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  • How to modify exiting XML file with XmlDocument and XmlNode in C#

    - by Nano HE
    I already implemented to create the XML file below with XmlTextWriter when application initialization. And know I don't know how to update the childNode id value with XmlDocument & XmlNode. Is there some property to update the id value? I tried InnerText but failed. thank you. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <Equipment xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance"> <License licenseId="" licensePath=""/> <DataCollections> <GroupAIDs> <AID id="100"> <Variable id="200"/> <Variable id="201"/> </RPTID> <AID id=""> <ReportVariable id="205"/> </AID> <AID id="102"/> </GroupAIDs> <GroupBIDs> <BID id="2000"> <AID id="100"/> </BID> <BID id="2001"> <AID id="101"/> <AID id="102"/> </BID> </GroupBIDs> <GroupCIDs> <BID id="8"/> <BID id="9"/> <BID id="10"/> </GroupCIDs> </DataCollections> </Equipment>

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  • String Length Evaluating Incorrectly

    - by Justin R.
    My coworker and I are debugging an issue in a WCF service he's working on where a string's length isn't being evaluated correctly. He is running this method to unit test a method in his WCF service: // Unit test method public void RemoveAppGroupTest() { string addGroup = "TestGroup"; string status = string.Empty; string message = string.Empty; appActiveDirectoryServicesClient.RemoveAppGroup("AOD", addGroup, ref status, ref message); } // Inside the WCF service [OperationBehavior(Impersonation = ImpersonationOption.Required)] public void RemoveAppGroup(string AppName, string GroupName, ref string Status, ref string Message) { string accessOnDemandDomain = "MyDomain"; RemoveAppGroupFromDomain(AppName, accessOnDemandDomain, GroupName, ref Status, ref Message); } public AppActiveDirectoryDomain(string AppName, string DomainName) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(AppName)) { throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } } We tried to step into the .NET source code to see what value string.IsNullOrEmpty was receiving, but the IDE printed this message when we attempted to evaluate the variable: 'Cannot obtain value of local or argument 'value' as it is not available at this instruction pointer, possibly because it has been optimized away.' (None of the projects involved have optimizations enabled). So, we decided to try explicitly setting the value of the variable inside the method itself, immediately before the length check -- but that didn't help. // Lets try this again. public AppActiveDirectoryDomain(string AppName, string DomainName) { // Explicitly set the value for testing purposes. AppName = "AOD"; if (AppName == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } if (AppName.Length == 0) { // This exception gets thrown, even though it obviously isn't a zero length string. throw new ArgumentNullException("AppName", "You must specify an application name"); } } We're really pulling our hair out on this one. Has anyone else experienced behavior like this? Any tips on debugging it?

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  • using volatile keyword

    - by sap
    As i understand, if we declare a variable as volatile, then it will not be stored in the local cache. Whenever thread are updating the values, it is updated to the main memory. So, other threads can access the updated value. But in the following program both volatile and non-volatile variables are displaying same value. The volatile variable is not updated for the second thread. Can anybody plz explain this why testValue is not changed. class ExampleThread extends Thread { private int testValue1; private volatile int testValue; public ExampleThread(String str){ super(str); } public void run() { if (getName().equals("Thread 1 ")) { testValue = 10; testValue1= 10; System.out.println( "Thread 1 testValue1 : " + testValue1); System.out.println( "Thread 1 testValue : " + testValue); } if (getName().equals("Thread 2 ")) { System.out.println( "Thread 2 testValue1 : " + testValue1); System.out.println( "Thread 2 testValue : " + testValue); } } } public class VolatileExample { public static void main(String args[]) { new ExampleThread("Thread 1 ").start(); new ExampleThread("Thread 2 ").start(); } } output: Thread 1 testValue1 : 10 Thread 1 testValue : 10 Thread 2 testValue1 : 0 Thread 2 testValue : 0

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  • Android ADB has moved and Eclipse is looking in the old place

    - by Peter Nelson
    I did an SDK update last night and it moved adb.exe. In its place it left a file called "adb_has_moved.txt" saying The adb tool has moved to platform-tools/ If you don't see this directory in your SDK, launch the SDK and AVD Manager (execute the android tool) and install "Android SDK Platform-tools" Please also update your PATH environment variable to include the platform-tools/ directory, so you can execute adb from any location. So I did all that, including the PATH and now I can start adb.exe from any DOS prompt. But I still can't start it from Eclipse (Galileo 3.52). When I try it says Location of the Android SDK has not been set up in the preferences ... which is not true. The SDK IS set up in Preferences. The real problem is at the top of the Preferences window where it says "Could not find C:\SDK\android-sdk-windows\ tools \adb.exe!" ...No kidding - the update moved it to C:\SDK\android-sdk-windows\ platform-tools. Because it's specifying a specific (wrong) path Eclipse is bypassing the PATH variable. So how do I get Eclipse to look in the right place?

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  • Using CSS max-height on an outer div to force scroll on an inner-div.

    - by Jay Neely
    I have an outer div with a variable height (and max-height) that's set with a specific pixel amount by JavaScript, containing two divs within. The 1st div is intended to hold a variable amount of content, e.g. a list of links. It has no height set. The 2nd div is intended to hold a fixed amount of content, and has a specific height set. Right now, the max-height isn't working. The 1st div keeps growing, even with overflow: auto; set, and pushes the 2nd div below it outside the bounds of the outer div. How can I make it so that when the 1st div gets too large for the outer div to contain both it and the fixed-height 2nd div, the 1st div will start to scroll? Example page: http://thevastdesign.com/scrollTest.html Thanks for any help. I'd appreciate a CSS solution the most, even if it requires some hacks. It only has to work in Firefox 3+, IE8, and IE7. Ideas?

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  • Using Reflection.Emit to emit a "using (x) { ... }" block?

    - by Lasse V. Karlsen
    I'm trying to use Reflection.Emit in C# to emit a using (x) { ... } block. At the point I am in code, I need to take the current top of the stack, which is an object that implements IDisposable, store this away in a local variable, implement a using block on that variable, and then inside it add some more code (I can deal with that last part.) Here's a sample C# piece of code I tried to compile and look at in Reflector: public void Test() { TestDisposable disposable = new TestDisposable(); using (disposable) { throw new Exception("Test"); } } This looks like this in Reflector: .method public hidebysig instance void Test() cil managed { .maxstack 2 .locals init ( [0] class LVK.Reflection.Tests.UsingConstructTests/TestDisposable disposable, [1] class LVK.Reflection.Tests.UsingConstructTests/TestDisposable CS$3$0000, [2] bool CS$4$0001) L_0000: nop L_0001: newobj instance void LVK.Reflection.Tests.UsingConstructTests/TestDisposable::.ctor() L_0006: stloc.0 L_0007: ldloc.0 L_0008: stloc.1 L_0009: nop L_000a: ldstr "Test" L_000f: newobj instance void [mscorlib]System.Exception::.ctor(string) L_0014: throw L_0015: ldloc.1 L_0016: ldnull L_0017: ceq L_0019: stloc.2 L_001a: ldloc.2 L_001b: brtrue.s L_0024 L_001d: ldloc.1 L_001e: callvirt instance void [mscorlib]System.IDisposable::Dispose() L_0023: nop L_0024: endfinally .try L_0009 to L_0015 finally handler L_0015 to L_0025 } I have no idea how to deal with that ".try ..." part at the end there when using Reflection.Emit. Can someone point me in the right direction?

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  • pass a number value to a Timer, XML and AS3

    - by VideoDnd
    I want to pass a number value to a Timer. How do I do this? My number and integer values for other variables work fine. Error I get null object reference and coercion of value, because I'm not passing to 'timer' properly. I don't want to say my variable's a number, I want to say it has a number value. Variable //what I have now var timer:Timer; timer = new Timer(100); Path myXML.COUNT.text(); XML <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <SESSION> <TIMER TITLE="speed">100</TIMER> </SESSION> Parse and Load //LOAD XML var myXML:XML; var myLoader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); myLoader.load(new URLRequest("time.xml")); myLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, processXML); //PARSE XML function processXML(e:Event):void { myXML = new XML(e.target.data);

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  • JQuery methods and DOM properties

    - by Bob Smith
    I am confused as to when I can use the DOM properties and when I could use the Jquery methods on a Jquery object. Say, I use a selector var $elemSel = $('#myDiv').find('[id *= \'select\']') At this point, $elemSel is a jquery object which I understand to be a wrapper around the array of DOM elements. I could get a reference to the DOM elements by iterating through the $elemSel object/array (Correct?) My questions: 1. Is there a way to convert this $elemSel into a non JQuery regular array of DOM elements? 2. Can I combine DOM properties and JQuery methods at the same time (something like this) $elemSel.children('td').nodeName (nodeName is DOM related, children is JQuery related) EDIT: What's wrong with this? $elemSel.get(0).is(':checked') EDIT 2: Thanks for the responses. I understand now that I can use the get(0) to get a DOM element. Additional questions: How would I convert a DOM element to a JQuery object? If I assign "this" to a variable, is that new var DOM or JQuery? If it's JQuery, how can I convert this to a DOM element? (Since I can't use get(0)) var $elemTd = $(this); When I do a assignment like the one above, I have seen some code samples not include the $ sign for the variable name. Why? And as for my original question, can I combine the DOM properties and JQuery functions at the same time on a JQuery object? $elemSel.children('td').nodeName

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  • Windows batch - loop over folder string and parse out last folder name

    - by Tim Peel
    Hi, I need to grab the folder name of a currently executing batch file. I have been trying to loop over the current directory using the following syntax (which is wrong at present): set mydir = %~p0 for /F "delims=\" %i IN (%mydir%) DO @echo %i Couple of issues in that I cannot seem to pass the 'mydir' variable value in as the search string. It only seems to work if I pass in commands; I have the syntax wrong and cannot work out why. My thinking was to loop over the folder string with a '\' delimiter but this is causing problems too. If I set a variable on each loop then the last value set will be the current folder name. For example, given the following path: C:\Folder1\Folder2\Folder3\Archive.bat I would expect to parse out the value 'Folder3'. I need to parse that value out as its name will be part of another folder I am going to create further down in the batch file. Many thanks if anyone can help. I may be barking up the wrong tree completely so any other approaches would be greatly received also. Tim

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  • Giving another object a NSManagedObject

    - by Wayfarer
    Alright, so I'm running into an issue with my code. What I have done is subclassed UIButton so I can give it some more infomormation that pertain to my code. I have been able to create the buttons and they work great. Capiche. However, one of the things I want my subclass to hold is a reference to a NSMangedObject. I have this code in my header file: @interface ButtonSubclass : UIButton { NSManagedObjectContext *context; NSManagedObject *player; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSManagedObject *player; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSManagedObjectContext *context; - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame andTitle:(NSString*)title; //- (void)setPlayer:(NSManagedObject *)aPlayer; @end As you can see, it has a instance variable to the NSMangedobject I want it to hold (as well as the Context). But for the life of me, I can't get it to hold that NSManagedObject. I run both the @synthesize methods in the Implementation file. @synthesize context; @synthesize player; So I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong. This is how I create my button: ButtonSubclass *playerButton = [[ButtonSubclass alloc] initWithFrame:frame andTitle:@"20"]; //works playerButton.context = self.context; //works playerButton.player = [players objectAtIndex:i]; //FAILS And I have initilaized the players array earlier, where I get the objects. Another weird thing is that when it gets to this spot in the code, the app crashes (woot) and the the console output stops. It doesn't give me any error, and notification at all that the app has crashed. It just... stops. So I don't even know what the error is that is crashing the code, besides it has to do with that line up there setting the "player" variable. Thoughts and ideas? I'd love your wisdom!

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  • Using Parameter Values In SQL Statement

    - by Dangerous
    I am trying to write a database script (SQL SERVER 2008) which will copy information from database tables on one server to corresponding tables in another database on a different server. I have read that the correct way to do this is to use a sql statement in a format similar to the following: INSERT INTO <linked_server>.<database>.<owner>.<table_name> SELECT * FROM <linked_server>.<database>.<owner>.<table_name> As there will be several tables being copied, I would like to declare variables at the top of the script to allow the user to specify the names of each server and database that are to be used. These could then be used throughout the script. However, I am not sure how to use the variable values in the actual SQL statements. What I want to achieve is something like the following: DECLARE @SERVER_FROM AS NVARCHAR(50) = 'ServerFrom' DECLARE @DATABASE_FROM AS NVARCHAR(50) = 'DatabaseTo' DECLARE @SERVER_TO AS NVARCHAR(50) = 'ServerTo' DECLARE @DATABASE_TO AS NVARCHAR(50) = 'DatabaseTo' INSERT INTO @SERVER_TO.@DATABASE_TO.dbo.TableName SELECT * FROM @SERVER_FROM.@DATABASE_FROM.dbo.TableName ... How should I use the @ variables in this code in order for it to work correctly? Additionally, do you think my method above is correct for what I am trying to achieve and should I be using NVARCHAR(50) as my variable type or something else? Thanks

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  • C# ref Confusion

    - by Rahat
    I have a confusion that when i pass a variable by refrence in the constructor of another class and after passing that object by refrence i recreate the refrence object with the new keyword. Now the class in which i have passed the refrenced object dosen't reflect the updated data. An exabple of the above problem is shown below: Object to be passed by Refrence: public class DummyObject { public string Name = "My Name"; public DummyObject() { } } Class which is passing the Refrence: public partial class Form1 : Form { // Object to be passed as refrence DummyObject dummyObject = new DummyObject(); public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // assigning value dummyObject.Name = "I am Dummy"; // Passing object Form2 frm = new Form2(ref dummyObject); frm.Show(); } private void button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Displaying Name MessageBox.Show(this.dummyObject.Name); } private void button3_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Assigning new object this.dummyObject = new DummyObject(); // Changing Name Variable this.dummyObject.Name = "I am Rechanged"; // Displaying Name MessageBox.Show(this.dummyObject.Name); } } Class to which Object is passed by Reference: public partial class Form2 : Form { private DummyObject dummyObject = null; public Form2(ref DummyObject DummyObject) { InitializeComponent(); this.dummyObject = DummyObject; this.dummyObject.Name = "I am Changed"; } private void button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show(this.dummyObject.Name); } } whn i reaasign the object in Form 1 and cdisplay its value in form 2 it still displays "I am Changed" instead of "I am Rechanged". How to keep the data synchronized?

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  • PHP - Select from database the same query

    - by How to PHP
    I created a table that contains the name of the user and his job, and created PHP page that shows me all the users that works doctor, I entered doctor into a variable then I selected from the table where Jobs equal to $doctor, that is great, but I need it to get the same Jobs into a table in the page and the other same jobs into a table in the same page. this is my code that shows only the users works doctor in one table, <html> <h1>Doctors</h1> </html> <?php mysql_connect('localhost','root',''); mysql_select_db('data'); $doctor='doctor'; $query= mysql_query("SELECT * FROM `users` WHERE `job` = '$doctor'")or die(mysql_error()); while ($arr = mysql_fetch_array($query)) $name= $arr['name']; echo $name; } ?> That shows me doctors when I put doctor in a variable I want to show all same Jobs in a table. Is there is a way to do this? Thanks :)

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  • more problems with the LAG function is SAS

    - by SAS_learner
    The following bit of SAS code is supposed to read from a dataset which contains a numeric variable called 'Radvalue'. Radvalue is the temperature of a radiator, and if a radiator is switched off but then its temperature increases by 2 or more it's a sign that it has come on, and if it is on but its temperature decreases by 2 or more it's a sign that it's gone off. Radstate is a new variable in the dataset which indicates for every observation whether the radiator is on or off, and it's this I'm trying to fill in automatically for the whole dataset. So I'm trying to use the LAG function, trying to initialise the first row, which doesn't have a dif_radvalue, and then trying to apply the algorithm I just described to row 2 onwards. Any idea why the columns Radstate and l_radstate come out completely blank? Thanks everso much!! Let me know if I haven't explained the problem clearly. Data work.heating_algorithm_b; Input ID Radvalue; Datalines; 1 15.38 2 15.38 3 20.79 4 33.47 5 37.03 ; DATA temp.heating_algorithm_c; SET temp.heating_algorithm_b; DIF_Radvalue = Radvalue - lag(Radvalue); l_Radstate = lag(Radstate); if missing(dif_radvalue) then do; dif_radvalue = 0; radstate = "off"; end; else if l_Radstate = "off" & DIF_Radvalue > 2 then Radstate = "on"; else if l_Radstate = "on" & DIF_Radvalue < -2 then Radstate = "off"; else Radstate = l_Radstate; run;

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  • Partially constructed object / Multi threading

    - by reto
    Heya! I'm using joda due to it's good reputation regarding multi threading. It goes great distances to make multi threaded date handling efficient, for example by making all Date/Time/DateTime objects immutable. But here's a situation where I'm not sure if Joda is really doing the right thing. It probably is correct, but I'd be very interested to see the explanation for it. When a toString() of a DateTime is being called Joda does the following: /* org.joda.time.base.AbstractInstant */ public String toString() { return ISODateTimeFormat.dateTime().print(this); } All formatters are thread safe, as they are as well ready-only. But what's about the formatter-factory: private static DateTimeFormatter dt; /* org.joda.time.format.ISODateTimeFormat */ public static DateTimeFormatter dateTime() { if (dt == null) { dt = new DateTimeFormatterBuilder() .append(date()) .append(tTime()) .toFormatter(); } return dt; } This is a common pattern in single threaded applications. I see the following dangers: Race condition during null check -- worst case: two objects get created. No Problem, as this is solely a helper object (unlike a normal singleton pattern situation), one gets saved in dt, the other is lost and will be garbage collected sooner or later. the static variable might point to a partially constructed object before the objec has been finished initialization (before calling me crazy, read about a similar situation in this Wikipedia article. So how does Joda ensure that not partially created formatter gets published in this static variable? Thanks for your explanations! Reto

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  • Interface vs Abstract Class (general OO)

    - by Kave
    Hi, I have had recently two telephone interviews where I've been asked about the differences between an Interface and an Abstract class. I have explained every aspect of them I could think of, but it seems they are waiting for me to mention something specific, and I dont know what it is. From my experience I think the following is true, if i am missing a major point please let me know: Interface: Every single Method declared in an Interface will have to be implemented in the subclass. Only Events, Delegates, Properties (C#) and Methods can exist in a Interface. A class can implement multiple Interfaces. Abstract Class Only Abstract methods have to be implemented by the subclass. An Abstract class can have normal methods with implementations. Abstract class can also have class variables beside Events, Delegates, Properties and Methods. A class can only implement one abstract class only due non-existence of Multi-inheritance in C#. 1) After all that the interviewer came up with the question What if you had an Abstract class with only abstract methods, how would that be different from an interface? I didnt know the answer but I think its the inheritance as mentioned above right? 2) An another interviewer asked me what if you had a Public variable inside the interface, how would that be different than in Abstract Class? I insisted you can't have a public variable inside an interface. I didn't know what he wanted to hear but he wasn't satisfied either. Many Thanks for clarification, Kave See Also: When to use an interface instead of an abstract class and vice versa Interfaces vs. Abstract Classes How do you decide between using an Abstract Class and an Interface?

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  • SharpDevelop WIX project: MSBuild Configurations

    - by chezy525
    Using SharpDevelop, I wrote a windows service with a WIX setup project to install/auto-start it. For testing purposes, I've done a number of things I don't want to do in the release version (i.e. add an uninstall shortcut to the desktop). So, my question really boils down to this; how do you handle build configurations within a WiX project? I think I've solved most of my problems after I found this question Passing build parameters to .wxs file to dynamicaly build wix installers. And thus far I've done the following: Added a property that checks the Configuration variable <Product> ... <Property Id="DEBUG">$(var.Configuration) == 'Debug'</Property> ... Separated all of the debug files into unique components and setup as a separate feature with a condition checking the DEBUG property. <Product> ... <Feature> ... <Feature Id="DebugFiles" Level="1"> <ComponentRef Id="UninstallShortcutComponent" /> <Condition Level="0">DEBUG</Condition> </Feature> ... Then, finally, pointing to the correct file based on the configuration, using the Configuration variable <Directory> ... <Component> <File Source="..\mainProject\bin\$(var.Configuration)\main.exe" /> </Component> ... So, now my question is simplified to how to handle files that may not exist under certain build configurations (like .pdb files). Using all of the above (including pointing the file source to the ...\bin\Release\*.pdb, which I know isn't expected to exist) I get a LGHT0103 compiler error, it can't find the file.

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  • php funciton problem

    - by Holian
    Hello, i have this little script, which should ping the IPs in the host_to_ping array. This php is called with JS in the index.html. But somethin' wrong, 'coz the $rval is always 1 (which mean the host is unreachable). But i know that the first two host is alive. So i print the $res variable, and i see the message: Need to give the IP. I dont understand why dont replace the $host variable to the actual IP address in the function. <?php function ping($host) { exec(sprintf('ping -n 4', escapeshellarg($host)), $res, $rval); print_r($res); return $rval === 0; } $hosts_to_ping = array('10.54.23.254', '10.22.23.254', '10.23.66.134'); ?> <ul> <?php foreach ($hosts_to_ping as $host): ?> <li> <?php echo $host; ?> <?php $up = ping($host); ?> (<img src="<?php echo $up ? 'on' : 'off'; ?>" alt="<?php echo $up ? 'up' : 'down'; ?>">) </li> <?php endforeach; ?> </ul>

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  • Handling form from different view and passing form validation through session in django

    - by Mo J. Mughrabi
    I have a requirement here to build a comment-like app in my django project, the app has a view to receive a submitted form process it and return the errors to where ever it came from. I finally managed to get it to work, but I have doubt for the way am using it might be wrong since am passing the entire validated form in the session. below is the code comment/templatetags/comment.py @register.inclusion_tag('comment/form.html', takes_context=True) def comment_form(context, model, object_id, next): """ comment_form() is responsible for rendering the comment form """ # clear sessions from variable incase it was found content_type = ContentType.objects.get_for_model(model) try: request = context['request'] if request.session.get('comment_form', False): form = CommentForm(request.session['comment_form']) form.fields['content_type'].initial = 15 form.fields['object_id'].initial = 2 form.fields['next'].initial = next else: form = CommentForm(initial={ 'content_type' : content_type.id, 'object_id' : object_id, 'next' : next }) except Exception as e: logging.error(str(e)) form = None return { 'form' : form } comment/view.py def save_comment(request): """ save_comment: """ if request.method == 'POST': # clear sessions from variable incase it was found if request.session.get('comment_form', False): del request.session['comment_form'] form = CommentForm(request.POST) if form.is_valid(): obj = form.save(commit=False) if request.user.is_authenticated(): obj.created_by = request.user obj.save() messages.info(request, _('Your comment has been posted.')) return redirect(form.data.get('next')) else: request.session['comment_form'] = request.POST return redirect(form.data.get('next')) else: raise Http404 the usage is by loading the template tag and firing {% comment_form article article.id article.get_absolute_url %} my doubt is if am doing the correct approach or not by passing the validated form to the session. Would that be a problem? security risk? performance issues? Please advise Update In response to Pol question. The reason why I went with this approach is because comment form is handled in a separate app. In my scenario, I render objects such as article and all I do is invoke the templatetag to render the form. What would be an alternative approach for my case? You also shared with me the django comment app, which am aware of but the client am working with requires a lot of complex work to be done in the comment app thats why am working on a new one.

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  • PHP Object References in Frameworks

    - by bigstylee
    Before I dive into the disscusion part a quick question; Is there a method to determine if a variable is a reference to another variable/object? For example $foo = 'Hello World'; $bar = &$foo; echo (is_reference($bar) ? 'Is reference' : 'Is orginal'; I have been using PHP5 for a few years now (personal use only) and I would say I am moderately reversed on the topic of Object Orientated implementation. However the concept of Model View Controller Framework is fairly new to me. I have looked a number of tutorials and looked at some of the open source frameworks (mainly CodeIgnitor) to get a better understanding how everything fits together. I am starting to appreciate the real benefits of using this type of structure. I am used to implementing object referencing in the following technique. class Foo{ public $var = 'Hello World!'; } class Bar{ public function __construct(){ global $Foo; echo $Foo->var; } } $Foo = new Foo; $Bar = new Bar; I was surprised to see that CodeIgnitor and Yii pass referencs of objects and can be accessed via the following method: $this->load->view('argument') The immediate advantage I can see is a lot less code and more user friendly. But I do wonder if it is more efficient as these frameworks are presumably optimised? Or simply to make the code more user friendly? This was an interesting article Do not use PHP references.

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  • Private member vector of vector dynamic memory allocation

    - by Geoffroy
    Hello, I'm new to C++ (I learned programming with Fortran), and I would like to allocate dynamically the memory for a multidimensional table. This table is a private member variable : class theclass{ public: void setdim(void); private: std::vector < std::vector <int> > thetable; } I would like to set the dimension of thetable with the function setdim(). void theclass::setdim(void){ this->thetable.assign(1000,std::vector <int> (2000)); } I have no problem compiling this program, but as I execute it, I've got a segmentation fault. The strange thing for me is that this piece (see under) of code does exactly what I want, except that it doesn't uses the private member variable of my class : std::vector < std::vector < int > > thetable; thetable.assign(1000,std::vector <int> (2000)); By the way, I have no trouble if thetable is a 1D vector. In theclass : std::vector < int > thetable; and if in setdim : this->thetable.assign(1000,2); So my question is : why is there such a difference with "assign" between thetable and this-thetable for a 2D vector? And how should I do to do what I want? Thank-you for your help, Best regards, -- Geoffroy

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  • xsl transform: problem with Ampersand URL parameters

    - by Rac123
    I'm having issues with transforming XSL with parameters in a URL. I'm at a point that I can't change the C# code anymore, only can make changes to xsl file. C# code: string xml = "<APPLDATA><APPID>1052391</APPID></APPLDATA>"; XmlDocument oXml = new XmlDocument(); oXml.LoadXml(xml); XslTransform oXslTransform = new XslTransform(); oXslTransform.Load(@"C:\Projects\Win\ConsoleApps\XslTransformTest\S15033.xsl"); StringWriter oOutput = new StringWriter(); oXslTransform.Transform(oXml, null, oOutput) XSL Code: <body> <xsl:variable name="app"> <xsl:value-of select="normalize-space(APPLDATA/APPID)" /> </xsl:variable> <div id="homeImage" > <xsl:attribute name="style"> background-image:url("https://server/image.gif?a=10&amp;Id='<xsl:value-of disable-output-escaping="yes" select="$app" />'") </xsl:attribute> </div> </body> </html> URL transformed: https://server/image.gif?a=10&Id='1052391' URL Expected: https://server/image.gif?a=10&Id='1052391' How do I fix this? The output (oOutput.ToString()) is being used in an email template so it's taking the URL transformed literally. When you click on this request (with the correct server name of course), the 403 (Access forbidden) error is being thrown.

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  • capturing CMD batch file parameter list; write to file for later processing

    - by BobB
    I have written a batch file that is launched as a post processing utility by a program. The batch file reads ~24 parameters supplied by the calling program, stores them into variables, and then writes them to various text files. Since the max input variable in CMD is %9, it's necessary to use the 'shift' command to repeatedly read and store these individually to named variables. Because the program outputs several similar batch files, the result is opening several CMD windows sequentially, assigning variables and writing data files. This ties up the calling program for too long. It occurs to me that I could free up the calling program much faster if maybe there's a way to write a very simple batch file that can write all the command parameters to a text file, where I can process them later. Basically, just grab the parameter list, write it and done. Q: Is there some way to treat an entire series of parameter data as one big text string and write it to one big variable... and then echo the whole big thing to one text file? Then later read the string into %n variables when there's no program waiting to resume? Parameter list is something like 25 - 30 words, less than 200 characters. Sample parameter list: "First Name" "Lastname" "123 Steet Name Way" "Cityname" ST 12345 1004968 06/01/2010 "Firstname+Lastname" 101738 "On Account" 20.67 xy-1z 1 8.95 3.00 1.39 0 0 239 8.95 Items in quotes are processed as string variables. List is space delimited. Any suggestions?

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  • Optimize LINQ Query for use with jQuery Autocomplete

    - by rockinthesixstring
    I'm working on building an HTTPHandler that will serve up plain text for use with jQuery Autocomplete. I have it working now except for when I insert the first bit of text it does not take me to the right portion of the alphabet. Example: If I enter Ne my drop down returns Nlabama Arkansas Notice the "N" from Ne and the "labama" from "Alabama" As I type the third character New, then the jQuery returns the "N" section of the results. My current code looks like this Public Sub ProcessRequest(ByVal context As System.Web.HttpContext) Implements System.Web.IHttpHandler.ProcessRequest ' the page contenttype is plain text' HttpContext.Current.Response.ContentType = "text/plain" ' store the querystring as a variable' Dim qs As Nullable(Of Integer) = Integer.TryParse(HttpContext.Current.Request.QueryString("ID"), Nothing) ' use the RegionsDataContext' Using RegionDC As New DAL.RegionsDataContext 'create a (q)uery variable' Dim q As Object ' if the querystring PID is not blank' ' then we want to return results based on the PID' If Not qs Is Nothing Then ' that fit within the Parent ID' q = (From r In RegionDC.bt_Regions _ Where r.PID = qs _ Select r.Region).ToArray ' now we loop through the array' ' and write out the ressults' For Each item In q HttpContext.Current.Response.Write(item & vbCrLf) Next End If End Using End Sub So where I'm at now is the fact that I stumbled on the "Part" portion of the Autocomplete method whereby I should only return information that is contained within the Part. My question is, how would I implement this concept into my HTTPHandler without doing a fresh SQLQuery on every character change? IE: I do the SQL Query on the QueryString("ID"), and then on every subsequent load of the same ID, we just filter down the "Part". http://www.example.com/ReturnRegions.axd?ID=[someID]&Part=[string]

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  • What is the purpose of the s==NULL case for mbrtowc?

    - by R..
    mbrtowc is specified to handle a NULL pointer for the s (multibyte character pointer) argument as follows: If s is a null pointer, the mbrtowc() function shall be equivalent to the call: mbrtowc(NULL, "", 1, ps) In this case, the values of the arguments pwc and n are ignored. As far as I can tell, this usage is largely useless. If ps is not storing any partially-converted character, the call will simply return 0 with no side effects. If ps is storing a partially-converted character, then since '\0' is not valid as the next byte in a multibyte sequence ('\0' can only be a string terminator), the call will return (size_t)-1 with errno==EILSEQ. and leave ps in an undefined state. The intended usage seems to have been to reset the state variable, particularly when NULL is passed for ps and the internal state has been used, analogous to mbtowc's behavior with stateful encodings, but this is not specified anywhere as far as I can tell, and it conflicts with the semantics for mbrtowc's storage of partially-converted characters (if mbrtowc were to reset state when encountering a 0 byte after a potentially-valid initial subsequence, it would be unable to detect this dangerous invalid sequence). If mbrtowc were specified to reset the state variable only when s is NULL, but not when it points to a 0 byte, a desirable state-reset behavior would be possible, but such behavior would violate the standard as written. Is this a defect in the standard? As far as I can tell, there is absolutely no way to reset the internal state (used when ps is NULL) once an illegal sequence has been encountered, and thus no correct program can use mbrtowc with ps==NULL.

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