Search Results

Search found 20755 results on 831 pages for 'custom map'.

Page 387/831 | < Previous Page | 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390 391 392 393 394  | Next Page >

  • How do I execute queries upon DB connection in Rails?

    - by sycobuny
    I have certain initializing functions that I use to set up audit logging on the DB server side (ie, not rails) in PostgreSQL. At least one has to be issued (setting the current user) before inserting data into or updating any of the audited tables, or else the whole query will fail spectacularly. I can easily call these every time before running any save operation in the code, but DRY makes me think I should have the code repeated in as few places as possible, particularly since this diverges greatly from the ideal of database agnosticism. Currently I'm attempting to override ActiveRecord::Base.establish_connection in an initializer to set it up so that the queries are run as soon as I connect automatically, but it doesn't behave as I expect it to. Here is the code in the initializer: class ActiveRecord::Base # extend the class methods, not the instance methods class << self alias :old_establish_connection :establish_connection # hide the default def establish_connection(*args) ret = old_establish_connection(*args) # call the default # set up necessary session variables for audit logging # call these after calling default, to make sure conn is established 1st db = self.class.connection db.execute("SELECT SV.set('current_user', 'test@localhost')") db.execute("SELECT SV.set('audit_notes', NULL)") # end "empty variable" err ret # return the default's original value end end end puts "Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base" sycobuny:~/rails$ ruby script/server = Booting WEBrick = Rails 2.3.5 application starting on http://0.0.0.0:3000 Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base This doesn't give me any errors, and unfortunately I can't check what the method looks like internally (I was using ActiveRecord::Base.method(:establish_connection), but apparently that creates a new Method object each time it's called, which is seemingly worthless cause I can't check object_id for any worthwhile information and I also can't reverse the compilation). However, the code never seems to get called, because any attempt to run a save or an update on a database object fails as I predicted earlier. If this isn't a proper way to execute code immediately on connection to the database, then what is?

    Read the article

  • Dismiss android activity displayed as Popup

    - by Sit
    So i have a service, that starts an activity displayed as a Popup thank's to "android:style/Theme.Dialog" This Activity shows a Listview, with a list of application. On each element of the listview, there is a short description of the application, and two buttons. 1 for launching the application 2 for displaying a toast with more informations. Here is the code in my service : it starts the activity Intent intent = new Intent(this, PopUpActivity.class); intent.addFlags(Intent.FLAG_DEBUG_LOG_RESOLUTION); intent.addFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); getApplicationContext().startActivity(intent); this activity uses a custom layout, with a listview, adapted with a custom ArrayAdapter In this adaptater, i've put an action on the start button in order to start the current application Button lanceur = (Button) v.findViewById(R.id.Buttonlancer); lanceur.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { p.start(mcontext); } }); with p.start, i start the application. But now, if i press "back" from the application, i go back to the popup... and i can start another application. I don't want it to be possible. That's why i wish i could dismiss/destroy/finish my PopupActivity, but i can't manage to do it with the code i have.

    Read the article

  • How would I compare two Lists(Of <CustomClass>) in VB?

    - by Kumba
    I'm working on implementing the equality operator = for a custom class of mine. The class has one property, Value, which is itself a List(Of OtherClass), where OtherClass is yet another custom class in my project. I've already implemented the IComparer, IComparable, IEqualityComparer, and IEquatable interfaces, the operators =, <>, bool and not, and overriden Equals and GetHashCode for OtherClass. This should give me all the tools I need to compare these objects, and various tests comparing two singular instances of these objects so far checks out. However, I'm not sure how to approach this when they are in a List. I don't care about the list order. Given: Dim x As New List(Of OtherClass) From {New OtherClass("foo"), New OtherClass("bar"), New OtherClass("baz")} Dim y As New List(Of OtherClass) From {New OtherClass("baz"), New OtherClass("foo"), New OtherClass("bar")} Then (x = y).ToString should print out True. I need to compare the same (not distinct) set of objects in this list. The list shouldn't support dupes of OtherClass, but I'll have to figure out how to add that in later as an exception. Not interested in using LINQ. It looks nice, but in the few examples I've played with, adds a performance overhead in that bugs me. Loops are ugly, but they are fast :) A straight code answer is fine, but I'd like to understand the logic needed for such a comparison as well. I'm probably going to have to implement said logic more than a few times down the road.

    Read the article

  • Legacy application creates dialogs in non-ui thread.

    - by Frater
    I've been working support for a while on a legacy application and I've noticed a bit of a problem. The system is an incredibly complex client/server with standard and custom frameworks. One of the custom frameworks built into the application involves validating workflow actions. It finds potential errors, separates them into warnings and errors, and passes the results back to the client. The main difference between warnings and errors is that warnings ask the user if they wish to ignore the error. The issue I have is that the dialog for this prompt is created on a non-ui thread, and thus we get cross-threading issues when the dialog is shown. I have attempted to invoke the showing of the dialog, however this fails because the window handle has not been created. (InvokeRequired returns false, which I assume in this case means it cannot find a decent handle in its parent tree, rather than that it doesn't require it.) Does anyone have any suggestions for how I can create this dialog and get the UI thread to set it up and call it?

    Read the article

  • Clear listview content?

    - by Slash
    I have a little problem with listview. How do i clear a listview content, knowing that it has a custom adapter? edit : the custom adapter class extends BaseAdapter, it looks like this : import android.app.Activity; import android.content.Context; import android.view.LayoutInflater; import android.view.View; import android.view.ViewGroup; import android.widget.BaseAdapter; import android.widget.TextView; public class MyAdapter extends BaseAdapter { private Activity activity; private String[] data; private static LayoutInflater inflater=null; public MyAdapter(Activity _a, String[] _str) { activity = _a; data = _str; inflater = (LayoutInflater)activity.getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); } public static class ViewHolder{ public TextView text; } @Override public int getCount() { return data.length; } @Override public Object getItem(int position) { return position; } @Override public long getItemId(int position) { return position; } @Override public View getView(int position, View view, ViewGroup parent) { View v = view; ViewHolder holder; if(v == null) { v = inflater.inflate(R.layout.rowa, null); holder=new ViewHolder(); holder.text=(TextView)v.findViewById(R.id.dexter); v.setTag(holder); }else{ holder=(ViewHolder)v.getTag(); } holder.text.setText(data[position]); return v; } }

    Read the article

  • Sending data back to Controller Spring-MVC

    - by Umesh Awasthi
    I am not sure if this is a complex problem but as a starting person this seems a bit complex to me. I have an object based on which i need to show some values on the UI and let user select some of them, i need to send data back to another controller when user click on the submit button.Here is the structure of my data object public class PrsData{ private Map<String, List<PrsCDData>> prsCDData; } public class PrsCDData{ private Map<String, Collection<ConfiguredDesignData>> configuredDesignData; } public ConfiguredDesignData{ // simple fields } I have set the object in model before showing the view like model.addAttribute("prsData", productData.getPrData()); In the form i have following settings <form:form method="post" commandName="prsData" action="${addProductToCartAction}" > <form:hidden path="prsCDData['${prsCDDataMap.key}'] [${status.index}].configuredDesignData['${configuredDesignDataMap.key}'] [${configuredDesignDataStatus.index}].code"/> <form:hidden path="prsCDData['${prsCDDataMap.key}'] [${status.index}].configuredDesignData['${configuredDesignDataMap.key}'] [${configuredDesignDataStatus.index}].description"/> </form:form> This is what i have at AddProductToCartController public String addToCart(@RequestParam("productCodePost") final String code, @ModelAttribute("prsData") final PrsData prsData, final Model model, @RequestParam(value = "qty", required = false, defaultValue = "1") final long qty) On submitting the form i am getting following exception org.springframework.beans.NullValueInNestedPathException: Invalid property 'prsCDData[Forced][0]' of bean class [com.product.data.PrsData]: Cannot access indexed value of property referenced in indexed property path 'prsCDData[Forced][0]': returned null It seems like its trying to access the values on this controller while i am trying to send value to that controller and trying to create same object with selected values Can any one tell me where i am doing wrong and what i need to take care of

    Read the article

  • Excel - Variable number of leading zeros in variable length numbers?

    - by daltec
    The format of our member numbers has changed several times over the years, such that 00008, 9538, 746, 0746, 00746, 100125, and various other permutations are valid, unique and need to be retained. Exporting from our database into the custom Excel template needed for a mass update strips the leading zeros, such that 00746 and 0746 are all truncated to 746. Inserting the apostrophe trick, or formatting as text, does not work in our case, since the data seems to be already altered by the time we open it in Excel. Formatting as zip won't work since we have valid numbers less than five digits in length that cannot have zeros added to them. And I am not having any luck with "custom" formatting as that seems to require either adding the same number of leading zeros to a number, or adding enough zeros to every number to make them all the same length. Any clues? I wish there was some way to set Excel to just take what it's given and leave it alone, but that does not seem to be the case! I would appreciate any suggestions or advice. Thank you all very much in advance!

    Read the article

  • local vs core contoller

    - by latvian
    Hi, I am adding new column and action in the local admin app/code/local/Mage/Adminhtml/Block/Catalog/Product/Grid.php which works fine, however. The local controller/app/code/local/Mage/Adminhtml/Block/Catalog/Product.php is not being used or is not overloading the admin one /app/code/core/Mage/Adminhtml/Block/Catalog/Product.php. This is almost fresh install of Magento 1.4.0.1. I am the only one working, so i know it is not overloaded by some custom controller. I have disabled all custom modules. I have rolled back most of my changes. I have checked /etc/Modules/Mage_Catalog.xml. Refreshed cache all possible ways, loged in and out. Nothing....still using the core contoller copy. why? How do you troubleshoot, meaning, at what moment magento decides using between core or local copies? ...its even more strange because it does not parse local Adminhtml config.xml but uses local Adminthml copy of Blocks. Any pointer would help. I would like to keep everything in local code. Thank You, Margots

    Read the article

  • Black Magic in Grails Data Binding!?

    - by Tiago Alves
    As described in http://n4.nabble.com/Grails-Data-Binding-for-One-To-Many-Relationships-with-REST-tp1754571p1754571.html i'm trying to automatically bind my REST data. I understand now that for one-to-many associations the map that is required for the data binding must have a list of ids of the many side such as: [propName: propValue, manyAssoc: [1, 2]] However, I'm getting this exception Executing action [save] of controller [com.example.DomainName] caused exception: org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.HibernateSystemException: IllegalArgumentException occurred calling getter of com.example.DomainName.id; nested exception is org.hibernate.PropertyAccessException: IllegalArgumentException occurred calling getter of com.example.DomainName.id However, even weirder is the update action that is generated for the controller. There we have the databinding like this: domainObjectInstance.properties = params['domainObject'] But, and this is the really weird thing, params['domainObject'] is null! It is null because all the domainObject fields are passed directly in the params map itself. If I change the above line to domainObjectInstance.properties = null the domainObject is still updated! Why is this happening and more important, how can I bind my incoming XML automatically if it comes in this format (the problem is the one-to-many associations): <product> <name>Table</name> <brand id="1" /> <categories> <category id="1" /> <category id="2" /> </categories> </product>

    Read the article

  • How to configure multiple mappings using FluentHibernate?

    - by chris.baglieri
    First time rocking it with NHibernate/Fluent so apologies in advance if this is a naive question. I have a set of Models I want to map. When I create my session factory I'm trying to do all mappings at once. I am not using auto-mapping (though I may if what I am trying to do ends up being more painful than it ought to be). The problem I am running into is that it seems only the top map is taking. Given the code snippet below and running a unit test that attempts to save 'bar', it fails and checking the logs I see NHibernate is trying to save a bar entity to the foo table. While I suspect it's my mappings it could be something else that I am simply overlooking. Code that creates the session factory (note I've also tried separate calls into .Mappings): Fluently.Configure().Database(MsSqlConfiguration.MsSql2008 .ConnectionString(c => c .Server(@"localhost\SQLEXPRESS") .Database("foo") .Username("foo") .Password("foo"))) .Mappings(m => { m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<FooMap>() .Conventions.Add(FluentNHibernate.Conventions.Helpers .Table.Is(x => "foos")); m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<BarMap>() .Conventions.Add(FluentNHibernate.Conventions.Helpers .Table.Is(x => "bars")); }) .BuildSessionFactory(); Unit test snippet: using (var session = Data.SessionHelper.SessionFactory.OpenSession()) { var bar = new Bar(); session.Save(bar); Assert.NotNull(bar.Id); }

    Read the article

  • Running Sitecore Production Site under a Virtual Directory

    - by danswain
    We are using Sitecore 6 on a Windows Server 2003 (32bit) dev machine. I know it's not recommended for the CMS editing site, but we've been told it is possible to get the front-end Sitecore websites to run from within a virtual directory. Here's the issue: we'd like to achieve what the below poor mans diagram shows. We have a website (.net 1.1) /WebSiteRoot (.net 1.1) | | |---- Custom .net 1.1 Web Application | |---- SiteCore frontend WebApplication (.net 2.0) | |---- Custom .net 2.0 WebApplication The Sitecore webApplication would contain the Sitecore pipeline in its web.config and we'd make use of the section to configure the virtual folder to allow for where our Sitecore app sits and point it to the appropriate place in the Content Tree. Is it possible to pull this off? This is just the customer facing website, there will be no CMS editing functionality on these servers, that will be done from a more standard Sitecore install inside the firewall on a different server. The errors we're encountering are centered around loading the the various config files in the App_Config folder. It seems to do a Server.MapPath on "/" initially (which is wrong for us) so we've tried putting absolute paths in the web.config and still no joy (I think there must be some hardcoded piece that looks for the Include directory). Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Using the AutoComplete feature of ComboBox, while limiting values to those in the list?

    - by Schmuli
    In WinForms 2.0, a ComboBox has an Auto-Complete feature, that displays a custom Drop-Down list with only the values that start with the entered text. However, if I want to limit valid values to only those that appear in the ComboBox's list of items, I can do that by setting the DropDownStyle to DropDownList, which stops the user from entering a value. However, now I can't use the Auto-Complete feature, which requires user input. Is there another way to limit input to the list, while still allowing use of the Auto-Complete feature? Note that I have seen some custom solutions for this, but I really like the way the matching Auto-Complete items are displayed in a Drop-Down list, and sorted even though the original list may not be. EDIT: I have thought about just validating the entered value, i.e. testing user input if it is valid in, say, the TextChanged event, or even using the Validating event. The question then is what is the expected behavior? Do I clear their value (an empty value is also invalid), or do I use a default value? Closest matching value? P.s. Is there any other tags that I could add to this question?

    Read the article

  • What is the most efficient way of associating information with a Type in .Net?

    - by Miguel Angelo
    I want to associate custom data to a Type, and retrieve that data in run-time, blasingly fast. This is just my imagination, of my perfect world: var myInfo = typeof(MyClass).GetMyInformation(); this would be very fast... of course this does not exist! If it did I would not be asking. hehe ;) This is the way using custom attributes: var myInfo = typeof(MyClass).GetCustomAttribute("MyInformation"); this is slow because it requires a lookup of the string "MyInformation" This is a way using a Dictionary<Type, MyInformation: var myInfo = myInformationDictionary[typeof(MyClass)]; This is also slow because it is still a lookup of 'typeof(MyClass)'. I know that dictionary is very fast, but this is not enough... it is not as fast as calling a method. It is not even the same order of speed. I am not saying I want it to be as fast as a method call. I want to associate information with a type and access it as fast as possible. I am asking whether there is a better way, or event a best way of doing it. Any ideas?? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Using an embedded DB (SQLite / SQL Compact) for Message Passing within an app?

    - by wk1989
    Hello, Just out of curiosity, for applications that have a fairly complicated module tree, would something like sqlite/sql compact edition work well for message passing? So if I have modules containing data such as: \SubsystemA\SubSubSysB\ModuleB\ModuleDataC, \SubSystemB\SubSubSystemC\ModuleA\ModuleDataX Using traditional message passing/routing, you have to go through intermediate modules in order to pass a message to ModuleB to request say ModuleDataC. Instead of doing that, if we we simply store "\SubsystemA\SubSubSysB\ModuleB\ModuleDataC" in a sqlite database, getting that data is as simple as a sql query and needs no routing and passing stuff around. Has anyone done this before? Even if you haven't, do you foresee any issues & performance impact? The only concern I have right now would be the passing of custom types, e.g. if ModuleDataC is a custom data structure or a pointer, I'll need some way of storing the data structure into the DB or storing the pointer into the DB. Thanks, JW EDIT One usage case I haven't thought about is when you want to send a message from ModuleA to ModuleB to get ModuleB to do something rather than just getting/setting data. Is it possible to do this using an embedded DB? I believe callback from the DB would be needed, how feasible is this?

    Read the article

  • How to best manage multi-frame MovieClips with classes?

    - by Arms
    After switching to AS3, I've been having a hell of a time figuring out the best way to manage MovieClips that have UI elements spread across multiple frames with a single class. An example that I am working on now is a simple email form. I have a MovieClip with two frames: the 1st frame has the form elements (text inputs, submit button) the 2nd frame has a "thank you" message and a button to go back to the first frame (to send another email) In the library I have linked the MovieClip to a custom class (Emailer). My immediate problem is how do I assign a MouseEvent.CLICK event to the button on the 2nd frame? I should note at this point that I am trying to avoid putting code on the timeline (except for stop() calls). This is how I am 'solving' the problem now: Emailer registers an event listener for a frame change ( addEventListener("frame 2", onFrameChange) ) On the 2nd frame of the MovieClip I am calling dispatchEvent(new Event("frame 2")); (I would prefer to not have this code on the frame, but I don't know what else to do) My two complaints with this method are that, first I have calls to addEventListener spread out across different class methods (I would rather have all UI event listeners registered in one method), and second that I have to dispatch those custom "onFrameChange" events. The second complaint grows exponentially for MovieClips that have more than just 2 frames. My so called solution feels makes me feel dirty and makes my brain hurt. I am looking for any advice on what to do differently. Perhaps there's a design pattern I should be looking at? Should I swallow my pride and write timeline code even though the rest of my application is written in class files (and I abhor the Flash IDE code editor)? I absolutely LOVE the event system, and have no problem coding applications with it, but I feel like I'm stuck thinking in terms of AS2 when working with mutl-frame movieclips and code. Any and all help would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How to iterate properly across a const set?

    - by Jared
    I'm working on a program that's supposed to represent a graph. My issue is in my printAdjacencyList function. Basically, I have a Graph ADT that has a member variable "nodes", which is a map of the nodes of that graph. Each Node has a set of Edge* to the edges it is connected to. I'm trying to iterate across each node in the graph and each edge of a node. void MyGraph::printAdjacencyList() { std::map<std::string, MyNode*>::iterator mit; std::set<MyEdge*>::iterator sit; for (mit = nodes.begin(); mit != nodes.end(); mit++ ) { std::cout << mit->first << ": {"; const std::set<MyEdge*> edges = mit->second->getEdges(); for (sit = edges.begin(); sit != edges.end(); sit++) { std::pair<MyNode*, MyNode*> edgeNodes = *sit->getEndpoints(); } } std::cout << " }" << std::endl; } getEdges is declared as: const std::set<MyEdge*>& getEdges() { return edges; }; and get Endpoints is declared as: const std::pair<MyNode*, MyNode*>& getEndpoints() { return nodes; }; The compiler error I'm getting is: MyGraph.cpp:63: error: request for member `getEndpoints' in `*(&sit)->std::_Rb_tree_const_iterator<_Tp>::operator-> [with _Tp = MyEdge*]()', which is of non-class type `MyEdge* const' MyGraph.cpp:63: warning: unused variable 'edgeNodes' I have figured out that this probably means I'm misusing const somewhere, but I can't figure out where for the life of me. Any information would be appreciated. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Which way to store this data is effective?

    - by Tattat
    I am writing a game, which need a map, and I want to store the map. The first thing I can think of, is using a 2D-array. But the problem is what data should I store in the 2D-array. The player can tap different place to have different reaction. So, I am thinking store a 2D-array with objects, when player click some position, and I find it in the array, and use the object in that array to execute a cmd. But I have a concern that storing lots of object may use lots of memory. So, I am think storing char/int only. But it seems that not enough for me. I want to store the data like that: { Type:1 Color:Green } No matter what color is, if they are all type 1, the have same reactions in logic, but the visual effect is based on the color. So, it is not easy to store using a prue char/int data, unless I make something like this: 1-5 --> all type 1. 1=color green , 2=color red, 3 = color yellow.... ... 6-10 --> all type 2. 2 = color green, 2 = color red ... ... So, do you have any ideas on how to minimize the ram use, but also easy for me to read... ...thx

    Read the article

  • Passing bundle to activity set as singletask

    - by Falmarri
    So I have a MapActivity that runs an asynchtask that occasionally updates what exactly it's displaying on the map (via a string). I originally pass this string in from the intent when the activity is first created. And then if you click on one of the drawables on the map, it opens a new activity, which can then create a new mapview (same class) with a different string setting. The problem I have is that I only want one instance of the mapview to be running at once. Thus I set android:launchmode="singletask" in the manifest. This works in that it brings the mapactivity to the front, but is there any way to send it a new intent bundle to get a new setting for the string it needs? I tried regetting the extras from the bundle, but it seems to retain the old bundle, not the new intent that was passed to it. I'm not sure I want to do startActivityForResult because the 2nd activity may or may not want to update the original activity. I hope that made sense. I can post code if necessary, but I think that should explain my situation.

    Read the article

  • Textblock doesnt get updated when rendered in memory?

    - by veechi
    I have a text block which as part of a custom control.I added the custom control as a child of grid which in turn is added as child of a Canvas.All of these contorl are instantiated in memory and are not rendered on the UI.When I update the value of the TextBlock and emboss the canvas on an image, the updated value doesnt appear on the embossed image.Here is the code snippet:- System.Windows.Controls.Canvas embossCanvas = new System.Windows.Controls.Canvas(); System.Windows.Controls.Grid grid = new Grid(); MyControl myctrl= new MyControl(); int wd = (int)myctrl.ActualWidth; int ht = (int)myctrl.ActualHeight; embossCanvas.Width = wd; embossCanvas.Height = ht; grid.Children.Add(myctrl); embossCanvas.Children.Add(grid); myctrl.txtBlk.UpdateLayout(); grid.UpdateLayout(); embossCanvas.Measure(new System.Windows.Size(embossCanvas.Width, embossCanvas.Height)); embossCanvas.Arrange(new System.Windows.Rect(0, 0, embossCanvas.Width, (int)embossCanvas.Height)); embossCanvas.UpdateLayout(); RenderTargetBitmap renderBmp = new RenderTargetBitmap(wd, ht, 96, 96, System.Windows.Media.PixelFormats.Default); renderBmp.Render(embossCanvas);

    Read the article

  • Android ProgressDialog inside another dialog

    - by La bla bla
    I'm working on a game using AndEngine, and I need to show the users the list of his Facebook friends. I've created my custom Adatper and after the loading finishes everything works great. I have a problem with the loading it self. The ListView is inside a custom dialog, since I don't really know how to create one using AndEngine, So inside this dialog, I'm running an AsyncTask to fetch the friends' info, in that AsyncTask I'm have a ProgressDialog. The problem is, the ProgressDialog shows up behind the dialog that contains the to-be list (which while loading, is just the title). I can see the ProgressDialog "peeking" behind that dialog.. Any Ideas? Here's some code: FriendsDialog.java private ProgressDialog dialog; //Constructor of the AsyncTask public FriendsLoader(Context context) { dialog = new ProgressDialog(context); dialog.setMessage("Please wait..\nLoading Friends List."); } @Override protected void onPreExecute() { dialog.requestWindowFeature(Window.FEATURE_NO_TITLE); LayoutInflater inflater = (LayoutInflater)context.getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); dialog.setView(inflater.inflate(R.layout.loading, null)); dialog.setMessage("Please wait..\nLoading friends."); dialog.show(); } @Override protected void onPostExecute(ArrayList<HashMap<String, Object>> data) { if (dialog.isShowing()) { dialog.dismiss(); } MyAdapter myAdapter = new MyAdapter(context, data); listView = (ListView) findViewById(R.id.list); listView.setAdapter(myAdapter); listView.setOnItemClickListener(new AdapterView.OnItemClickListener() { @Override public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> myAdapter, View myView, int myItemInt, long mylng) { String id = (String) listView.getItemAtPosition(myItemInt); listener.onUserSelected(id); dismiss(); } }); }

    Read the article

  • How to deal with unknown entity references?

    - by Chris
    I'm parsing (a lot of) XML files that contain entity references which i dont know in advance (can't change that fact). For example: xml = "<tag>I'm content with &funny; &entity; &references;.</tag>" when i try to parse this using the following code: final DocumentBuilderFactory dbf = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); final DocumentBuilder db = dbf.newDocumentBuilder(); final InputSource is = new InputSource(new StringReader(xml)); final Document d = db.parse(is); i get the following exception: org.xml.sax.SAXParseException: The entity "funny" was referenced, but not declared. but, what i do want to achieve is, that the parser replaces every entity that is not declared (unknown to the parser) with an empty String ''. Or even better, is there a way to pass a map to the parser like: Map<String,String> entityMapping = ... entityMapping.put("funny","very"); entityMapping.put("entity","important"); entityMapping.put("references","stuff"); so that i could do the following: final DocumentBuilderFactory dbf = DocumentBuilderFactory.newInstance(); final DocumentBuilder db = dbf.newDocumentBuilder(); final InputSource is = new InputSource(new StringReader(xml)); db.setEntityResolver(entityMapping); final Document d = db.parse(is); if i would obtain the text from the document using this example code i should receive: I'm content with very important stuff. Any suggestions? Of course, i already would be happy to just replace the unknown entity's with empty strings. Thanks,

    Read the article

  • WCF publish/subscribe service, and ASP.NET MVC client

    - by d3j4vu
    I managed to develop a custom WCF service, using the publish / subscribe model, and hosted inside a managed windows service. Everything's working. I developed an interface as the service contract implementing a method definition marked as a non-one way operation contract (OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)]. This, to make possible returns an instance of a custom class derived from System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult. In the MVC app, event fires ok. It wraps inside an action method, (just the one defined in the interface), but, and this is my current problem, i believe that something relative to the execution context of the windows service (and the hosted wcf counterpart) blocks the execution of the action method in the MVC app. This is what i have until now (some pieces ripped off just to be more clear): /// Method definition for the contract's service. Maps to a MVC ActionMethod. [OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)] ActionResult Imagen(string data, CustomActionResult result); The class to hold an ActionResult derived class instance: public class ServiceEventArgsMvc : ServiceEventArgs { /// <summary> /// /// </summary> public CustomActionResult Result { get; set; } } And the code in the MVC client app: /// <summary> /// Just a simple class to hold an abstract ActionResult derived class instance. /// </summary> public ActionResult Image(string data, CustomActionResult result) { ViewData["data"] = data; return View(); } Ok. ActionMethod sucessfully executes...but when it's done (and usually expected obtain a reditection to a View named Image, like the action method), the WCF service throws a Timeout exception, making clear that he's still waiting for a response from the MVC client. The response never arrives, so the MVC app never finish his work (redirect to the "Image" view as expected). Any ideas?. Guess i'm missing something very simple, but i don't know what it could be. This is drivin' me nuts.

    Read the article

  • Optimized 2D Tile Scrolling in OpenGL

    - by silicus
    Hello, I'm developing a 2D sidescrolling game and I need to optimize my tiling code to get a better frame rate. As of right now I'm using a texture atlas and 16x16 tiles for 480x320 screen resolution. The level scrolls in both directions, and is significantly larger than 1 screen (thousands of pixels). I use glTranslate for the actual scrolling. So far I've tried: Drawing only the on-screen tiles using glTriangles, 2 per square tile (too much overhead) Drawing the entire map as a Display List (great on a small level, way to slow on a large one) Partitioning the map into Display Lists half the size of the screen, then culling display lists (still slows down for 2-directional scrolling, overdraw is not efficient) Any advice is appreciated, but in particular I'm wondering: I've seen Vertex Arrays/VBOs suggested for this because they're dynamic. What's the best way to take advantage of this? If I simply keep 1 screen of vertices plus a bit of overdraw, I'd have to recopy the array every few frames to account for the change in relative coordinates (shift everything over and add the new rows/columns). If I use more overdraw this doesn't seem like a big win; it's like the half-screen display list idea. Does glScissor give any gain if used on a bunch of small tiles like this, be it a display list or a vertex array/VBO Would it be better just to build the level out of large textures and then use glScissor? Would losing the memory saving of tiling be an issue for mobile development if I do this (just curious, I'm currently on a PC)? This approach was mentioned here Thanks :)

    Read the article

  • 1.8.x Ruby on Rails RESTful nested admin page and form_for problems

    - by Loomer
    So I am creating a website that I want to have an admin directory in rails 1.8.x and I'm struggling a bit to get the form_for to link to the right controller. I am trying to be RESTful. What I basically want is an admin page that has a summary of actions which can then administer sub models such as: /admin (a summary of events) /admin/sales (edit sales on the site) /admin/sales/0 (the normal RESTful stuff) I can't use namespaces since they were introduced in Rails 2.0 (production site that I don't want to mess with updating rails and all that). Anyway, what I have in the routes.rb is: map.resource :admin do |admin| admin.resources :sales end I am using the map.resource as a singleton as recommended by another site. The problem comes in when I try to use the form_for to link to the subresource RESTfully. If i do : form_for(:sales, @sale) it never links to the right controller no matter what I try. I have also tried: form_for [@admin, @sale] do |f| and that doe not work either (I am guessing since admin is a singleton which does not have a model, it's just a placeholder for the admin controller). Am I supposed to add a prefix or something? Or something into the sales controller to specify that it is a subcontroller to admin? Is there an easier way to do this without manually creating a bunch of routes? Thanks for any help.

    Read the article

  • Determine asymmetric latencies in a network

    - by BeeOnRope
    Imagine you have many clustered servers, across many hosts, in a heterogeneous network environment, such that the connections between servers may have wildly varying latencies and bandwidth. You want to build a map of the connections between servers my transferring data between them. Of course, this map may become stale over time as the network topology changes - but lets ignore those complexities for now and assume the network is relatively static. Given the latencies between nodes in this host graph, calculating the bandwidth is a relative simply timing exercise. I'm having more difficulty with the latencies - however. To get round-trip time, it is a simple matter of timing a return-trip ping from the local host to a remote host - both timing events (start, stop) occur on the local host. What if I want one-way times under the assumption that the latency is not equal in both directions? Assuming that the clocks on the various hosts are not precisely synchronized (at least that their error is of the the same magnitude as the latencies involved) - how can I calculate the one-way latency? In a related question - is this asymmetric latency (where a link is quicker in direction than the other) common in practice? For what reasons/hardware configurations? Certainly I'm aware of asymmetric bandwidth scenarios, especially on last-mile consumer links such as DSL and Cable, but I'm not so sure about latency. Added: After considering the comment below, the second portion of the question is probably better off on serverfault.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390 391 392 393 394  | Next Page >