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• Adding a navigation bar to a web view in a tab bar app

  - by Henrik Erlandsson

  I've built the tab bar application in IB, with three tabs. The third tab happily displays a UIWebview where you can browse. The only thing missing is a back button, as not all web pages supply such a link. I need a navigation bar hooked up properly to the correct classes. I'm still a bit unsure about exactly how the hierarchy should look in interface builder and how to hook it up properly. Currently, the third tab is hooked up to a referencing outlet called 'webnews' in the class 'thirdviewcontroller', and the UIWebView (under a normal IUView in the hierarchy, which in turn is under the third tab bar controller) is connected to the webnews outlet. How do I make the navbar control the webview, and do I add code to the thirdviewcontroller.m that lets the navbar on the view control the webview 'back' function? What do I hook up as the delegate for it? Currently I have an app delegate, but that's hooked up to the tab bar. I'm not really after specific code as much as a general 'how it works' clue :) (Unless I can just add the navbar dynamically to the functioning app... but I don't think addSubView on viewWillAppear {} in thirdviewcontroller.m will create the proper functionality?) If I were to guess at the simplest solution, I'd guess create a navbarcontroller.h/.m, slap a navbar on the view in IB, connect the third tab to navbarcontroller, connect the navbar to the webview (?) and move the webnews outlet to navbarcontroller.h, and connect the webview to it. But I don't quite have the nerve to try, better to ask advice first.

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• Rails: keeping DRY with ActiveRecord models that share similar complex attributes

  - by Greg

  This seems like it should have a straightforward answer, but after much time on Google and SO I can't find it. It might be a case of missing the right keywords. In my RoR application I have several models that share a specific kind of string attribute that has special validation and other functionality. The closest similar example I can think of is a string that represents a URL. This leads to a lot of duplication in the models (and even more duplication in the unit tests), but I'm not sure how to make it more DRY. I can think of several possible directions... create a plugin along the lines of the "validates_url_format_of" plugin, but that would only make the validations DRY give this special string its own model, but this seems like a very heavy solution create a ruby class for this special string, but how do I get ActiveRecord to associate this class with the model attribute that is a string in the db Number 3 seems the most reasonable, but I can't figure out how to extend ActiveRecord to handle anything other than the base data types. Any pointers? Finally, if there is a way to do this, where in the folder hierarchy would you put the new class that is not a model? Many thanks.

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• QWebView not loading external resources

  - by Nick

  Hi. I'm working on a kiosk web browser using Qt and PyQt4. QWebView seems to work quite well except for one quirk. If a URL fails to load for any reason, I want to redirect the user to a custom error page. I've done this using the loadFinished() signal to check the result, and change the URL to the custom page if necessary using QWebView.load(). However, any page I attempt to load here fails to pull in external resources like CSS or images. Using QWebView.load() to set the initial page at startup seems to work fine, and clicking any link on the custom error page will result in the destination page loading fine. It's just the error page that doesn't work. I'm really not sure where to go next. I've included the source for an app that will replicate the problem below. It takes a URL as a command line argument - a valid URL will display correctly, a bad URL (eg. DNS resolution fails) will redirect to Google, but with the logo missing. import sys from PyQt4 import QtGui, QtCore, QtWebKit class MyWebView(QtWebKit.QWebView): def __init__(self, parent=None): QtWebKit.QWebView.__init__(self, parent) self.resize(800, 600) self.load(QtCore.QUrl(sys.argv[1])) self.connect(self, QtCore.SIGNAL('loadFinished(bool)'), self.checkLoadResult) def checkLoadResult(self, result): if (result == False): self.load(QtCore.QUrl('http://google.com')) app = QtGui.QApplication(sys.argv) main = MyWebView() main.show() sys.exit(app.exec_()) If anyone could offer some advice it would be greatly appreciated.

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• MySQL Grant Problem

  - by Joel Dare

  Why might the following grant statement fail to work? grant all on kylie.* to 'kylie'@'localhost' identified by 'foo'; Here's the complete output. $ mysql -A Welcome to the MySQL monitor. Commands end with ; or \g. Your MySQL connection id is 63 Server version: 5.1.37 Source distribution Type 'help;' or '\h' for help. Type '\c' to clear the current input statement. mysql> show databases like 'kylie%'; +-------------------+ | Database (kylie%) | +-------------------+ | kylie | +-------------------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) mysql> grant all on kylie.* to 'kylie'@'localhost' identified by 'foo'; Query OK, 0 rows affected (0.02 sec) mysql> exit Bye $ mysql -u kylie ERROR 1045 (28000): Access denied for user 'kylie'@'localhost' (using password: YES) It seems that these grant options get me every time. I think I have them memorized and the docs seem to check out too, but they often fail to work. What am I missing?

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• File Format Conversion to TIFF. Some issues???

  - by Nains

  I'm having a proprietary image format SNG( a proprietary format) which is having a countinous array of Image data along with Image meta information in seperate HDR file. Now I need to convert this SNG format to a Standard TIFF 6.0 Format. So I studied the TIFF format i.e. about its Header, Image File Directories( IFD's) and Stripped Image Data. Now I have few concerns about this conversion. Please assist me. SNG Continous Data vs TIFF Stripped Data: Should I convert SNG Data to TIFF as a continous data in one Strip( data load/edit time problem?) OR make logical StripOffsets of the SNG Image data. SNG Data Header uses only necessary Meta Information, thus while converting the SNG to TIFF, some information can’t be retrieved such as NewSubFileType, Software Tag etc. So this raises a concern that after conversion whether any missing directory information such as NewSubFileType, Software Tag etc is necessary and sufficient condition for TIFF File. Encoding of each pixel component of RGB Sample in SNG data: Here each SNG Image Data Strip per Pixel component is encoded as: Out^[i] := round( LineBuffer^[i * 3] * **0.072169** + LineBuffer^[i * 3 + 1] * **0.715160** + LineBuffer^[i * 3+ 2]* **0.212671**); Only way I deduce from it is that each Pixel is represented with 3 RGB component and some coefficient is multiplied with each component to make the SNG Viewer work RGB color information of SNG Image Data. (Developer who earlier work on this left, now i am following the trace :)) Thus while converting this to TIFF, the decoding the same needs to be done. This raises a concern that the how RBG information in TIFF is produced, or better do we need this information?. Please assist...

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• Mocking WebResponse's from a WebRequest

  - by Rob Cooper

  I have finally started messing around with creating some apps that work with RESTful web interfaces, however, I am concerned that I am hammering their servers every time I hit F5 to run a series of tests.. Basically, I need to get a series of web responses so I can test I am parsing the varying responses correctly, rather than hit their servers every time, I thought I could do this once, save the XML and then work locally. However, I don't see how I can "mock" a WebResponse, since (AFAIK) they can only be instantiated by WebRequest.GetResponse How do you guys go about mocking this sort of thing? Do you? I just really don't like the fact I am hammering their servers :S I dont want to change the code too much, but I expect there is a elegant way of doing this.. Update Following Accept Will's answer was the slap in the face I needed, I knew I was missing a fundamental point! Create an Interface that will return a proxy object which represents the XML. Implement the interface twice, on that uses WebRequest, the other that returns static "responses". The interface implmentation then either instantiates the return type based on the response, or the static XML. You can then pass the required class when testing or at production to the service layer. Once I have the code knocked up, I'll paste some samples. Thanks Will :)

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• TypeConverter prevents ApplyPropertyChanges in EntityFramework

  - by Felix

  I ran into an interesting problem (hopefully, interesting not just for me :) I am running Entity Framework 1 (.NET 3.5) and ASP.NET MVC 2. I have a Customer class that has many-to-one relationship with Country class (in other words, Country is a lookup table for customers - I described more in this post: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2404801/explicit-casting-doesnt-work-in-default-model-binding ) I got TypeConverter to work; so I am getting a perfect object into controller's Post method. Create works fine; however, in Edit I am getting the following error when I call ApplyPropertyChanges: The existing object in the ObjectContext is in the Added state. Changes can only be applied when the existing object is in an unchanged or modified state. The controller code is fairly trivial: public ActionResult Edit(Customer customerToEdit) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { Customer cust = (Customer)context.GetObjectByKey( new EntityKey("BAEntities.Customers", "CustomerID", customerToEdit.CustomerID)); context.ApplyPropertyChanges(cust.EntityKey.EntitySetName, customerToEdit); context.SaveChanges(); } return View(...); } If I remove country from the form, it works fine; and if I assign dropdown value to EntityReference "manually" - it works as well. TypeConverter code is also fairly simple, but I've never used TypeConverter before, so I may be missing something here: public override object ConvertFrom(ITypeDescriptorContext typeContext, CultureInfo culture, object value) { if (value is string) { int countryID = Int16.Parse((string)value); Country country = (Country)context.GetObjectByKey( new EntityKey("BAEntities.Countries", "CountryID", countryID)); return country; } return base.ConvertFrom(typeContext, culture, value); }

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• UIAlertViewDelegate method didDismissWithButtonIndex gets called while the phone is sleeping/locked.

  - by Rob

  I have a UIAlertView who's didDismissWithButtonIndex delegate method calls pops the view controller (same class, it's the alertview delegate and the viewcontroller) to return the user to the previous screen. The issue is that when you lock the phone before the [alert show]; is called, something is calling didDismissWithButtonIndex while the phone is locked. Since the response to that is to pop the view controller, which releases and deallocs it, I crash on the callback. What is causing this phantom button press? Seems like a framework bug, but I hate jumping to that conclusion. I'm definitely not hitting the button, because I hit a breakpoint in my code right before it's displayed. Then I lock the phone. Then I continue. I see it do the show, return to the event loop, and then, while the phone is still locked, hit my breakpoint in didDismissWithButtonIndex. There are a few internet/forum postings about similar spurious delegate calls, but no concrete answers. This is on the simulator, and the device, both OS 2.2 and OS 3.0. I'm assuming I'm missing something, but what? Update: Yeah, I created a simple project with just two view controllers, where when the 2nd view controller displays it creates the alert, and shows it. Then I NSLog in the delegate method, and when the phone is locked, it fires once while locked, and then again when it's unlocked and the button is clicked...2 log messages. But when not locked, there's only one. I guess I'll open an issue, but it seems awfully obvious to have survived this long without anyone complaining. :-) I'm going to try and work around it by making an isActive flag value when the willResignActive/didBecomeActive notifications arrive, and if the app isn't active skipping the delegate body. Update I went ahead in July after I posted this and created radar 7097363 for this issue. There's been no response. The workaround in practice works quite well, checking the active status when processing the delegate, and skipping the action if the the app is inactive.

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• onPause/onResume activity issues

  - by Josh

  I have a small test application I am working on which has a timer that updates a textview to countdown from 100 to 0. That works fine, but now I am trying to pause the application if the user presses the back button on the phone and then restart the timer from where they left off when they reopen the app. Here is the code I am using: @Override public void onPause() { if(this._timer_time_remaining > 0) { this.timer.cancel(); } super.onPause(); Log.v("Pausing", String.format("Pausing with %d", this._timer_time_remaining)); } @Override public void onResume() { super.onResume(); Log.v("Resuming", String.format("Resuming with %d", this._timer_time_remaining)); if(this._timer_time_remaining > 0) { setContentView(R.layout.in_game); start_timer(this._timer_time_remaining); } } The start_timer() method creates a CountDownTimer which updates the textview in the onTick method and updates the this._timer_time_remaining int variable. CountDownTimer and _timer_time_remaining are both declared at the class level like this: private CountDownTimer timer; private int _timer_time_remaining; From the Log.v() prints I see that the _timer_time_remaining variable has the correct number of seconds stored when onPause is called, but it is set back to 0 when onResume starts. Why does the variable get reset? I thought that the application would continue to run in the background with the same values. Am I missing something? This is all declared in a class that extends Activity. Thanks in advance!

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• Request for the permission of type 'System.Web.AspNetHostingPermission' failed when compiling web si

  - by ahsteele

  I have been using Windows 7 for a while but have not had to work with a particular legacy intranet application since my upgrade. Unfortunately, this application is setup as an ASP.NET Website project hosted on a remote server. When I have the website open in Visual Studio 2008 and try to debug it I get the following compiler error: Request for the permission of type 'System.Web.AspNetHostingPermission' failed To resolve this issue on Windows Vista machines, I would change the machine's .NET Security Configuration trust level to full for the local intranet (fix outlined here). I believe this configuration utility relied upon the mscorcfg.msc which from some cursory research appears to be apart of the .NET 2.0 SDK. I have tried to follow the instructions from this Microsoft Support article running the command below to no avail. Drive:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\caspol.exe -m -ag 1 -url "file:////\\computername\sharename\*" FullTrust -exclusive on Presently, I have the following .NET and ASP.NET components installed on my machine Microsoft .NET Compact Framework 2.0 SP2 Microsoft .NET Compact Framework 3.5 Microsoft .NET Framework 4 Client Profile Microsoft .NET Framework 4 Extended Microsoft .NET Framework 4 Multi-Targeting Pack Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 1.0 Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 2 Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 2 - Visual Studio 2008 Tools Microsoft ASP.NET MVC 2 - Visual Studio 2010 Tools Do I need to install the .NET 2.0 SDK? Am I issuing the caspol command incorrectly? Is there something else that I am missing?

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• How do I hook into the action method for an iPad popover toolbar button?

  - by Elisabeth

  Hi, I am using the split view template to create a simple split view that has, of course, a popover in Portrait mode. I'm using the default code generated by template that adds/removes the toolbar item and sets the popover controller and removes it. These two methods are splitViewController:willShowViewController:... and splitViewController:willHideViewController:... I'm trying to figure out how to make the popover disappear if the user taps on the toolbar button while the popover is displayed. You can make the popover disappear without selecting an item if you tap anywhere outside the popover, but I would also like to make it disappear if the user taps the button again. Where I'm stuck is this: there doesn't seem to be an obvious, easy way to hook into the action for the toolbar button. I can tell, using the debugger, that the action that's being called on the button is showMasterInPopover. And I am new to working with selectors programmatically, I admit. Can I somehow write an action and set it on the toolbar item without overriding the action that's already there? e.g. add an action that calls the one that's there now? Or would I have to write an action that shows/hides the popover myself (behavior that's being done behind the scenes presumably by the split view controller now???). Or am I missing an easy way to add this behavior to this button without changing the existing behavior that's being set up for me? Thank you!

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• Android ViewPager Displaying TextView in Layout

  - by Ammonious

  I'm having a problem getting my viewpager to work correctly. Currently the bottom part of my layout will page across but the remaining part will not Here's my code that I have in my PageAdapter public class MyPageAdapter extends PagerAdapter { public int getCount() { return 31; } public Object instantiateItem(View collection, int position) { LayoutInflater inflater = (LayoutInflater) collection.getContext() .getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); int resId = 0; switch (position) { case 0: resId = R.layout.main_menu; break; case 1: resId = R.layout.article1; break; case 2: resId = R.layout.article2; break; .... .... View view = inflater.inflate(resId, null); ((ViewPager) collection).addView(view, 0); return view; This is what I have for my XML <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:orientation="vertical" android:background="@drawable/background" android:clickable="true" android:id="@+id/layout13" android:weightSum="0"> <TextView android:id="@+id/textView01" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:gravity="center_vertical|center_horizontal" android:padding="12dp" android:text="@string/article13" android:textAppearance="?android:attr/textAppearanceLarge" android:textColor="#000000" /> <TextView android:id="@+id/textView02" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="302dp" android:gravity="center_vertical|center_horizontal" android:text="@string/body13" android:textAppearance="?android:attr/textAppearanceLarge" android:textColor="#000000" /> <android.support.v4.view.ViewPager android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:id="@id/viewPager" > </android.support.v4.view.ViewPager> </LinearLayout> I've tried Moving the around in my XML layout to right underneath my LinearLayout and i get the full screen but all my text disappears. It's probably something simple i'm missing but any help on this would be greatly appreciated!

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• How do I keep a CALayer, sublayer of a CATiledLayer, from changing it's scale after a zoom ?

  - by David

  I have a CATiledLayer that is used to display a PDF page (this CATiledLayer is the layer type of my UIView which is a subview of a UIScrollView). I want to add overlay markers on this page. So I add a sublayer to my CATiledLayer. This sublayer again hosts the different marker's layers and acts as a grouping layer. So graphically, I have: (keep in mind that I have multiple markers which are CALayers also, this is ascii art after all) pdf page (CATiledLayer) ---------------------- | CALayer | | +---------+ | | | +----+ | | | | |mker| | | | | +----+ | | | +---------+ | | | ---------------------- I have set up the canonical drawLayer:inContext: in my view for drawing the pdf. When I zoom to have more detail, the pdf gets rendered correctly, but the markers get scaled. No matter what I do to the bounds of the CALayer, my markers always become bigger and appear jagged. I would like to have the markers always the same size, as when they were initialized and first shown when the view was drawn. Is this possible ? or am I using a wrong approach ? Should I do special drawing for my contained CALayer in the drawLAyer:inContext: message ? As you see, there are things that I am missing to resolve my problem. Thank you for any help you provide.

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• T-SQL While Loop and concatenation

  - by JustinT

  I have a SQL query that is supposed to pull out a record and concat each to a string, then output that string. The important part of the query is below. DECLARE @counter int; SET @counter = 1; DECLARE @tempID varchar(50); SET @tempID = ''; DECLARE @tempCat varchar(255); SET @tempCat = ''; DECLARE @tempCatString varchar(5000); SET @tempCatString = ''; WHILE @counter <= @tempCount BEGIN SET @tempID = ( SELECT [Val] FROM #vals WHERE [ID] = @counter); SET @tempCat = (SELECT [Description] FROM [Categories] WHERE [ID] = @tempID); print @tempCat; SET @tempCatString = @tempCatString + '<br/>' + @tempCat; SET @counter = @counter + 1; END When the script runs, @tempCatString outputs as null while @tempCat always outputs correctly. Is there some reason that concatenation won't work inside a While loop? That seems wrong, since incrementing @counter works perfectly. So is there something else I'm missing?

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• Visual studio not detecting that exe is out of date after perforce revert

  - by CHaskell2

  This is a bit of an odd situation. Here's what's happening. So, we have a VS2008 project which outputs to a number of files under perforce control. These files have the always writable flag set. I compile the project in VS, which gives me up to date binaries on my machine. If I then revert those binaries via perforce, I have the version of the binaries that were up on perforce (ie, old ones.) Despite this, compiling the project again at this point detects no changes and will not remake those binaries. In a way, this makes sense, since none of the code or obj files have changed, but it's not really what I want to happen. This comes up in an edge case on our automated build server. I can think of tons of different little hacks I could do to fix this, but I'm thinking I could be missing something fundamental here. The actual build process uses the Unreal build tool, so there is a bit of magic going on behind the scenes that I'm not entirely familiar with too. Edit: This is a C/C++ project, forgot to mention that.

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• Converting PDF to images using ImageMagick.NET - how to set the DPI

  - by Avi Pinto

  Hi, I'm trying to convert pdf files to images. ImageMagick is a great tool, and using the command line tool gets me desired result. but i need to do this in my code, So added a reference to http://imagemagick.codeplex.com/ And the following code sample renders each page of the pdf as an image: MagickNet.InitializeMagick(); using (ImageList im = new ImageList()) { im.ReadImages(@"E:\Test\" + fileName + ".pdf"); int count = 0; foreach (Image image in im) { image.Quality = 100; image.CompressType = mageMagickNET.CompressionType.LosslessJPEGCompression; image.Write(@"E:\Test\" + fileName + "-" + count.ToString() + ".jpg"); ++count; } } The problem: IT LOOKS LIKE CRAP the rendered image is hardly readable. the problem i realized is it uses the default 72 DPI of ImageMagick. and i can't find a way to set it(96dpi or 120dpi gives good results) via the .Net wrapper. Am I missing something , or there is really no way to set it via this wrapper? Thanks

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• C++: Explicit DLL Loading: First-chance Exception on non "extern C" functions

  - by Shiftbit

  I am having trouble importing my C++ functions. If I declare them as C functions I can successfully import them. When explicit loading, if any of the functions are missing the extern as C decoration I get a the following exception: First-chance exception at 0x00000000 in cpp.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation. DLL.h: extern "C" __declspec(dllimport) int addC(int a, int b); __declspec(dllimport) int addCpp(int a, int b); DLL.cpp: #include "DLL.h" int addC(int a, int b) { return a + b; } int addCpp(int a, int b) { return a + b; } main.cpp: #include "..DLL/DLL.h" #include <stdio.h> #include <windows.h> int main() { int a = 2; int b = 1; typedef int (*PFNaddC)(int,int); typedef int (*PFNaddCpp)(int,int); HMODULE hDLL = LoadLibrary(TEXT("../Debug/DLL.dll")); if (hDLL != NULL) { PFNaddC pfnAddC = (PFNaddC)GetProcAddress(hDLL, "addC"); PFNaddCpp pfnAddCpp = (PFNaddCpp)GetProcAddress(hDLL, "addCpp"); printf("a=%d, b=%d\n", a,b); printf("pfnAddC: %d\n", pfnAddC(a,b)); printf("pfnAddCpp: %d\n", pfnAddCpp(a,b)); //EXCEPTION ON THIS LINE } getchar(); return 0; } How can I import c++ functions for dynamic loading? I have found that the following code works with implicit loading by referencing the *.lib, but I would like to learn about dynamic loading. Thank you to all in advance.

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• Fail to load NPAPI plugin in Google Chrome on Mac OS X

  - by Roman

  I have been trying to get Google Chrome (6.0.401.1 dev) on Mac OS X to load an NPAPI plugin without success so far. I have been working around the npsimple example from here: http://git.webvm.net/?p=npsimple. Using gcc on Mac and VC++ 2008 on Windows I managed to get it running on Safari and Firefox on Mac OS X and Firefox and Google Chrome on Windows, but not on Google Chrome on Mac OS X. When trying to debug Google Chrome on Mac OS X it seemed Google Chrome was briefly dyld-loading (and immediately dyld-unloading) the plugin on startup, but without actually looking-up any symbols within the plugin or calling any of the functions. It seemed to be doing that for every plugin, though. Also, when loading a page with the embed-tag for the plugin, Google Chrome did not seem to even dyld-load the plugin and no functions were called (not even NP_GetEntryPoints). Google Chrome also does not output any error message, it just simply does not load the plugin. I am not sure I caught everything with gdb because of Google Chrome using different processes, but I have also tried all the switches like --no-sandbox, --single-process and --plugin-startup-dialog (which incidentally does not seem to work at all on Mac OS X). I also made sure the architecture of the binary matches (i.e. 32-bit for Google Chrome). Has anybody had similar problems before? Is there anything I am missing here, like a gcc switch when compiling or something? Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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• How can I debug why this click handler never fires?

  - by tixrus

  I am going to be excrutiatingly detailed here. I am using Firefox 3.6.3 on Max OSX with Firebug 1.5.3. I have two versions of a project, one which works and one with a bug. One I downloaded and one I typed by hand. Take a guess which one doesn't work. They should be the same except that mine uses a newer version of jQuery and the files are named differently. jQuery version is not the issue. I made mine use the older jquery and I made the working one use the newer jquery. Either way, mine still broke and the downloaded one still works. I've busted my eyes trying to see how these projects are different. The only thing I don't want to do is copy the working code to the busted code because I need to be able to figure this stuff out when it is my own unique code causing similar issues. There are no errors that I can see in Firebug in my code, in fact, 2/3 of it works just fine. just the second button does nothing. So I wanted to step through. These are always eyeball errors and I really suck at seeing them. I put it on a public server. http://colleenweb.com/jqtests/ex71.html And I want to debug ex71.js If you firebug the working one and set a break point at line 13 in ex71.js the variable json has the expected values when you click on the second button. But If you firebug this one, it never gets there. I've been over the html and all the names of everything seem to match up. I also wonder why the buttons aren't right justified but that's a css thing. Please tell me what I'm missing, and more importantly, what tool/technique I could use to find these types of bugs.

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• [MFC] I can't re-parent a window

  - by John

  Following on from this question, now I have a clearer picture what's going on... I have a MFC application with no main window, which exposes an API to create dialogs. When I call some of these methods repeatedly, the dialogs created are parented to each other instead of all being parented to the desktop... I have no idea why. But anyway even after creation, I am unable to change the parent back to NULL or CWnd::GetDesktopWindow()... if I call SetParent followed by GetParent, nothing has changed. So apart from the really weird question of why Windows is magically parenting each dialog to the last one created, is there anything I'm missing to be able to set these windows as children of the desktop? UPDATED: I have found the reason for all this, but not the solution. From my dialog constructor, we end up in: BOOL CDialog::CreateIndirect(LPCDLGTEMPLATE lpDialogTemplate, CWnd* pParentWnd, void* lpDialogInit, HINSTANCE hInst) { ASSERT(lpDialogTemplate != NULL); if (pParentWnd == NULL) pParentWnd = AfxGetMainWnd(); m_lpDialogInit = lpDialogInit; return CreateDlgIndirect(lpDialogTemplate, pParentWnd, hInst); } Note: if (pParentWnd == NULL)pParentWnd = AfxGetMainWnd(); The call-stack from my dialog constructor looks like this: mfc80d.dll!CDialog::CreateIndirect(const DLGTEMPLATE * lpDialogTemplate=0x005931a8, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000, void * lpDialogInit=0x00000000, HINSTANCE__ * hInst=0x00400000) mfc80d.dll!CDialog::CreateIndirect(void * hDialogTemplate=0x005931a8, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000, HINSTANCE__ * hInst=0x00400000) mfc80d.dll!CDialog::Create(const char * lpszTemplateName=0x0000009d, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000) mfc80d.dll!CDialog::Create(unsigned int nIDTemplate=157, CWnd * pParentWnd=0x00000000) MyApp.exe!CMyDlg::CMyDlg(CWnd * pParent=0x00000000)

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• sermyadmin 2.01

  - by lepricon123

  I am able to install sermyadmin 2.0.1 and got everything working. Only user registration is not working. When I register a user the entry goe sin DB etc find but the email is not send to the user. We are using our own smtp server with no authentication. And I am sure there is nothing wrong with the smtp server. I can see that it has received a request from sermyadmin but in the logs Is ee that the FROM adddress is missing. So it is throwing 553 5.1.8 Domain of sender address does not exist. The domain does exist. Here is my resources.xml with all the valid entries. Since I don;t need the smtp authentication which the server is not using, i removed that. <beans xmlns="www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation=" www.springframework.org/schema/beans www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spr...ns-2.0.xsd"> <bean id="mailSender" class="org.springframework.mail.javamail.JavaMailSenderImpl"> <property name="host" value="10.100.22.365" /> </bean> <bean id="mailMessage" class="org.springframework.mail.SimpleMailMessage"> <property name="from" value="[email protected]" /> </bean> </beans>

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• Binding DataGridComboBoxColumn to a one to many entity framework relation

  - by Cristian

  I have two tables in the model, one table contains entries related to the other table in a one to many relations, for example: Table User ID Name Table Comments ID UserID Title Text I want to show a datagrid in a WPF window with two columns, one text column with the User name and another column with a combobox showing all the comments made by the user. The datagrid definition is like this: <DataGrid AutoGenerateColumns="False" [layout options...] Name="dataGrid1" ItemsSource="{Binding}"> <DataGrid.Columns> <DataGridTextColumn Header="Name" Binding="{Binding Path=Name}"/> <DataGridComboBoxColumn Header="Comments" SelectedValueBinding="{Binding Path=UserID}" SelectedValuePath="ID" DisplayMemberPath="Title" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Comments}" /> </DataGrid.Columns> </DataGrid> in the code I assign the DataContext like this: dataGrid1.DataContext = entities.Users; The entity User has a property named Comments that leads to all the comments made by the user. The queries are returning data and the user names are shown but the combobox is not being filled. May be the approach is totally wrong or I'm just missing a very simple point here, I'm opened to learn better methods to do this. Thanks

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• C++ linking error when linking postgresql

  - by Brent Rowswell

  When compiling my code I run into an issue as follows: io.cpp:21: undefined reference to `PQconnectdb' as well as all other instances of missing postgres function calls occurring in my code. Obviously this is a linking problem, I'm just not sure what the link issue is. I'm compiling with the following: mpiCC -c -O2 -g -Wall -Werror -I /usr/include/postgresql/ decisioning_mpi.cpp g++ -c -O2 -g -Wall -Werror -I /usr/include/postgresql/ io.cpp g++ -c -O2 -g -Wall -Werror -I /usr/include/postgresql/ calculations.cpp g++ -c -O2 -g -Wall -Werror -I /usr/include/postgresql/ rules.cpp g++ -c -O2 -g -Wall -Werror -I /usr/include/postgresql/ Instrument.cpp g++ -c -O2 -g -Wall -Werror -I /usr/include/postgresql/ Backtest_Parameter_CPO.cpp g++ -c -O2 -g -Wall -Werror -I /usr/include/postgresql/ Backtest_Trade_CPO.cpp g++ -c -O2 -g -Wall -Werror -I /usr/include/postgresql/ Data_Bar.cpp mpiCC -o decisioning_mpi -O2 -g -Wall -Werror -L/usr/lib -lm -lpq decisioning_mpi.o io.o calculations.o rules.o Instrument.o Backtest_Parameter_CPO.o Backtest_Trade_CPO.o Data_Bar.o It should be noted that this is the correct directory for libpq-fe.h and that I'm linking pq, so I'm not exactly sure why the postgres functions aren't linking correctly. I'm running Ubuntu 12.04 and installed psql (PostgreSQL) 9.1.6 from synaptic. As well I'll short circuit this, I am using #include "libpq-fe.h". Any ideas on how I can get this linking issue resolved?

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• MVC2 and jquery.validate.js

  - by Will I Am

  I am experiencing some confusion with jquery.validate.js First of all, what is MicrosoftMvcJqueryValidation.js. It is referenced in snippets on the web but appears to have dissapeared from the RTM MVC2 and is now in futures. Do I need it? The reason I'm asking is that I'm trying to use the validator with MVC and I can't get it to work. I defined my JS as: $(document).ready(function () { $("#myForm").validate({ rules: { f_fullname: { required: true }, f_email: { required: true, email: true }, f_email_c: { equalTo: "#f_email" }, f_password: { required: true, minlength: 6 }, f_password_c: { equalTo: "#f_password" } }, messages: { f_fullname: { required: "* required" }, f_email: { required: "* required", email: "* not a valid email address" }, f_email_c: { equalTo: "* does not match the other email" }, f_password: { required: "* required", minlength: "password must be at least 6 characters long" }, f_password_c: { equalTo: "* does not match the other email" } } }); }); and my form on the view: <% using (Html.BeginForm("CreateNew", "Account", FormMethod.Post, new { id = "myForm" })) { %> <fieldset> <label for="f_fullname">name:</label><input id="f_fullname"/> <label for="f_email"><input id="f_email"/> ...etc... <input type="submit" value="Create" id="f_submit"/> </fieldset> <% } %> and the validation method gets called on .ready() with no errors in firebug. however when I submit the form, nothing gets validated and the form gets submitted. If I create a submitHandler() it gets called, but the plugin doesn't detect any validation errors (.valid() == true) What am I missing?

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• How to create X509 self signed certificate for use in Apache Tomcat

  - by DaveJohnston

  I have a Java application that runs on Windows Mobile devices using a 3rd Party JVM. The application communicates with an Apache Tomcat server over HTTP. We have also used HTTPS for some connections and the certificates were created using the Sun keytool utility. First a keystore was created using genkey, then the certificate exported using export and finally that was imported into another keystore using import. The file created by genkey was loaded into the Apache server and the keystore created using import was loaded into the JVM on the PDA. Everything works as expected. I am now working with a new JVM on the PDA and (for whatever reason) I have established that this JVM requires the keystore to be in X509 (DER) format. I started working on this about a month ago and had it working, but stupidly never wrote down the steps I took, and now I can't for the life of me remember what I did. I seem to remember using openssl but other than that I am totally lost. Anything I create now using openssl and try to load into Apache causes an error at startup (Invalid Keystore Format) so I am probably missing something out entirely. Does anyone have any ideas how I should be going about creating this self-signed X509 certificate that can be loaded into Apache server and JVM running on a PDA?

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