp header I see that the image size is 132 (bytes) but when I multiply the width and height it is only 99, how is such a thing possible? I'm confident with 132 bytes because when I subtract the Offset value with the File Size value, I get 132(1210 - 1078 = 132) and also when I manually count the number of bytes (In a HEX editor) from the point 1078 or 436h (End of the offset field), there are exactly 132 bytes of pixel information. So, why is there a disparity between the size filed and the (width x height)? My future implementations are dependent on the image width and height information and not on Image size information. So, I have to understand thoroughly whats going on here. My understanding of the header should be clearly wrong... I guess!!! Help!!! Regards Vikram My bmp structures are a as follows - typedef struct bmpfile_magic { short magic; }BMP_MAGIC_NUMBER; typedef struct bmpfile_header { uint32_t filesz; uint16_t creator1; uint16_t creator2; uint32_t bmp_offset; }BMP_FILE_HEADER; typedef struct { uint32_t header_sz; uint32_t width; uint32_t height; uint16_t nplanes; uint16_t bitspp; uint32_t compress_type; uint32_t bmp_bytesz; uint32_t hres; uint32_t vres; uint32_t ncolors; uint32_t nimpcolors; } BMP_INFO_HEADER;

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  • Need help with auto-scaffolding template in ASP.NET MVC

    - by DanM
    I'm trying to write an auto-scaffolder for Index views. I'd like to be able to pass in a collection of models or view-models (e.g., IQueryable<MyViewModel>) and get back an HTML table that uses the DisplayName attribute for the headings (th elements) and Html.Display(propertyName) for the cells (td elements). Each row should correspond to one item in the collection. Here's what I have so far: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl" %> <% var items = (IQueryable<TestProj.ViewModels.TestViewModel>)Model; // Should be generic! var properties = items.First().GetMetadata().Properties .Where(pm => pm.ShowForDisplay && !ViewData.TemplateInfo.Visited(pm)); %> <table> <tr> <% foreach(var property in properties) { %> <th> <%= property.DisplayName %> </th> <% } %> </tr> <% foreach(var item in items) { %> <tr> <% foreach(var property in properties) { %> <td> <%= Html.Display(property.DisplayName) %> // This doesn't work! </td> <% } %> </tr> <% } %> </table> Two problems with this: I'd like it to be generic. So, I'd like to replace var items = (IQueryable<TestProj.ViewModels.TestViewModel>)Model; with var items = (IQueryable<T>)Model; or something to that effect. The <td> elements are not working because the Html in <%= Html.Display(property.DisplayName) %> contains the model for the view, which is a collection of items, not the item itself. Somehow, I need to obtain an HtmlHelper object whose Model property is the current item, but I'm not sure how to do that. How do I solve these two problems?

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  • SelectList in Asp-mvc and data from the database

    - by George
    Hello guys. I'm having some troubles with SelectList in ASP.MVC. Here is the issue: I have a Create View and begind a ViewModel model. The page load just fine (GET verb). But when posting, something happens, and my model is considered invalid, and it cannot insert. Here's what i've tried so far. public class DefinitionFormViewModel { private Repository<Category> categoryRepository = new Repository<Category>(); public Definition ViewDefinition { get; private set; } public SelectList Categories { get; private set; } public DefinitionFormViewModel(Definition def) { ViewDefinition = def; // here i wanted to place it directly, like shown in NerdDinner Tutorial // new SelectList(categoryRepository.All(),ViewDefinition.Category); Categories = new SelectList(categoryRepository.All(), "CategoryId", "CategoryName", ViewDefinition.CategoryId); } } // pageview which inherits DefinitionFormViewModel <div class=editor-field"> <%= Html.DropDownList("Category",Model.Categories) %> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => Model.ViewDefinition.Category) %> </div> // controller methods [Authorize] public ActionResult Create() { Definition definition = new Definition(); return View(new DefinitionFormViewModel(definition)); } [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post), Authorize] public ActionResult Create(int id,Definition definition) { Term term = termRepository.SingleOrDefault(t => t.TermId == id); if (term == null) { return View("NotFound", new NotFoundModel("Termo não encontrado", "Termo não encontrado", "Nos desculpe, mas não conseguimos encontrar o termo solicitado.", "Indíce de Termos", "Index", "Term")); } else { if (ModelState.IsValid) { try { definition.TermId = term.TermId; definition.ResponsibleUser = User.Identity.Name; UpdateModel(definition); term.Definitions.Add(definition); termRepository.SaveAll(); return RedirectToAction("Details", "Term", new { id = term.TermId }); } catch (System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException sqlEx) { ModelState.AddModelError("DatabaseError", "Houve um erro na inserção desta nova definição"); } catch { foreach (RuleViolation rv in definition.GetRuleViolations()) { ModelState.AddModelError(rv.PropertyName, rv.ErrorMessage); } } } } return View(new DefinitionFormViewModel(definition)); } I'm sorry about the long post, but I cant figure this out. I got no graphic errors or exceptions. My execution terminates in if (ModelState.IsValid). Thanks for your time George

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  • JSON.Net: deserializing polymorphic types without specifying the assembly

    - by Frank Schwieterman
    I see that using JSON.Net, I can decode polymorphic objects if a $type attribute specifies the specific type of the JSON object. In all the examples I've seen, $type includes the namespace. Is it possible to make this work including just a simple typename without the assembly? I'd be happy to specify a default assembly to the JsonSerializer if thats possible I am able to deserialize the JSON using: public class SingleAssemblyJsonTypeBinder : SerializationBinder { private readonly Assembly _assembly; private Dictionary _typesBySimpleName = new Dictionary(StringComparer.OrdinalIgnoreCase); private Dictionary _simpleNameByType = new Dictionary(); public SingleAssemblyJsonTypeBinder(Assembly assembly) { _assembly = assembly; _typesBySimpleName = new Dictionary<string, Type>(); foreach (var type in _assembly.GetTypes().Where(t => t.IsPublic)) { if (_typesBySimpleName.ContainsKey(type.Name)) throw new InvalidOperationException("Cannot user PolymorphicBinder on a namespace where multiple public types have same name."); _typesBySimpleName[type.Name] = type; _simpleNameByType[type] = type.Name; } } public override Type BindToType(string assemblyName, string typeName) { Type result; if (_typesBySimpleName.TryGetValue(typeName.Trim(), out result)) return result; return null; } public override void BindToName(Type serializedType, out string assemblyName, out string typeName) { string name; if (_simpleNameByType.TryGetValue(serializedType, out name)) { typeName = name; assemblyName = null;// _assembly.FullName; } else { typeName = null; assemblyName = null; } } } ... public static JsonSerializerSettings GetJsonSerializationSettings() { var settings = new JsonSerializerSettings(); settings.Binder = new SingleAssemblyJsonTypeBinder(typeof(MvcApplication).Assembly); settings.TypeNameHandling = TypeNameHandling.Objects; return settings; } .... var serializer = JsonSerializer.Create(settings); I haven't been able to make this work with MVC though, I'm configuring json deserialization per the code below in Application_Start, and the object is deserialized, but using the base type one. GlobalConfiguration.Configuration.Formatters.JsonFormatter.SerializerSettings.Binder = new SingleAssemblyJsonTypeBinder(this.GetType().Assembly); GlobalConfiguration.Configuration.Formatters.JsonFormatter.SerializerSettings.TypeNameHandling = TypeNameHandling.All; GlobalConfiguration.Configuration.Formatters.JsonFormatter.SerializerSettings.TypeNameAssemblyFormat = FormatterAssemblyStyle.Simple;

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  • Favorite Visual Studio keyboard remappings?

    - by hoytster
    Stack Overflow has covered favorite short-cuts and add-ins, optimizations and preferences -- great topics all. If this one has been covered, I can't find it -- so thanks in advance for the link. What are your favorite Visual Studio keyboard remappings? Mine are motivated by the fact that I'm a touch-typist. Mouse, function keys, arrow keys, Home, End -- bleh. These are commands I do all day every day, so I've remapped them to sequences I can execute without moving my hands from the home row. The command that is remapped in Tools = Customize = [Keyboard] is shown in parentheses. I'm 100% positive that there are better remappings than these, so please post yours! Please include the command; oft times, figuring it out is a challenge. -- Hoytster Running the app and operating the debugger Ctrl+Q + Ctrl+R Run the application, in debug mode (Debug.Start) Ctrl+Q + Ctrl+Q Quit (stop) the application (Debug.StopDebugging) Ctrl+T Toggle a breakpoint at the current line (Debug.ToggleBreakpoint) Ctrl+K + Ctrl+I Step Into the method (Debug.StepInto) Ctrl+K + Ctrl+O Step Out of the method (Debug.StepOut) Ctrl+N Step over the method to the Next statement (Debug.StepOver) Ctrl+K + Ctrl+C Run the code, stopping at the Cursor position (Debug.RunToCursor) Ctrl+K + Ctrl+E Set then next statement to Execute (Debug.SetNextStatement) Navigating the code Ctrl+S Move a character LEFT (Edit.CharLeft) Ctrl+D Move a character RIGHT (Edit.CharRight) Ctrl+Q + Ctrl+S Move to the LEFT END of the current line (Edit.LineStart) Ctrl+Q + Ctrl+D Move to the RIGHT END of the current line (Edit.LineEnd) Ctrl+E Move a line UP (Edit.LineUp) Ctrl+X Move a line DOWN (Edit.LineDown) Ctrl+K + Ctrl+K Toggle (add or remove) bookmark (Edit.ToggleBookmark) Ctrl+K + Ctrl+N Move to the NEXT bookmark (Edit.NextBookmark) Ctrl+K + Ctrl+P Move to the PREVIOUS bookmark (Edit.PreviousBookmark) Ctrl+Q + Ctrl+W Save all modified Windows (File.SaveAll) Ctrl+L Find the NEXT instance of the search string (Edit.FindNext) Ctrl+K + Ctrl+L Find the PREVIOUS instance of the search string (Edit.FindPrevious) Ctrl+Q + Ctrl+L Drop down the list of open files (Window.ShowEzMDIFileList) The last sequence is like clicking the downward-facing triangle in the upper-right corner of the code editor window. VS will display a list of all the open windows. You can select from the list by typing the file name; the matching file will be selected as you type. Pause for a second and resume typing, and the matching process starts over, so you can select a different file. Nice, VS Team. The key takes you to the tab for the selected file.

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  • Is it ok to use <strong> in place of <b> blindly ?

    - by metal-gear-solid
    Note: I know <b> is presentational and <span style="font-weight:bold> is better way and <strong> and <em> for emphasis but my question is not regarding this. Should we convert every <b> to <strong> blindly ? many people do this they think <b> is not good as per web standards so they convert every <b> to <strong> upon site redesign, content re-population, new site design and people suggest this to others also. Dreamweaver has also given option to convert all <b> and <i> to <strong> and <em> on code paste in design view and when we use B and I Which people use blindly. And Dreamweaver(if above option is checked) and many online WYSIWYG editor give output in <strong> and <em> while button shows B and I. In my opinion it's creating misconception about <strong> and <b> When we get content from client we don't know where client want to give emphasize and where he just want to use text bold for presentation purpose.What we should do in this condition? no one has time client and we both to give time to think for each bold text, it should be in <b> or in <strong>, <i> or in <em> What are pros and cons to convert every <b> and <i> into <strong> and <em> blindly if we are saying our site is accessible? Update: remember <b> and <i> are not deprecated there are in HTML 5 specification

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  • Another C datatypes question

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hello. Well, I completely get the most basic datatypes of C, like short, int, long, float, to be exact, all numerical types.These types are needed to be known perform right operations with right numbers. For example to use FPU to add two float numbers. So the compiler must know what the type is. But, when it comes to characters I am little bit off. I know that basic C datatype char is there for ASCII characters coding. But what I don´t know is, why you even need another datatype for characters. Why could not you just use 1 byte integer value to store ASCII character. If you call printf, you apecify the datatype in the call, so you could say to printf that the integer represents ASCII character. I dont know how cout resolves datatype, but I guess you could just specify it somehow. Another thing is, when you want to use Unicode, you must use datatype wchar. But, what if I would like to use some another, for example ISO, or Windows coding instead of UTF? Becouse wchar codes characters as UTF-16 or UTF-32 (I read its compiler specific). And, what if I would want to use for example some imaginary new 8 byte text coding? What datatype should I use for it? I am actually pretty confused of this, becouse I always expected that if I want to use UTF-32 instead of ASCII, I just tell compiler "get UTF-32 value of the character I typed and save it into 4 char field." I thought that text coding is to be dealt with by the end, print function for example. That I just need to specify the coding for the compiler to use, since Windows doesent use ASCII in win32 apps, I guess C compiler must convert the char I typed to ASCII from whatever the type is that windows sends to the C editor. And the last thing is, what if I want to use for example 25 Byte integer for some high math operations? C has no specify-yourself datatype. Yes, I know that this would be difficult since all the math operations would need to be changed, becouse CPU can not add 25 Bytes numbers together. But is there a way to do it? Or is there some math library for it? What if I want to compute Pi to 1000000000000000 digits? :) I know my question is pretty long, but I just wanted to explain my thoughts the best I can in English, since its not my native language it is difficult. And I believe there is simple answer to my question(s), something I missed that explains everything. I read lot about text coding, C tutorials, but nothing about his. Thank you for your time.

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  • Animating a pulsing UILabel?

    - by fuzzygoat
    I am trying to animate the color the the text on a UILabel to pulse from: [Black] to [White] to [Black] and repeat. - (void)timerFlash:(NSTimer *)timer { [[self navTitle] setTextColor:[[UIColor whiteColor] colorWithAlphaComponent:0.0]]; [UIView animateWithDuration:1 delay:0 options:UIViewAnimationOptionAllowUserInteraction animations:^{[[self navTitle] setTextColor:[[UIColor whiteColor] colorWithAlphaComponent:1.0]];} completion:nil]; } . [self setFadeTimer:[NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1 target:self selector:@selector(timerFlash:) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]]; Firstly I am not sure of my method, my plan (as you can see above) was to set up a animation block and call it using a repeating NSTimer until canceled. My second problem (as you can see above) is that I am animating from black (alpha 0) to white (alpha 1) but I don't know how to animate back to black again so the animation loops seamlessly Essentially what I want is the text color to pulse on a UILabel until the user presses a button to continue. EDIT_001: I was getting into trouble because you can't animate [UILabel setColor:] you can however animated [UILabel setAlpha:] so I am going to give that a go. EDIT_002: - (void)timerFlash:(NSTimer *)timer { [[self navTitle] setAlpha:0.5]; [UIView animateWithDuration:2 delay:0 options:UIViewAnimationOptionAllowUserInteraction animations:^{[[self navTitle] setAlpha:0.9];} completion:nil]; } This works (BTW: I do want it to stop which is why I hooked it up to a NSTimer so I can cancel that) the only thing is that this animates from midGray to nearWhite and then pops back. Does anyone know how I would animate back from nearWhite to midGray so I get a nice smooth cycle? EDIT_003: (Solution) The code suggested by dave DeLong (see below) does indeed work when modified to use the CALayer opacity style attribute: UILabel *navTitle; @property(nonatomic, retain) UILabel *navTitle; . // ADD ANIMATION CABasicAnimation *anim = [CABasicAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"opacity"]; [anim setTimingFunction:[CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionEaseInEaseOut]]; [anim setFromValue:[NSNumber numberWithFloat:0.5]]; [anim setToValue:[NSNumber numberWithFloat:1.0]]; [anim setAutoreverses:YES]; [anim setDuration:0.5]; [[[self navTitle] layer] addAnimation:anim forKey:@"flash"]; . // REMOVE ANIMATION [[[self navTitle] layer] removeAnimationForKey:@"flash__"];

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  • Good object/DB set-up for CMS-esque app for managing content and user permissions?

    - by sah302
    Hi all, so I am writing a big CMS-esque app to allow users to manage web content through web applications, I've got a pretty good db-driven user permission system going, but am having trouble coming up with a good way to handle content groups and pages, I've got a couple options and not sure which one to take. Furthermore, I am not sure how to handle static page updates that have no 'widgets' in them. My current set-up for permissions is this: Objects: User, UserGroup, UserUserGroup, UserGroupType Standard many to many relationship User -> UserUserGroup <- UserGroup each Usergroup has a UserGroupType, which could be anything from Title, Department, to PermissionGroup. PermissionGroup manages the permissions. Right now on a per page basis I check permissions based on their PermissionsGroups. So for a page which has CMS features for a news widget, I check for permission groups of "Site Admin" and "News Admin". Now the issue I am coming to is, the site has many different departments involved. No problem I think, I can just have a EntityContentGroup so any widget app can be used for any departments. So my HR department, each of their news items would be in the EntityContentGroup with the news item ID, and content group of "HR" or "HR News". But maybe this isn't the most efficient way to go about it? I don't want to put the content group simply as a NewsItemType because some news items could apply to multiple areas, so I want to be able to assign them to as many areas as I want. Likewise, all of my widget apps have this, so that's why I decided to choose EntityContentGroup and not just NewsItemContentGroup. I was also thinking well instead of doing a contentGroup do a Page object that says which page some entity should be on. It seems almost like the same thing, but would I want to use Page for something else? I was thinking Page would be used for static pages with no widgets, a simple Rich Text Editor can edit the content of that page and I save that item to a page?? And then instead of doing a page level check for UserGroup permissions, would it be better to associate a usergroup to a contentgroup, and then just depending on what contentGroup content on the page is displayed, determine the permissions through that relationship? Is that better? I am not sure at this point. I guess I am just getting a tad overwhelmed at this is the largest app in scope and size that I have ever written. What is the best approach for this based on my current user permission set-up?

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  • Yet another Ant + JUnit classpath problem

    - by user337591
    Hi, I'm developing an Eclipse SWT application using Eclipse. There are also some JUnit 4 tests, which test some DAO's. But when I try to run the tests via an ant build, all of the tests fail, because the test classes aren't found. Google brought up about a million of people who all have the same problem, but none of their solutions seem to work for me -.- . These are the contents of my build.xml file: <property name="test.reports" value="./test/reports" /> <property name="classes" value="build" /> <path id="project.classpath"> <pathelement location="${classes}" /> </path> <target name="testreport"> <mkdir dir="${test.reports}" /> <junit fork="yes" printsummary="no" haltonfailure="no"> <batchtest fork="yes" todir="${test.reports}" > <fileset dir="${classes}"> <include name="**/Test*.class" /> </fileset> </batchtest> <formatter type="xml" /> <classpath refid="project.classpath" /> </junit> <junitreport todir="${test.reports}"> <fileset dir="${test.reports}"> <include name="TEST-*.xml" /> </fileset> <report todir="${test.reports}" /> </junitreport> </target> The test classes are in the build-directory together with the application classes, although they are in some subfolders according to their packages. Maybe this is important too: At first Ant complained that JUnit wasn't in its classpath, but since I put it there (with the eclipse configuration editor) it complains about JUnit being in its classpath twice. WARNING: multiple versions of ant detected in path for junit [junit] jar:file:C:/Users/as df/Documents/eclipse/plugins/org.apache.ant_1.7.1.v20090120-1145/lib/ant.jar!/org/apache/tools/ant/Project.class [junit] and jar:file:/C:/Users/as%20df/Documents/eclipse/plugins/org.apache.ant_1.7.1.v20090120-1145/lib/ant.jar!/org/apache/tools/ant/Project.class I've tried specifying each and every subdirectory, each and every class file, I've tried filesets and filelists, nothing seems to work. Thanks for your help, I've been sitting for hours on this thing now...

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  • How can I pass managed objects from one AppDomain to another?

    - by Dennis P
    I have two assemblies that I'm trying to link together. One is a sort of background process that's built with WinForms and will be designed to run as a Windows Service. I have a second project that will act as a UI for the background process whenever a user launches it. I've never tried attempting something like this with managed code before, so I've started trying to use windows messages to communicate between the two processes. I'm struggling when it comes to passing more than just IntPtrs back and forth, however. Here's the code from a control in my UI project that registers itself with the background process: public void Init() { IntPtr hwnd = IntPtr.Zero; Process[] ps = Process.GetProcessesByName("BGServiceApp"); Process mainProcess = null; if(ps == null || ps.GetLength(0) == 0) { mainProcess = LaunchApp(); } else { mainProcess = ps[0]; } SendMessage(mainProcess.MainWindowHandle, INIT_CONNECTION, this.Handle, IntPtr.Zero); } protected override void WndProc(ref Message m) { if(m.Msg == INIT_CONFIRMED && InitComplete != null) { string message = Marshal.PtrToStringAuto(m.WParam); Marshal.FreeHGlobal(m.WParam); InitComplete(message, EventArgs.Empty); } base.WndProc(ref m); } This is the code from the background process that's supposed to receive a request from the UI process to register for status updates and send a confirmation message. protected override void WndProc(ref Message m) { if(m.Msg == INIT_CONNECTION) { RegisterUIDispatcher(m.WParam); Respond(m.WParam); } if(m.Msg == UNINIT_CONNECTION) { UnregisterUIDispatcher(m.WParam); if(m_RegisteredDispatchers.Count == 0) { this.Close(); } } base.WndProc(ref m); } private void Respond(IntPtr caller) { string test = "Registration confirmed!"; IntPtr ptr = Marshal.StringToHGlobalAuto(test); SendMessage(caller, INIT_CONFIRMED, ptr, IntPtr.Zero); } } The UI process receives the INIT_CONFIRMED message from my background process, but when I try to marshal the IntPtr back into a string, I get an empty string. Is the area of heap I'm using out of scope to the other process or am I missing some security attribute maybe? Is there a better and cleaner way to go about something like this using an event driven model?

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  • Crash in OS X Core Data Utility Tutorial

    - by vinogradov
    I'm trying to follow Apple's Core Data utility Tutorial. It was all going nicely, until... The tutorial uses a custom sub-class of NSManagedObject, called 'Run'. Run.h looks like this: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import <CoreData/CoreData.h> @interface Run : NSManagedObject { NSInteger processID; } @property (retain) NSDate *date; @property (retain) NSDate *primitiveDate; @property NSInteger processID; @end Now, in Run.m we have an accessor method for the processID variable: - (void)setProcessID:(int)newProcessID { [self willChangeValueForKey:@"processID"]; processID = newProcessID; [self didChangeValueForKey:@"processID"]; } In main.m, we use functions to set up a managed object model and context, instantiate an entity called run, and add it to the context. We then get the current NSprocessInfo, in preparation for setting the processID of the run object. NSManagedObjectContext *moc = managedObjectContext(); NSEntityDescription *runEntity = [[mom entitiesByName] objectForKey:@"Run"]; Run *run = [[Run alloc] initWithEntity:runEntity insertIntoManagedObjectContext:moc]; NSProcessInfo *processInfo = [NSProcessInfo processInfo]; Next, we try to call the accessor method defined in Run.m to set the value of processID: [run setProcessID:[processInfo processIdentifier]]; And that's where it's crashing. The object run seems to exist (I can see it in the debugger), so I don't think I'm messaging nil; on the other hand, it doesn't look like the setProcessID: message is actually being received. I'm obviously still learning this stuff (that's what tutorials are for, right?), and I'm probably doing something really stupid. However, any help or suggestions would be gratefully received! ===MORE INFORMATION=== Following up on Jeremy's suggestions: The processID attribute in the model is set up like this: NSAttributeDescription *idAttribute = [[NSAttributeDescription alloc]init]; [idAttribute setName:@"processID"]; [idAttribute setAttributeType:NSInteger32AttributeType]; [idAttribute setOptional:NO]; [idAttribute setDefaultValue:[NSNumber numberWithInteger:-1]]; which seems a little odd; we are defining it as a scalar type, and then giving it an NSNumber object as its default value. In the associated class, Run, processID is defined as an NSInteger. Still, this should be OK - it's all copied directly from the tutorial. It seems to me that the problem is probably in there somewhere. By the way, the getter method for processID is defined like this: - (int)processID { [self willAccessValueForKey:@"processID"]; NSInteger pid = processID; [self didAccessValueForKey:@"processID"]; return pid; } and this method works fine; it accesses and unpacks the default int value of processID (-1). Thanks for the help so far!

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  • Symfony2 Entity to array

    - by Adriano Pedro
    I'm trying to migrate my flat php project to Symfony2, but its coming to be very hard. For instance, I have a table of Products specification that have several specifications and are distinguishables by its "cat" attribute in that Extraspecs DB table. Therefore I've created a Entity for that table and want to make an array of just the specifications with "cat" = 0... I supose the code is this one.. right? $typeavailable = $this->getDoctrine() ->getRepository('LabsCatalogBundle:ProductExtraspecsSpecs') ->findBy(array('cat' => '0')); Now how can i put this in an array to work with a form like this?: form = $this ->createFormBuilder($product) ->add('specs', 'choice', array('choices' => $typeavailableArray), 'multiple' => true) Thank you in advance :) # Thank you all.. But now I've came across with another problem.. In fact i'm building a form from an existing object: $form = $this ->createFormBuilder($product) ->add('name', 'text') ->add('genspec', 'choice', array('choices' => array('0' => 'None', '1' => 'General', '2' => 'Specific'))) ->add('isReg', 'choice', array('choices' => array('0' => 'Material', '1' => 'Reagent', '2' => 'Antibody', '3' => 'Growth Factors', '4' => 'Rodents', '5' => 'Lagomorphs'))) So.. in that case my current value is named "extraspecs", so i've added this like: ->add('extraspecs', 'entity', array( 'label' => 'desc', 'empty_value' => ' --- ', 'class' => 'LabsCatalogBundle:ProductExtraspecsSpecs', 'property' => 'specsid', 'query_builder' => function(EntityRepository $er) { return $er ->createQueryBuilder('e'); But "extraspecs" come from a relationship of oneToMany where every product has several extraspecs... Here is the ORM: Labs\CatalogBundle\Entity\Product: type: entity table: orders__regmat id: id: type: integer generator: { strategy: AUTO } fields: name: type: string length: 100 catnumber: type: string scale: 100 brand: type: integer scale: 10 company: type: integer scale: 10 size: type: decimal scale: 10 units: type: integer scale: 10 price: type: decimal scale: 10 reqcert: type: integer scale: 1 isReg: type: integer scale: 1 genspec: type: integer scale: 1 oneToMany: extraspecs: targetEntity: ProductExtraspecs mappedBy: product Labs\CatalogBundle\Entity\ProductExtraspecs: type: entity table: orders__regmat__extraspecs fields: extraspecid: id: true type: integer unsigned: false nullable: false generator: strategy: IDENTITY regmatid: type: integer scale: 11 spec: type: integer scale: 11 attrib: type: string length: 20 value: type: string length: 200 lifecycleCallbacks: { } manyToOne: product: targetEntity: Product inversedBy: extraspecs joinColumn: name: regmatid referencedColumnName: id HOw should I do this? Thank you!!!

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  • Flex AS3: ProgressBar doesn't move

    - by jolierouge
    Hey All, I am a little stuck and need some advice/help. I have a progress bar: <mx:ProgressBar id="appProgress" mode="manual" width="300" label="{appProgressMsg}" minimum="0" maximum="100"/> I have two listener functions, one sets the progress, and one sets the appProgressMsg: public function incProgress(e:TEvent):void { var p:uint = Math.floor(e.data.number / e.data.total * 100); trace("Setting Perc." + p); appProgress.setProgress(p, 100); } public function setApplicationProgressStep(e:TEvent):void { trace("Setting step:" + e.data); appProgressMsg = e.data; } I want to reuse this progress bar alot. And not necessarily for ProgressEvents, but when going through steps. For instance, I loop over a bunch of database inserts, and want to undate the progress etc. Here is a sample: public function updateDatabase(result:Object):void { var total:int = 0; var i:int = 0; var r:SQLResult; trace("updateDatabase called."); for each (var table:XML in this.queries.elements("table")) { var key:String = table.attribute("name"); if (result[key]) { send(TEvent.UpdateApplicationProgressStep, "Updating " + key); i = 1; total = result[key].length; for each (var row:Object in result[key]) { //now, we need to see if we already have this record. send(TEvent.UpdateApplicationProgress, { number:i, total: total } ); r = this.query("select * from " + key + " where server_id = '" + row.id + "'"); if (r.data == null) { //there is no entry with this id, make one. this.query(table.insert, row); } else { //it exists, so let's update. this.update(key, row); } i++; } } } } Everything works fine. That is, the listener functions are called and I get trace output like: updateDatabase called. Setting step:Updating project Setting Perc 25 Setting Perc 50 Setting Perc 75 Setting Perc 100 The issue is, only the very last percent and step is shown. that is, when it's all done, the progress bar jumps to 100% and shows the last step label. Does anyone know why this is? Thanks in advance for any help, Jason

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  • DocumentFragment not appending in IE

    - by bmwbzz
    I have a select list which, when changed, pulls data via ajax and dynamically creates select lists. Then based on the data used to create the select lists (a type), I pull more data via ajax if i don't have it already and create the options for the select list and store them in a fragment. Then I append that fragment to the select list. This is zippy in FF3 and Chrome but either doesn't append the options at all or takes a long time (minutes) to append the options in IE7. Note: I am also using jQuery. code from the success callback which creates the select lists: blockDiv.empty(); var contentItemTypes = new Array(); selectLists = new Array(); for (var post in msg) { if (post != undefined) { var div = fragment.cloneNode(true); //deep copy var nameDiv = $(div.firstChild); nameDiv.text(msg[post].Name); blockDiv[0].appendChild(div); var allSelectLists = blockDiv.find('.editor-field select'); var selectList = $(allSelectLists[allSelectLists.length - 1]); var blockId = msg[post].ID; var elId = 'PageContentItem.' + blockId; selectList.attr('id', elId); selectList.attr('name', elId); var contentItemTypeId = msg[post].ContentItemTypeId; selectList.attr('cit', contentItemTypeId); if (contentItems[contentItemTypeId] != null || contentItems[contentItemTypeId] != undefined) { contentItems[contentItemTypeId] = null; } selectLists[post] = selectList; } } var firstContentTypeId = selectLists[0].attr('cit'); getContentItems(firstContentTypeId, setContentItemsForList, 0); code to get the items for the options in the select lists. function getContentItems(contentTypeId, callback, callbackParam) { if (contentItems[contentTypeId] != null || contentItems[contentTypeId] != undefined) { callback(contentTypeId, callbackParam); return; } contentItems[contentTypeId] = document.createDocumentFragment(); Q.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/CMS/ContentItem/ListByContentType/" + contentTypeId, data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", error: function(xhr, msg, e) { var err = eval("(" + xhr.responseText + ")"); alert(err.ExceptionType + " ***** " + err.Message + " ***** " + err.StackTrace); }, success: function(msg) { var li; for (var post in msg) { if (post != undefined) { li = $('<option value="' + msg[post].ID + '">' + msg[post].Description + '</option>'); contentItems[contentTypeId].appendChild(li[0]); } } callback(contentTypeId, callbackParam); } }); } function setContentItemsForList(contentTypeId, selectIndex) { if (selectIndex < selectLists.length) { var items = contentItems[contentTypeId].cloneNode(true); selectLists[selectIndex].append($(items.childNodes)); selectIndex++; if (selectIndex < selectLists.length) { var nextContentTypeId = selectLists[selectIndex].attr('cit'); getContentItems(nextContentTypeId, setContentItemsForList, selectIndex); } } }

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  • VB6 ADO Command to SQL Server

    - by Emtucifor
    I'm getting an inexplicable error with an ADO command in VB6 run against a SQL Server 2005 database. Here's some code to demonstrate the problem: Sub ADOCommand() Dim Conn As ADODB.Connection Dim Rs As ADODB.Recordset Dim Cmd As ADODB.Command Dim ErrorAlertID As Long Dim ErrorTime As Date Set Conn = New ADODB.Connection Conn.ConnectionString = "Provider=SQLOLEDB.1;Integrated Security=SSPI;Initial Catalog=database;Data Source=server" Conn.CursorLocation = adUseClient Conn.Open Set Rs = New ADODB.Recordset Rs.CursorType = adOpenStatic Rs.LockType = adLockReadOnly Set Cmd = New ADODB.Command With Cmd .Prepared = False .CommandText = "ErrorAlertCollect" .CommandType = adCmdStoredProc .NamedParameters = True .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@ErrorAlertID", adInteger, adParamOutput) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@CreateTime", adDate, adParamOutput) Set .ActiveConnection = Conn Rs.Open Cmd ErrorAlertID = .Parameters("@ErrorAlertID").Value ErrorTime = .Parameters("@CreateTime").Value End With Debug.Print Rs.State ' Shows 0 - Closed Debug.Print Rs.RecordCount ' Of course this fails since the recordset is closed End Sub So this code was working not too long ago but now it's failing on the last line with the error: Run-time error '3704': Operation is not allowed when the object is closed Why is it closed? I just opened it and the SP returns rows. I ran a trace and this is what the ADO library is actually submitting to the server: declare @p1 int set @p1=1 declare @p2 datetime set @p2=''2010-04-22 15:31:07:770'' exec ErrorAlertCollect @ErrorAlertID=@p1 output,@CreateTime=@p2 output select @p1, @p2 Running this as a separate batch from my query editor yields: Msg 102, Level 15, State 1, Line 4 Incorrect syntax near '2010'. Of course there's an error. Look at the double single quotes in there. What the heck could be causing that? I tried using adDBDate and adDBTime as data types for the date parameter, and they give the same results. When I make the parameters adParamInputOutput, then I get this: declare @p1 int set @p1=default declare @p2 datetime set @p2=default exec ErrorAlertCollect @ErrorAlertID=@p1 output,@CreateTime=@p2 output select @p1, @p2 Running that as a separate batch yields: Msg 156, Level 15, State 1, Line 2 Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'default'. Msg 156, Level 15, State 1, Line 4 Incorrect syntax near the keyword 'default'. What the heck? SQL Server doesn't support this kind of syntax. You can only use the DEFAULT keyword in the actual SP execution statement. I should note that removing the extra single quotes from the above statement makes the SP run fine. ... Oh my. I just figured it out. I guess it's worth posting anyway.

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  • Emails sent using Flex app are delayed

    - by user363825
    I'm currently building an application in Flex that utilizes SMTP Mailer to automatically send out emails to the user when a particular condition is satisfied. The application checks this condition every 30 seconds. The condition is satisfied based on new records being returned from a database table. The problem is as follows: When the condition is first satisfied, the email is delivered to the user with no issues. The second time the condition is satisfied, the email is not delivered. In the smtp logs, the delivery attempt appears to get hung up on the following line: 354 Start mail input; end with <CRLF>.<CRLF> No error codes are present in the smtp logs, but I do trace the following event from the SMTP Mailer class: [Event type="mailError" bubbles=false cancelable=false eventPhase=2] When the condition is satisfied a third time, the email that was not delivered when the condition was satisfied the previous time is now delivered, along with the email for this instance. This pattern then repeats itself, with the next email not being sent followed by two emails being sent simulatneously when the condition is met again. The smtp server being used is Windows 2003, on an internal network. The email is being sent to an outlook account hosted on an exchange server that is also on this internal network. Here is the actionscript code that creates the SMTPMailer object: public var testMail:SMTPMailer = null; public function alertNotify() { Security.loadPolicyFile("crossdomain.xml"); this.testMail = new SMTPMailer("myserver.ec.local",25); this.testMail.addEventListener(SMTPEvent.MAIL_SENT, onEmailEvent); this.testMail.addEventListener(SMTPEvent.MAIL_ERROR, onEmailError); this.testMail.addEventListener(SMTPEvent.DISCONNECTED, onEmailConn); this.testMail.addEventListener(SecurityErrorEvent.SECURITY_ERROR, onEmailError); } Here is the code that creates the email body and calls the method to send the email: public function alertUser(emailAC:ArrayCollection):void { trace ("In alertUser() before send, testMail.connected = " + testMail.connected.toString()); var testStr:String = " Key Location Event Type Comment Update Time "; for each (var event:rEntity in emailAC) { testStr = testStr + "" + event.key.toString() + "" + event.xml.address.toString() + " " + [email protected]() + "" + [email protected]() + "" + [email protected]() + "" + event.xml.attribute("update-time").toXMLString() + ""; } testStr = testStr + ""; testMail.flush(); testMail.sendHTMLMail("[email protected]","[email protected]","Event Notification",testStr); } Really not sure where the email that gets hung up is being stored until it is finally sent.... Any suggestions as to how to begin to remedy this issue would be much appreciated.

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  • LsaAddAccountRights not working for me

    - by SteveL
    Using: Delphi 2010 and the JEDI Windows API and JWSCL I am trying to assign the Logon As A Service privilege to a user using LsaAddAccountRights function but it does not work ie. after the function returns, checking in Group Policy Editor shows that the user still does not have the above mentioned privilege. I'm running the application on Windows XP. Would be glad if someone could point out what is wrong in my code: unit Unit1; interface uses Windows, Messages, SysUtils, Variants, Classes, Graphics, Controls, Forms, Dialogs, StdCtrls, JwaWindows, JwsclSid; type TForm1 = class(TForm) Button1: TButton; procedure Button1Click(Sender: TObject); private { Private declarations } public { Public declarations } end; var Form1: TForm1; implementation {$R *.dfm} function AddPrivilegeToAccount(AAccountName, APrivilege: String): DWORD; var lStatus: TNTStatus; lObjectAttributes: TLsaObjectAttributes; lPolicyHandle: TLsaHandle; lPrivilege: TLsaUnicodeString; lSid: PSID; lSidLen: DWORD; lTmpDomain: String; lTmpDomainLen: DWORD; lTmpSidNameUse: TSidNameUse; lPrivilegeWStr: String; begin ZeroMemory(@lObjectAttributes, SizeOf(lObjectAttributes)); lStatus := LsaOpenPolicy(nil, lObjectAttributes, POLICY_LOOKUP_NAMES, lPolicyHandle); if lStatus <> STATUS_SUCCESS then begin Result := LsaNtStatusToWinError(lStatus); Exit; end; try lTmpDomainLen := DNLEN; // In 'clear code' this should be get by LookupAccountName SetLength(lTmpDomain, lTmpDomainLen); lSidLen := SECURITY_MAX_SID_SIZE; GetMem(lSid, lSidLen); try if LookupAccountName(nil, PChar(AAccountName), lSid, lSidLen, PChar(lTmpDomain), lTmpDomainLen, lTmpSidNameUse) then begin lPrivilegeWStr := APrivilege; lPrivilege.Buffer := PChar(lPrivilegeWStr); lPrivilege.Length := Length(lPrivilegeWStr) * SizeOf(Char); lPrivilege.MaximumLength := lPrivilege.Length; lStatus := LsaAddAccountRights(lPolicyHandle, lSid, @lPrivilege, 1); Result := LsaNtStatusToWinError(lStatus); end else Result := GetLastError; finally FreeMem(lSid); end; finally LsaClose(lPolicyHandle); end; end; procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); begin AddPrivilegeToAccount('Sam', 'SeServiceLogonRight'); end; end. Thanks in advance.

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