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• Legacy application creates dialogs in non-ui thread.

  - by Frater

  I've been working support for a while on a legacy application and I've noticed a bit of a problem. The system is an incredibly complex client/server with standard and custom frameworks. One of the custom frameworks built into the application involves validating workflow actions. It finds potential errors, separates them into warnings and errors, and passes the results back to the client. The main difference between warnings and errors is that warnings ask the user if they wish to ignore the error. The issue I have is that the dialog for this prompt is created on a non-ui thread, and thus we get cross-threading issues when the dialog is shown. I have attempted to invoke the showing of the dialog, however this fails because the window handle has not been created. (InvokeRequired returns false, which I assume in this case means it cannot find a decent handle in its parent tree, rather than that it doesn't require it.) Does anyone have any suggestions for how I can create this dialog and get the UI thread to set it up and call it?

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• How do I execute queries upon DB connection in Rails?

  - by sycobuny

  I have certain initializing functions that I use to set up audit logging on the DB server side (ie, not rails) in PostgreSQL. At least one has to be issued (setting the current user) before inserting data into or updating any of the audited tables, or else the whole query will fail spectacularly. I can easily call these every time before running any save operation in the code, but DRY makes me think I should have the code repeated in as few places as possible, particularly since this diverges greatly from the ideal of database agnosticism. Currently I'm attempting to override ActiveRecord::Base.establish_connection in an initializer to set it up so that the queries are run as soon as I connect automatically, but it doesn't behave as I expect it to. Here is the code in the initializer: class ActiveRecord::Base # extend the class methods, not the instance methods class << self alias :old_establish_connection :establish_connection # hide the default def establish_connection(*args) ret = old_establish_connection(*args) # call the default # set up necessary session variables for audit logging # call these after calling default, to make sure conn is established 1st db = self.class.connection db.execute("SELECT SV.set('current_user', 'test@localhost')") db.execute("SELECT SV.set('audit_notes', NULL)") # end "empty variable" err ret # return the default's original value end end end puts "Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base" sycobuny:~/rails$ ruby script/server = Booting WEBrick = Rails 2.3.5 application starting on http://0.0.0.0:3000 Loaded custom establish_connection into ActiveRecord::Base This doesn't give me any errors, and unfortunately I can't check what the method looks like internally (I was using ActiveRecord::Base.method(:establish_connection), but apparently that creates a new Method object each time it's called, which is seemingly worthless cause I can't check object_id for any worthwhile information and I also can't reverse the compilation). However, the code never seems to get called, because any attempt to run a save or an update on a database object fails as I predicted earlier. If this isn't a proper way to execute code immediately on connection to the database, then what is?

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• How would I compare two Lists(Of <CustomClass>) in VB?

  - by Kumba

  I'm working on implementing the equality operator = for a custom class of mine. The class has one property, Value, which is itself a List(Of OtherClass), where OtherClass is yet another custom class in my project. I've already implemented the IComparer, IComparable, IEqualityComparer, and IEquatable interfaces, the operators =, <>, bool and not, and overriden Equals and GetHashCode for OtherClass. This should give me all the tools I need to compare these objects, and various tests comparing two singular instances of these objects so far checks out. However, I'm not sure how to approach this when they are in a List. I don't care about the list order. Given: Dim x As New List(Of OtherClass) From {New OtherClass("foo"), New OtherClass("bar"), New OtherClass("baz")} Dim y As New List(Of OtherClass) From {New OtherClass("baz"), New OtherClass("foo"), New OtherClass("bar")} Then (x = y).ToString should print out True. I need to compare the same (not distinct) set of objects in this list. The list shouldn't support dupes of OtherClass, but I'll have to figure out how to add that in later as an exception. Not interested in using LINQ. It looks nice, but in the few examples I've played with, adds a performance overhead in that bugs me. Loops are ugly, but they are fast :) A straight code answer is fine, but I'd like to understand the logic needed for such a comparison as well. I'm probably going to have to implement said logic more than a few times down the road.

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• Dismiss android activity displayed as Popup

  - by Sit

  So i have a service, that starts an activity displayed as a Popup thank's to "android:style/Theme.Dialog" This Activity shows a Listview, with a list of application. On each element of the listview, there is a short description of the application, and two buttons. 1 for launching the application 2 for displaying a toast with more informations. Here is the code in my service : it starts the activity Intent intent = new Intent(this, PopUpActivity.class); intent.addFlags(Intent.FLAG_DEBUG_LOG_RESOLUTION); intent.addFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); getApplicationContext().startActivity(intent); this activity uses a custom layout, with a listview, adapted with a custom ArrayAdapter In this adaptater, i've put an action on the start button in order to start the current application Button lanceur = (Button) v.findViewById(R.id.Buttonlancer); lanceur.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { p.start(mcontext); } }); with p.start, i start the application. But now, if i press "back" from the application, i go back to the popup... and i can start another application. I don't want it to be possible. That's why i wish i could dismiss/destroy/finish my PopupActivity, but i can't manage to do it with the code i have.

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• overflow auto not working in IE

  - by Anthony Russo

  First off I have read a couple of q and a's on here about this issue but none of them seem to help. I have a couple other pages on the website that have no problems with resizing to height using overflow auto. The thing I have noticed is the pages work fine with one div. The page that is not working has two or more div and also I have tried it with a container but I still get the vertical and horizontal scroll bars. <div class="content"> <div class="container"> <div class="a"> <div class="left">List Items</div> <div class="right">List Items</div> </div> <div class="b"> This div is a FORM. </div> </div> </div> I could be making a simple error to you guys but I am new so bare with me!

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• local vs core contoller

  - by latvian

  Hi, I am adding new column and action in the local admin app/code/local/Mage/Adminhtml/Block/Catalog/Product/Grid.php which works fine, however. The local controller/app/code/local/Mage/Adminhtml/Block/Catalog/Product.php is not being used or is not overloading the admin one /app/code/core/Mage/Adminhtml/Block/Catalog/Product.php. This is almost fresh install of Magento 1.4.0.1. I am the only one working, so i know it is not overloaded by some custom controller. I have disabled all custom modules. I have rolled back most of my changes. I have checked /etc/Modules/Mage_Catalog.xml. Refreshed cache all possible ways, loged in and out. Nothing....still using the core contoller copy. why? How do you troubleshoot, meaning, at what moment magento decides using between core or local copies? ...its even more strange because it does not parse local Adminhtml config.xml but uses local Adminthml copy of Blocks. Any pointer would help. I would like to keep everything in local code. Thank You, Margots

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• Clear listview content?

  - by Slash

  I have a little problem with listview. How do i clear a listview content, knowing that it has a custom adapter? edit : the custom adapter class extends BaseAdapter, it looks like this : import android.app.Activity; import android.content.Context; import android.view.LayoutInflater; import android.view.View; import android.view.ViewGroup; import android.widget.BaseAdapter; import android.widget.TextView; public class MyAdapter extends BaseAdapter { private Activity activity; private String[] data; private static LayoutInflater inflater=null; public MyAdapter(Activity _a, String[] _str) { activity = _a; data = _str; inflater = (LayoutInflater)activity.getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); } public static class ViewHolder{ public TextView text; } @Override public int getCount() { return data.length; } @Override public Object getItem(int position) { return position; } @Override public long getItemId(int position) { return position; } @Override public View getView(int position, View view, ViewGroup parent) { View v = view; ViewHolder holder; if(v == null) { v = inflater.inflate(R.layout.rowa, null); holder=new ViewHolder(); holder.text=(TextView)v.findViewById(R.id.dexter); v.setTag(holder); }else{ holder=(ViewHolder)v.getTag(); } holder.text.setText(data[position]); return v; } }

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• Excel - Variable number of leading zeros in variable length numbers?

  - by daltec

  The format of our member numbers has changed several times over the years, such that 00008, 9538, 746, 0746, 00746, 100125, and various other permutations are valid, unique and need to be retained. Exporting from our database into the custom Excel template needed for a mass update strips the leading zeros, such that 00746 and 0746 are all truncated to 746. Inserting the apostrophe trick, or formatting as text, does not work in our case, since the data seems to be already altered by the time we open it in Excel. Formatting as zip won't work since we have valid numbers less than five digits in length that cannot have zeros added to them. And I am not having any luck with "custom" formatting as that seems to require either adding the same number of leading zeros to a number, or adding enough zeros to every number to make them all the same length. Any clues? I wish there was some way to set Excel to just take what it's given and leave it alone, but that does not seem to be the case! I would appreciate any suggestions or advice. Thank you all very much in advance!

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• Running Sitecore Production Site under a Virtual Directory

  - by danswain

  We are using Sitecore 6 on a Windows Server 2003 (32bit) dev machine. I know it's not recommended for the CMS editing site, but we've been told it is possible to get the front-end Sitecore websites to run from within a virtual directory. Here's the issue: we'd like to achieve what the below poor mans diagram shows. We have a website (.net 1.1) /WebSiteRoot (.net 1.1) | | |---- Custom .net 1.1 Web Application | |---- SiteCore frontend WebApplication (.net 2.0) | |---- Custom .net 2.0 WebApplication The Sitecore webApplication would contain the Sitecore pipeline in its web.config and we'd make use of the section to configure the virtual folder to allow for where our Sitecore app sits and point it to the appropriate place in the Content Tree. Is it possible to pull this off? This is just the customer facing website, there will be no CMS editing functionality on these servers, that will be done from a more standard Sitecore install inside the firewall on a different server. The errors we're encountering are centered around loading the the various config files in the App_Config folder. It seems to do a Server.MapPath on "/" initially (which is wrong for us) so we've tried putting absolute paths in the web.config and still no joy (I think there must be some hardcoded piece that looks for the Include directory). Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks

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• what patern is layerd architechture in asp.net ?

  - by haansi

  Hi, I am a asp.net developer and don't know much about patterns and architecture. I will very thankful if you can please guide me here. In my web applications I use 4 layers. Web site project (having web forms + code behind cs files, user controls + code behind cs files, master pages + code behind cs files) CustomTypesLayer a class library (having custom types, enumerations, DTOs, constructers, get, set and validations) BusinessLogicLayer a class library (having all business logic, rules and all calls to DAL functions) DataAccessLayer a class library( having just classes communicating to database.) -My user interface just calls BusinessLogicLayer. BusinessLogicLayer do proecessign in it self and for data it calls DataAccessLayer funtions. -Web forms do not calls directly DAL. -CustomTypesLayer is shared by all layers. Please guide me is this approach a pattern ? I though it may be MVC or MVP but pages have there code behind files as well which are confusing me. If it is no patren is it near to some patren ? pleaes guide thanks

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• Kohana 3, problem with m2m data adding

  - by Marek

  Hello I posted this on official forum but with no result. I am getting :Undefined index: enrollment error when trying to save data. My pivot model: class Model_Enrollment extends ORM { protected $_belongs_to = array('page' => array(), 'menugroup' => array()); } Model_Page protected $_has_many = array('templates' => array(), 'menugroups' => array('through' => 'enrollment')); Model_Menugroup protected $_has_many = array('menuitems' => array(), 'pages' => array('through' => 'enrollment')); //Overriden save() method in Model_Menugroup: public function save() { if (empty($this->created)) { $this->created = time(); } parent::save(); $this->reload(); if (! $this->is_global) { if (! empty($this->groupOwnerPagesId) { $page = ORM::factory('page'); foreach($this->groupOwnerPagesId as $id) { $this->add('enrollment', $page->find($id)); } } } } I did: I corrected table names in pivot model by changing them to singular I even now using the same name for pivot table / model = enrollment. The same as in tutorial. Just in case So the pivot table has name 'enrollment' and has 2 columns: page_id , menugroup_id I tried to add pk in pivot table, but it changed nothing I tried to add/remove db relation between pages/menugroups and pivot table (InnoDB) but with no luck I tried save all data in controller, but with the same bad result:( I am still getting the same error: Undefined index: enrollment in ORM line: $columns = array($this-_has_many[$alias]['foreign_key'], $this-_has_many[$alias]['far_key']); Could somebody tell me, what can be else wrong? I have no other ideas:( Kind regards

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• Google Maps Controls panel size is displayed wrong

  - by Andrea Giachetto

  I have a weird problem with Google Maps Control. I've tested in a blank page my custom maps with custom markers and everything seems to be ok, also with the control panel. When I tried to import all my code in the page I'm working with ( I use a full screen fluid grid system ) the control panel is displayed with strange size. I tried everything for disable/enable the ui of the Google Maps but the problem remain. The code of my maps are exactly the same, both in my blank page and in my site, but in the site the ui control panel is displayed very strange. Here's the code: <div id="map_canvas2" style="height: 580px; width: 100%;"></div> <script> var image = 'path/to/your/image.png'; var mapOptions = { zoom: 17, center: new google.maps.LatLng(45.499290, 12.621510), mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP, scrollwheel: false } var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById('map_canvas2'), mapOptions); var myPos = new google.maps.LatLng(45.499290,12.621510); var myMarker = new google.maps.Marker({position: myPos, map: map, icon: 'http://www.factory42.it/jtaca/wordpress/wp-content/uploads/2014/06/pin-map.png' }); </script> </div> Here's an img: http://www.factory42.it/jtaca/wordpress/wp-content/uploads/2014/06/img-maps.png

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• What is the most efficient way of associating information with a Type in .Net?

  - by Miguel Angelo

  I want to associate custom data to a Type, and retrieve that data in run-time, blasingly fast. This is just my imagination, of my perfect world: var myInfo = typeof(MyClass).GetMyInformation(); this would be very fast... of course this does not exist! If it did I would not be asking. hehe ;) This is the way using custom attributes: var myInfo = typeof(MyClass).GetCustomAttribute("MyInformation"); this is slow because it requires a lookup of the string "MyInformation" This is a way using a Dictionary<Type, MyInformation: var myInfo = myInformationDictionary[typeof(MyClass)]; This is also slow because it is still a lookup of 'typeof(MyClass)'. I know that dictionary is very fast, but this is not enough... it is not as fast as calling a method. It is not even the same order of speed. I am not saying I want it to be as fast as a method call. I want to associate information with a type and access it as fast as possible. I am asking whether there is a better way, or event a best way of doing it. Any ideas?? Thanks!

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• Using the AutoComplete feature of ComboBox, while limiting values to those in the list?

  - by Schmuli

  In WinForms 2.0, a ComboBox has an Auto-Complete feature, that displays a custom Drop-Down list with only the values that start with the entered text. However, if I want to limit valid values to only those that appear in the ComboBox's list of items, I can do that by setting the DropDownStyle to DropDownList, which stops the user from entering a value. However, now I can't use the Auto-Complete feature, which requires user input. Is there another way to limit input to the list, while still allowing use of the Auto-Complete feature? Note that I have seen some custom solutions for this, but I really like the way the matching Auto-Complete items are displayed in a Drop-Down list, and sorted even though the original list may not be. EDIT: I have thought about just validating the entered value, i.e. testing user input if it is valid in, say, the TextChanged event, or even using the Validating event. The question then is what is the expected behavior? Do I clear their value (an empty value is also invalid), or do I use a default value? Closest matching value? P.s. Is there any other tags that I could add to this question?

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• How to best manage multi-frame MovieClips with classes?

  - by Arms

  After switching to AS3, I've been having a hell of a time figuring out the best way to manage MovieClips that have UI elements spread across multiple frames with a single class. An example that I am working on now is a simple email form. I have a MovieClip with two frames: the 1st frame has the form elements (text inputs, submit button) the 2nd frame has a "thank you" message and a button to go back to the first frame (to send another email) In the library I have linked the MovieClip to a custom class (Emailer). My immediate problem is how do I assign a MouseEvent.CLICK event to the button on the 2nd frame? I should note at this point that I am trying to avoid putting code on the timeline (except for stop() calls). This is how I am 'solving' the problem now: Emailer registers an event listener for a frame change ( addEventListener("frame 2", onFrameChange) ) On the 2nd frame of the MovieClip I am calling dispatchEvent(new Event("frame 2")); (I would prefer to not have this code on the frame, but I don't know what else to do) My two complaints with this method are that, first I have calls to addEventListener spread out across different class methods (I would rather have all UI event listeners registered in one method), and second that I have to dispatch those custom "onFrameChange" events. The second complaint grows exponentially for MovieClips that have more than just 2 frames. My so called solution feels makes me feel dirty and makes my brain hurt. I am looking for any advice on what to do differently. Perhaps there's a design pattern I should be looking at? Should I swallow my pride and write timeline code even though the rest of my application is written in class files (and I abhor the Flash IDE code editor)? I absolutely LOVE the event system, and have no problem coding applications with it, but I feel like I'm stuck thinking in terms of AS2 when working with mutl-frame movieclips and code. Any and all help would be greatly appreciated.

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• ViewController doesn't get released

  - by ObjectiveFlash

  Every time I turn the page in my app, I am removing and releasing the previous viewController - but for some reason it is still in memory. I know this, because after using the app for a while, I get 47 memory warnings - one from each view controller - if I had opened 47 pages before the memory warning occurred. I get 60 memory warnings if I had opened 60 pages before the memory warning occurred. And so on... This is the code that runs from page to page: UIViewController *nextController; Class nextClass = [pageClasses objectAtIndex:(currentPageIndex - 1)]; nextController = [[nextClass alloc] initWithNibName:[pageNibs objectAtIndex:(currentPageIndex - 1)] bundle:nil]; [nextController performSelector:@selector(setDelegate:) withObject:self]; [currentPageController.view removeFromSuperview]; [self.view addSubview:nextController.view]; [currentPageController release]; currentPageController = nextController; [currentPageController retain]; [nextController release]; Can anybody point to any issues they see? Thanks so much!

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• Using an embedded DB (SQLite / SQL Compact) for Message Passing within an app?

  - by wk1989

  Hello, Just out of curiosity, for applications that have a fairly complicated module tree, would something like sqlite/sql compact edition work well for message passing? So if I have modules containing data such as: \SubsystemA\SubSubSysB\ModuleB\ModuleDataC, \SubSystemB\SubSubSystemC\ModuleA\ModuleDataX Using traditional message passing/routing, you have to go through intermediate modules in order to pass a message to ModuleB to request say ModuleDataC. Instead of doing that, if we we simply store "\SubsystemA\SubSubSysB\ModuleB\ModuleDataC" in a sqlite database, getting that data is as simple as a sql query and needs no routing and passing stuff around. Has anyone done this before? Even if you haven't, do you foresee any issues & performance impact? The only concern I have right now would be the passing of custom types, e.g. if ModuleDataC is a custom data structure or a pointer, I'll need some way of storing the data structure into the DB or storing the pointer into the DB. Thanks, JW EDIT One usage case I haven't thought about is when you want to send a message from ModuleA to ModuleB to get ModuleB to do something rather than just getting/setting data. Is it possible to do this using an embedded DB? I believe callback from the DB would be needed, how feasible is this?

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• $_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'] not working with Header

  - by EmmyS

  I have a site that allows public access to some pages, but requires a login for others. I have a link to the login from all pages, and what I'd like to do after a successful login is send the user back to the page they were on when they clicked the login link. I know the HTTP_REFERER can be spoofed, and sometimes stripped out by certain hosts and proxies, but since it's strictly within my own site, and only a convenience for users, I'm not too worried about it. I am curious about why it isn't working in conjunction with a redirect, though. I've set a visible field to contain the value of the http referer, and it displays correctly. So the page is getting the value of the referrer variable. But when I try this: $home_url = $_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER']; header('Location: ' . $home_url); it doesn't work. This, on the other hand, does: $home_url = 'http://' . $_SERVER['HTTP_HOST'].dirname($_SERVER['PHP_SELF']).'/discussions.php'; header('Location: ' . $home_url); So I know the header location part works. Any idea why it doesn't want to work in conjunction with the http_referer variable? (Also, does it drive anyone else nuts that referer is spelled incorrectly? I keep mistyping it using the OED spelling, silly me...)

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• cURL Affects Cookie Retrieval in PHP?

  - by CJ

  I'm not sure if I'm asking this properly. I have two PHP pages located on the same server. The first PHP page sets a cookie with an expiration and the second one checks to see if that cookie was set. if it is set, it returns "on". If it isn't set, it returns "off". If I just run the pages like "www.example.com/set_cookie.php" AND "www.example.com/is_cookie_set.php" I get an "on" from is_cookie_set.php. Heres the problem, on the set_cookie.php file I have a function called is_set. This function executes the following cURL and returns the contents ("on" or "off"). Unfortunately, the contents are always returned as "off". however, if I check the file manually ("www.example.com/is_cookie_set.php") I can see that the cookie was set. Heres the function : <?php function is_set() { $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, 'http://example.com/is_cookie_set.php'); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); $contents = curl_exec ($ch); curl_close ($ch); echo $contents; } ?> Please note, I'm not using cURL to GET or SET cookies, only to check a page that checks if the cookie was set. I've looked into CURLOPT_COOKIEJAR, and CURLOPT_COOKIEFILE, but I believe those are for setting cookies via cURL and I don't want to do this.

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• Textblock doesnt get updated when rendered in memory?

  - by veechi

  I have a text block which as part of a custom control.I added the custom control as a child of grid which in turn is added as child of a Canvas.All of these contorl are instantiated in memory and are not rendered on the UI.When I update the value of the TextBlock and emboss the canvas on an image, the updated value doesnt appear on the embossed image.Here is the code snippet:- System.Windows.Controls.Canvas embossCanvas = new System.Windows.Controls.Canvas(); System.Windows.Controls.Grid grid = new Grid(); MyControl myctrl= new MyControl(); int wd = (int)myctrl.ActualWidth; int ht = (int)myctrl.ActualHeight; embossCanvas.Width = wd; embossCanvas.Height = ht; grid.Children.Add(myctrl); embossCanvas.Children.Add(grid); myctrl.txtBlk.UpdateLayout(); grid.UpdateLayout(); embossCanvas.Measure(new System.Windows.Size(embossCanvas.Width, embossCanvas.Height)); embossCanvas.Arrange(new System.Windows.Rect(0, 0, embossCanvas.Width, (int)embossCanvas.Height)); embossCanvas.UpdateLayout(); RenderTargetBitmap renderBmp = new RenderTargetBitmap(wd, ht, 96, 96, System.Windows.Media.PixelFormats.Default); renderBmp.Render(embossCanvas);

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• How to understand other people's CSS architectures?

  - by John

  I am reasonably good with CSS. However, when working with someone else's CSS, it's difficult for me to see the "bigger picture" in their architecture (but i have no problem when working with a CSS sheet I wrote myself). For example, I have no problems using Firebug to isolate and fix cross browser compatibility issues, or fixing a floating issue, or changing the height on a particular element. But if I'm asked to do something drastic such as, "I want the right sidebars of pages A, B, C and D to have a red border. I want the right side bars of pages E, F and G to have a blue border if and only if the user mouses over", then it takes me time a long time to map out all the CSS inheritance rules to see the "bigger picture". For some reason, I don't encounter the same difficulty with backend code. After a quick debriefing of how a feature works, and a quick inspection of the controller and model code, I will feel comfortable with the architecture. I will think, "it's reasonable to assume that there will be an Employee class that inherits from the Person Class that's used by a Department controller". If I discover inconvenient details that aren't consistent with overall architectural style, I am confident that I can hammer things back in place. With someone else's CSS work, it's much harder for me to see the "relationships" between different classes, and when and how the classes are used. When there are many inheritance rules, I feel overwhelmed. I'm having trouble articulating my question and issues... All I want to know is, why is it so much harder for me to see the bigger picture in someone else's CSS architecture than compared to someone else's business logic layer? **Does it have any thing to do with CSS being a relatively new technology, and there aren't many popular design patterns?

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• Android ProgressDialog inside another dialog

  - by La bla bla

  I'm working on a game using AndEngine, and I need to show the users the list of his Facebook friends. I've created my custom Adatper and after the loading finishes everything works great. I have a problem with the loading it self. The ListView is inside a custom dialog, since I don't really know how to create one using AndEngine, So inside this dialog, I'm running an AsyncTask to fetch the friends' info, in that AsyncTask I'm have a ProgressDialog. The problem is, the ProgressDialog shows up behind the dialog that contains the to-be list (which while loading, is just the title). I can see the ProgressDialog "peeking" behind that dialog.. Any Ideas? Here's some code: FriendsDialog.java private ProgressDialog dialog; //Constructor of the AsyncTask public FriendsLoader(Context context) { dialog = new ProgressDialog(context); dialog.setMessage("Please wait..\nLoading Friends List."); } @Override protected void onPreExecute() { dialog.requestWindowFeature(Window.FEATURE_NO_TITLE); LayoutInflater inflater = (LayoutInflater)context.getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); dialog.setView(inflater.inflate(R.layout.loading, null)); dialog.setMessage("Please wait..\nLoading friends."); dialog.show(); } @Override protected void onPostExecute(ArrayList<HashMap<String, Object>> data) { if (dialog.isShowing()) { dialog.dismiss(); } MyAdapter myAdapter = new MyAdapter(context, data); listView = (ListView) findViewById(R.id.list); listView.setAdapter(myAdapter); listView.setOnItemClickListener(new AdapterView.OnItemClickListener() { @Override public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> myAdapter, View myView, int myItemInt, long mylng) { String id = (String) listView.getItemAtPosition(myItemInt); listener.onUserSelected(id); dismiss(); } }); }

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• Why the databinding fails in ListView (WPF) ?

  - by Ashish Ashu

  I have a ListView of which ItemSource is set to my Custom Collection. I have defined a GridView CellTemplate that contains a combo box as below : <ListView MaxWidth="850" Grid.Row="1" SelectedItem="{Binding Path = SelectedCondition}" ItemsSource="{Binding Path = Conditions}" FontWeight="Normal" FontSize="11" Name="listview"> <ListView.View> <GridView> <GridViewColumn Width="175" Header="Type"> <GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <ComboBox Style="{x:Null}" x:Name="TypeCmbox" Height="Auto" Width="150" SelectedValuePath="Key" DisplayMemberPath="Value" SelectedItem="{Binding Path = MyType}" ItemsSource="{Binding Path = MyTypes}" HorizontalAlignment="Center" /> </DataTemplate> </GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> </GridViewColumn> </ListView> My Custom collection is the ObservableCollection. I have a two buttons - Move Up and Move Down on top of the listview control . When user clicks on the Move Up or Move Down button I call MoveUp and MoveDown methods of Observable Collection. But when I Move Up and Move Down the rows then the Selected Index of a combo box is -1. I have ensured that selectedItem is not equal to null when performing Move Up and Move Down commands. Please Help!!

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• How to resize a UISwitch?

  - by mshsayem

  I have made a custom UISwitch (from this post). But the problem is, my custom texts are a bit long. Is there any way to resize the switch? [I tried setBounds, did not work] Edit: Here is the code I used: @interface CustomUISwitch : UISwitch - (void) setLeftLabelText: (NSString *) labelText; - (void) setRightLabelText: (NSString *) labelText; @end @implementation CustomUISwitch - (UIView *) slider { return [[self subviews] lastObject]; } - (UIView *) textHolder { return [[[self slider] subviews] objectAtIndex:2]; } - (UILabel *) leftLabel { return [[[self textHolder] subviews] objectAtIndex:0]; } - (UILabel *) rightLabel { return [[[self textHolder] subviews] objectAtIndex:1]; } - (void) setLeftLabelText: (NSString *) labelText { [[self leftLabel] setText:labelText]; } - (void) setRightLabelText: (NSString *) labelText { [[self rightLabel] setText:labelText]; } @end mySwitch = [[CustomUISwitch alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero]; //Tried these, but did not work //CGRect aFrame = mySwitch.frame; //aFrame.size.width = 200; //aFrame.size.height = 100; //mySwitch.frame = aFrame; [mySwitch setLeftLabelText: @"longValue1"]; [mySwitch setRightLabelText: @"longValue2"];

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• WCF publish/subscribe service, and ASP.NET MVC client

  - by d3j4vu

  I managed to develop a custom WCF service, using the publish / subscribe model, and hosted inside a managed windows service. Everything's working. I developed an interface as the service contract implementing a method definition marked as a non-one way operation contract (OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)]. This, to make possible returns an instance of a custom class derived from System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult. In the MVC app, event fires ok. It wraps inside an action method, (just the one defined in the interface), but, and this is my current problem, i believe that something relative to the execution context of the windows service (and the hosted wcf counterpart) blocks the execution of the action method in the MVC app. This is what i have until now (some pieces ripped off just to be more clear): /// Method definition for the contract's service. Maps to a MVC ActionMethod. [OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)] ActionResult Imagen(string data, CustomActionResult result); The class to hold an ActionResult derived class instance: public class ServiceEventArgsMvc : ServiceEventArgs { /// <summary> /// /// </summary> public CustomActionResult Result { get; set; } } And the code in the MVC client app: /// <summary> /// Just a simple class to hold an abstract ActionResult derived class instance. /// </summary> public ActionResult Image(string data, CustomActionResult result) { ViewData["data"] = data; return View(); } Ok. ActionMethod sucessfully executes...but when it's done (and usually expected obtain a reditection to a View named Image, like the action method), the WCF service throws a Timeout exception, making clear that he's still waiting for a response from the MVC client. The response never arrives, so the MVC app never finish his work (redirect to the "Image" view as expected). Any ideas?. Guess i'm missing something very simple, but i don't know what it could be. This is drivin' me nuts.

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