Search Results

Search found 11634 results on 466 pages for 'nested properties'.

Page 387/466 | < Previous Page | 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390 391 392 393 394  | Next Page >

  • Can I configure the ResetPassword in Asp.Net's MembershipProvider?

    - by coloradotechie
    I have an C# asp.net app using the default Sql MembershipProvider. My web.config has a few settings that control how I'm using this Provider: enablePasswordRetrieval="false" enablePasswordReset="true" requiresUniqueEmail="true" passwordFormat="Hashed" minRequiredPasswordLength="5" The problem I'm running into is that when people reset their passwords, it seems the ResetPassword() method returns a password that is longer than I want and has characters that can be confusing (l,1,i,I,0,O). Furthermore, I'm sending my users an email with a plain-text message and an HTML message (I'm using MailMessage with AlternateViews). If the password has unsafe HTML characters in it, when the email clients render the HTML text the password might be different (e.g. the %, &, and < aren't exactly HTML safe). I've looked over the "add" element that belongs in the web.config, but I don't see any extra configuration properties to only include certain characters in the ResetPassword() method and to limit the password length. Can I configure the ResetPassword() method to limit the password length and limit the character set it is choosing from? Right now I have a workaround: I call ResetPassword() to make sure the supplied answer is correct, and then I use a RandomPassword generator I downloaded off the internet to generate a password that I like (without ambiguous characters, HTML safe, and only 8 characters long) and then I call ChangePassword() to change the user's password after I've already reset it. My workaround seems kludgy and I thought it would be better to configure ResetPassword() to do what I want. Thank you~! ColoradoTechie

    Read the article

  • MVVM: Thin ViewModels and Rich Models

    - by Dan Bryant
    I'm continuing to struggle with the MVVM pattern and, in attempting to create a practical design for a small/medium project, have run into a number of challenges. One of these challenges is figuring out how to get the benefits of decoupling with this pattern without creating a lot of repetitive, hard-to-maintain code. My current strategy has been to create 'rich' Model classes. They are fully aware that they will be consumed by an MVVM pattern and implement INotifyPropertyChanged, allow their collections to be observed and remain cognizant that they may always be under observation. My ViewModel classes tend to be thin, only exposing properties when data actually needs to be transformed, with the bulk of their code being RelayCommand handlers. Views happily bind to either ViewModels or Models directly, depending on whether any data transformation is required. I use AOP (via Postsharp) to ease the pain of INotifyPropertyChanged, making it easy to make all of my Model classes 'rich' in this way. Are there significant disadvantages to using this approach? Can I assume that the ViewModel and View are so tightly coupled that if I need new data transformation for the View, I can simply add it to the ViewModel as needed?

    Read the article

  • setting up 301 redirects: dynamic urls to static urls

    - by MS
    We are currently using a template-based website and are hoping to move to a site with static urls. Our domain will stay the same. I understand that using 301 redirects in a .htaccess file is the preferred method -- and the one that has the highest chance of preserving our google rankings. I am still new at all this and am having a hard time figuring out the proper way to code it all. Over a hundred of our pages are indexed. They all have a similar URL but with different pageIDs: http://www.realestate-bigbear.com/Nav.aspx/Page=%2fPageManager%2fDefault.aspx%2fPageID%3d2020765 Some link out to provided content, ex. /RealEstateNews/Default.aspx Then there are many that flow from the main featured listings page: /ListNow/Default.aspx Down to all the specific properties.. where the PropertyId changes /ListNow/Property.aspx?PropertyID=2048098 would a simple set of codes work... like the following.... redirect 301 /Nav.aspx/Page=%2fPageManager%2fDefault.aspx%2fPageID%3d2020765 www.realestate.bigbear.com/SearchBigBearMLS.htm or do I need to do something entirely different?

    Read the article

  • Accessing an excel file throws OleDbException but keeps handle on file

    - by Jonn
    Really odd that I'd get an oledbexception but turns out that the file's handle is still with the original file. I've been searching through google and keep finding the same problem but no solutions. Connection String: "Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;" + "Data Source=" + filePath + ";" + "Extended Properties=Excel 8.0;"; Note that it works on every other file except a particular excel file. Exception: System.Data.OleDb.OleDbException: No error information available: E_UNEXPECTED(0x8000FFFF). And then I have exception handling like this: try { IEnumerable<string> worksheetNames = GetWorkbookWorksheetNames(connString); DataSet ds; foreach (string worksheetName in worksheetNames) { OleDbDataAdapter dataAdapter = new OleDbDataAdapter("SELECT * FROM [" + worksheetName + "]", connString); ds = new DataSet(); dataAdapter.Fill(ds, "ExcelInfo"); DataTable dt = ds.Tables["ExcelInfo"]; entityList.AddRange(GetDataFromDataTable(dt, worksheetName)); } } catch (OleDbException ex) { File.Move(filePath, filePath + ".invalidFormat.xls"); } Has anyone else encountered this behavior? And I'm not sure how to handle an error that keeps the handle on the file I'm supposed to process. It sort of freezes everything in place.

    Read the article

  • Drupal: Template Files, Modules and Content Types for Advanced Theme

    - by theandym
    Intro I am in the process of trying to convert my first HTML/CSS design into a theme for Drupal. I have used ModX for quite a few designs and appreciate the ability to create different page templates and custom variables to be assigned to those templates. However I seem to be having some issues making the transition. The site I am working on theming in Drupal is for a real estate agent. Each page/section will have a different set of content associated with it and will need to display only that content. For example, there will be a page for current listings, each of which will be formatted by a custom content type. However, when I call the content on the home page (or on other pages) I do not want to see this listing data. Layout The layout of the site and the regions associated with each page/section is as follows: Home Spotlight Featured 1 Featured 2 About Spotlight Bios - Profiles of each agent (each will be a node with name, contact info, pic, etc) listed on the page; multiple nodes listed Sidebar Listings Spotlight Listings - Profiles of properties (each will be a node with locations, basic info, pic, etc) listed on the page; multiple nodes listed Sidebar Services Spotlight Content - general paragraph text area Sidebar News/Blog News/Blog Items - List of stories with summaries and links to full article Sidebar Each page/section will use the same header and footer. Issue I have done some reading on Drupal, custom content types (and CCK), Views, and Pathauto. However I have not been able to get a clear picture of how to put it all together to accomplish what I am attempting. What I really would like to know is which modules to use, how best to use them, which elements I need to use where, and what template files I should be using to theme the elements I need to use. Any help or reference to useful resources would be much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Rails user authorization

    - by Zachary
    I am currently building a Rails app, and trying to figure out the best way to authenticate that a user owns whatever data object they are trying to edit. I already have an authentication system in place (restful-authentication), and I'm using a simple before_filter to make sure a user is logged in before they can reach certain areas of the website. However, I'm not sure the best way to handle a user trying to edit a specific piece of data - for example lets say users on my site can own Books, and they can edit the properties of the book (title, author, pages, etc), but they should only be able to do this for Books that -they- own. In my 'edit' method on the books controller I would have a find that only retrieved books owned by the current_user. However, if another user knew the id of the book, they could type in http://website.com/book/7/edit , and the controller would verify that they are logged in, then show the edit page for that book (seems to bypass the controller). What is the best way to handle this? Is it more of a Rails convention routing issue that I don't understand (being able to go straight to the edit page), or should I be adding in a before_find, before_save, before_update, etc callbacks to my model?

    Read the article

  • how to read http response soap headers from web service response in proxy class

    - by Fabricio
    I'm having some problems with one webservice that i'm working with. I generated a proxy class with wsdl.exe that comes with .net framework. But that webservice return a header that isnt not mapped by the wsdl. I must map the header sop because it contains some properties that i have to read and work with. how can i read the soap's header collection? Ex.: <soap:Envelope xmlns:soap="http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"> <soap:Header xmlns="http://xml.amadeus.com/ws/2009/01/WBS_Session-2.0.xsd"> <Session> <SessionId>545784545</SessionId> <SequenceNumber>1</SequenceNumber> <SecurityToken>asd7a87sda89sd45as4d5a4</SecurityToken> </Session> </soap:Header> <soap:Body> <TAM_Altea_Seguranca_AutenticarRS xmlns="http://xml.amadeus.com/2009/04/TAM/TAM_Altea_Seguranca_AutenticarRS_2.0"> <statusDoProcesso> <codigoDoStatus>P</codigoDoStatus> </statusDoProcesso> </TAM_Altea_Seguranca_AutenticarRS> </soap:Body> </soap:Envelope> I need to read the SOAP:HEADER - Session.

    Read the article

  • Reinstalling assemblies for new user after reboot, why?

    - by Marko Benko
    Hi - I have Installshield InstallScript MSI aka "Full" setup and Installshield Basic MSI aka "Patch" setup. Full setup copies some files to GAC, some to folder, etc. Patch setup replaces some files in GAC and some in installation folder. How ingenious, isn't it? :) Also, patch setup is designed that none of its actions are visible after installation. I'm changing some properties in sequences for that(damn, can't remember which ones, will look it up). When patch is applied, application works well(administrator user), but when rebooting a computer and logging in as a different (just domain, not admin) user, application doesn't work. In trace I have found an error line stating that installation of one of the components(to be precise, component which puts files to GAC) failed. Says that there is no installation source for it... Why is this so? Setup is set to install for everyone, patch is just replacing some files, why does it need to "install" something when a new user logs in? Thanks, Marko

    Read the article

  • CreateDelegate with unknown types

    - by Giorgi
    Hello, I am trying to create Delegate for reading/writing properties of unknown type of class at runtime. I have a generic class Main<T> and a method which looks like this: Delegate.CreateDelegate(typeof(Func<T, object>), get) where get is a MethodInfo of the property that should be read. The problem is that when the property returns int (I guess this happens for value types) the above code throws ArgumentException because the method cannot be bound. In case of string it works well. To solve the problem I changed the code so that corresponding Delegate type is generated by using MakeGenericType. So now the code is: Type func = typeof(Func<,>); Type generic = func.MakeGenericType(typeof(T), get.ReturnType); var result = Delegate.CreateDelegate(generic, get) The problem now is that the created delegate instance of generic so I have to use DynamicInvoke which would be as slow as using pure reflection to read the field. So my question is why is that the first snippet of code fails with value types. According to MSDN it should work as it says that The return type of a delegate is compatible with the return type of a method if the return type of the method is more restrictive than the return type of the delegate and how to execute the delegate in the second snippet so that it is faster than reflection. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to rename an existing Grails application

    - by Johan Pelgrim
    Hi there, Does anybody know how to (easily) "rename" an existing grails application? I'm running into this because my PaaS provider does not allow me to delete a subscription... So I want to deploy my application under a different name. Of course, I can do this manually, but I think it might be a useful 'top-level' script (i.e. "grails rename-app newappname") Manual hints: When I do a "grails create-app myappname" I can see the myappname exists in the following files (and filenames)... Of course this is done by the create-app script, which replaces @...@ tokens in the template. I guess once they are replaced, it's not trivial to do a rename. ./.project: <name>myappname</name> ./application.properties:app.name=myappname ./build.xml:<project xmlns:ivy="antlib:org.apache.ivy.ant" name="myappname" default="test"> ./ivy.xml: <info organisation="org.example" module="myappname"/> ./myappname-test.launch:<stringAttribute key="org.eclipse.jdt.launching.PROJECT_ATTR" value="myappname"/> ./myappname.launch:<listEntry value="/myappname"/> ./myappname.launch:<listEntry value="<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <runtimeClasspathEntry containerPath="org.eclipse.jdt.launching.JRE_CONTAINER" javaProject="myappname" path="1" type="4"/> "/> ./myappname.launch:<stringAttribute key="org.eclipse.jdt.launching.PROJECT_ATTR" value="myappname"/> ./myappname.launch:<stringAttribute key="org.eclipse.jdt.launching.VM_ARGUMENTS" value="-Dbase.dir="${project_loc:myappname}" -Dserver.port=8080 -Dgrails.env=development"/> ./myappname.tmproj: <string>myappname.launch</string> And of course... the top-level directory name is "myappname" Any hints, or information about ongoing initiatives in this area are welcome Greetz, Johan

    Read the article

  • How to fix this java.lang.LinkageError?

    - by Péter Török
    I am trying to configure a custom layout class to Log4J as described in my previous post. The class uses java.util.regex.Matcher to identify potential credit card numbers in log messages. It works perfectly in unit tests (I can also programmatically configure a logger to use it and produce the expected output). However when I try to deploy it with our app in JBoss, I get the following error: --- MBEANS THAT ARE THE ROOT CAUSE OF THE PROBLEM --- ObjectName: jboss.web.deployment:war=MyWebApp-2010_02-SNAPSHOT.war,id=476602902 State: FAILED Reason: java.lang.LinkageError: java/util/regex/Matcher I couldn't even find any info on this form of the error - typically LinkageError seems to show up with a "loader constrain violation" message, like in here. Technical details: we use JBoss 4.2, Java 5, Log4J 1.2.12. We deploy our app in an .ear, which contains (among others) the above mentioned .war file, and the custom layout class in a separate jar file. We override the default settings in jboss-log4J.xml with our own log4j.properties located in a different folder, which is added to the classpath at startup, and is provided via Carbon. I can only guess: are two different Matcher class versions loaded from somewhere, or is Matcher loaded by two different classloaders when it is used from the jar and the war? What does this error message mean, and how can I fix it?

    Read the article

  • How do I create self-relationships in polymorphic inheritance in Elixir and Pylons?

    - by Turukawa
    I am new to programming and am following the example in the Pylons documentation on creating a Wiki. The database I want to link to the wiki was created with Elixir so I rewrote the Wiki database schema and have continued from there. In the wiki there is a requirement for a Navigation table which is inherited by Pages and Sections. A section can have many pages, while a page can only have one section. In addition, each sibling node can be chain-referenced to each other. So: Nav has "section" (OneToMany) and "before" (OneToOne - to reference preceeding node) Page has "section" (ManyToOne - many pages in one section) and inherits "before" Section inherits all from Nav The code I've written looks like this: class Nav(Entity): using_options(inheritance='multi') name = Field(Unicode(30), default=u'Untitled Node') path = Field(Unicode(255), default=u'') section = OneToMany('Page', inverse='section') after = OneToOne('Nav', inverse='before') before = OneToMany('Nav', inverse='after') class Page(Nav): using_options(inheritance='multi') content = Field(UnicodeText, nullable=False) posted = Field(DateTime, default=now()) title = Field(Unicode(255), default=u'Untitled Page') heading = Field(Unicode(255)) tags = ManyToMany('Tag') comments = OneToMany('Comment') section = ManyToOne('Nav', inverse='section') class Section(Nav): using_options(inheritance='multi') Errors received on this: sqlalchemy.exc.OperationalError: (OperationalError) table nav has no column named aftr_id u'INSERT INTO nav (name, path, aftr_id, row_type) VALUES (?, ?, ?, ?)' I've also tried: before = ManyToMany('Nav', inverse='before') on Nav in the hopes this might break the problem, but also not. The original SQLAlchemy code from the tutorial for these declarations is as follows: nav_table = schema.Table('nav', meta.metadata, schema.Column('id', types.Integer(), schema.Sequence('nav_id_seq', optional=True), primary_key=True), schema.Column('name', types.Unicode(255), default=u'Untitled Node'), schema.Column('path', types.Unicode(255), default=u''), schema.Column('section', types.Integer(), schema.ForeignKey('nav.id')), schema.Column('before', types.Integer(), default=None), schema.Column('type', types.String(30), nullable=False) ) page_table = schema.Table('page', meta.metadata, schema.Column('id', types.Integer, schema.ForeignKey('nav.id'), primary_key=True), schema.Column('content', types.Text(), nullable=False), schema.Column('posted', types.DateTime(), default=now), schema.Column('title', types.Unicode(255), default=u'Untitled Page'), schema.Column('heading', types.Unicode(255)), ) section_table = sa.Table('section', meta.metadata, schema.Column('id', types.Integer, schema.ForeignKey('nav.id'), primary_key=True), ) orm.mapper(Nav, nav_table, polymorphic_on=nav_table.c.type, polymorphic_identity='nav') orm.mapper(Section, section_table, inherits=Nav, polymorphic_identity='section') orm.mapper(Page, page_table, inherits=Nav, polymorphic_identity='page', properties={ 'comments':orm.relation(Comment, backref='page', cascade='all'), 'tags':orm.relation(Tag, secondary=pagetag_table) }) Any help is much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • How do I change the CellErrorStyle for an Xceed Datagrid?

    - by Bob
    So in the Xceed documentation there is a code example that does not work for me. It may be because my grid is bound to a DataGridCollectionView. The objects in the collection used by the datagridcollection are what implement IDataErrorInfo. The errors are showing up just fine. The problem is that they are using the default orange background for errors...I need a red border. Below is the XAML instantiation of my grid. I set the DataCell background property to red just so I could be sure I had access to the grid's properties... I do. I just can't find the way to identify the cell's w/ errors so I can style them. Thanks! <XceedDG:DataGridControl Grid.Row="1" Grid.ColumnSpan="5" ItemsSource="{Binding Path = ABGDataGridCollectionView, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}" Background="{x:Static Views:DataGridControlBackgroundBrushes.ElementalBlue}" IsDeleteCommandEnabled="True" FontSize="16" AutoCreateColumns="False" x:Name="EncounterDataGrid" AllowDrop="True"> <XceedDG:DataGridControl.View> <Views:TableView ColumnStretchMode="All" ShowRowSelectorPane="True" ColumnStretchMinWidth="100"> <Views:TableView.FixedHeaders> <DataTemplate> <XceedDG:InsertionRow Height="40"/> </DataTemplate> </Views:TableView.FixedHeaders> </Views:TableView> </XceedDG:DataGridControl.View> <!--Group Header formatting--> <XceedDG:DataGridControl.Resources> <Style TargetType="{x:Type XceedDG:GroupByControl}"> <Setter Property="Visibility" Value="Collapsed"/> </Style> <Style TargetType="{x:Type XceedDG:DataCell}"> <Setter Property="Background" Value="Red"/> </Style> </XceedDG:DataGridControl.Resources> ...

    Read the article

  • WCF and ASP.NET - Server.Execute throwing object reference not set to an instance of an object

    - by user208662
    Hello, I have an ASP.NET page that calls to a WCF service. This WCF service uses a BackgroundWorker to asynchronously create an ASP.NET page on my server. Oddly, when I execute the WCF Service [OperationContract] [WebInvoke(Method = "POST", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.WrappedRequest, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json)] public void PostRequest(string comments) { // Do stuff // If everything went o.k. asynchronously render a page on the server. I do not want to // block the caller while this is occurring. BackgroundWorker myWorker = new BackgroundWorker(); myWorker.DoWork += new DoWorkEventHandler(myWorker_DoWork); myWorker.RunWorkerAsync(HttpContext.Current); } private void myWorker_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { // Set the current context so we can render the page via Server.Execute HttpContext context = (HttpContext)(e.Argument); HttpContext.Current = context; // Retrieve the url to the page string applicationPath = context.Request.ApplicationPath; string sourceUrl = applicationPath + "/log.aspx"; string targetDirectory = currentContext.Server.MapPath("/logs/"); // Execute the other page and load its contents using (StringWriter stringWriter = new StringWriter()) { // Write the contents out to the target url // NOTE: THIS IS WHERE MY ERROR OCCURS currentContext.Server.Execute(sourceUrl, stringWriter); // Prepare to write out the result of the log targetPath = targetDirectory + "/" + DateTime.Now.ToShortDateString() + ".aspx"; using (StreamWriter streamWriter = new StreamWriter(targetPath, false)) { // Write out the content to the file sb.Append(stringWriter.ToString()); streamWriter.Write(sb.ToString()); } } } Oddly, when the currentContext.Server.Execute method is executed, it throws an "object reference not set to an instance of an object" error. The reason this is so strange is because I can look at the currentContext properties in the watch window. In addition, Server is not null. Because of this, I have no idea where this error is coming from. Can someone point me in the correct direction of what the cause of this could be? Thank you!

    Read the article

  • Java - Custom PropertyEditorSupport to display units

    - by I82Much
    All, I'm trying to make the properties of my node have Units associated with the measure. ( I am using the JScience.org implementation of JSR 275) So for instance, public class Robot extends AbstractNode { // in kg float vehicleMass; @Override public Sheet createSheet() { Sheet s = Sheet.createDefault(); Sheet.Set set = s.createPropertiesSet(); try { PropertySupport.Reflection vehicleMassField = new PropertySupport.Reflection(this, float.class, "vehicleMass"); vehicleMassField.setValue("units", SI.KILOGRAMS); vehicleMassField.setName("vehicleMass"); set.put(vehicleMassField); PropertyEditorManager.registerEditor(float.class, UnitInPlaceEditor.class); } catch (NoSuchMethodException ex) { Exceptions.printStackTrace(ex); } s.put(set); return s; } } I want my UnitInPlaceEditor to append the units to the end of the string representation of the number, and when the field is clicked (enters edit mode) for the units to disappear and just the number becomes selected for editing. I can make the units appear, but I cannot get the units to disappear when the field enters editing mode. public class UnitsInplaceEditor extends PropertyEditorSupport implements ExPropertyEditor { private PropertyEnv pe; @Override public String getAsText() { // Append the unit by retrieving the stored value } @Override public void setAsText(String s) { // strip off the unit, parse out the number } public void attachEnv(PropertyEnv pe) { this.pe = pe; } } Here's a screenshot of the display - I like it like this.. but here's the value being edited; note the unit stays there. Basically I want one value (string) to be displayed in the field when the field is NOT being edited, and a different to be displayed when user starts editing the field. Barring that, I'd like to put a constant jlabel for the units (uneditable) to the right of the text field. Anyone know how to do this?

    Read the article

  • Embedding Lua functions as member variables in Java

    - by Zarion
    Although the program I'm working on is in Java, answering this from a C perspective is also fine, considering that most of this is either language-agnostic, or happens on the Lua side of things. In the outline I have for the architecture of a game I'm programming, individual types of game objects within a particular class (eg: creatures, items, spells, etc.) are loaded from a data file. Most of their properties are simple data types, but I'd like a few of these members to actually contain simple scripts that define, for example, what an item does when it's used. The scripts will be extremely simple, since all fundamental game actions will be exposed through an API from Java. The Lua is simply responsible for stringing a couple of these basic functions together, and setting arguments. The question is largely about the best way to store a reference to a specific Lua function as a member of a Java class. I understand that if I store the Lua code as a string and call lua_dostring, Lua will compile the code fresh every time it's called. So the function needs to be defined somehow, and a reference to this specific function wrapped in a Java function object. One possibility that I've considered is, during the data loading process, when the loader encounters a script definition in a data file, it extracts this string, decorates the function name using the associated object's unique ID, calls lua_dostring on the string containing a full function definition, and then wraps the generated function name in a Java function object. A function declared in script run with lua_dostring should still be added to the global function table, correct? I'm just wondering if there's a better way of going about this. I admit that my knowledge of Lua at this point is rather superficial and theoretical, so it's possible that I'm overlooking something obvious.

    Read the article

  • Ant fileset's "dir" missing from absolute path when using a mapper

    - by spaaarky21
    I've been trying to write an Ant task to "compile" Sass scripts in my project using the apply task but I kept getting a "No such file or directory" error. I thought it might have been caused by spaces in the buildpath so I went through the trouble of moving the project only to find that Ant seems to omitting the fileset's root directory when it returns the path. This is what the target looks like: <target name="sass-compile" depends="properties"> <apply executable="sass"> <srcfile /> <targetfile /> <fileset dir="${project.src.dir}" includes="**/*.scss" /> <globmapper from="*.scss" to="*.css" /> </apply> </target> To help troubleshoot, I switched the executable from sass to echo and I noticed that the mapper is transforming paths like this... /Users/me/Documents/Programming/workspace/Project/src/java/com/proj/web/page/template/Template.scss ...into this... /Users/me/Documents/Programming/workspace/Project/java/com/proj/web/page/template/Template.css Notice that the src directory is missing from the target file path. Am I seeing a bug here or is this somehow expected? I would love to know what's going on here. I have also tried using a regexpmapper, and a filtermapper with replacestring. The result is the same. I'm running Ant 1.7.1, which comes bundled with Eclipse Helios, which I'm running on a Mac. I also tried Ant 1.8 on both Mac and Linux. Nothing works. Does anyone have any ideas?

    Read the article

  • .NET: Problems creating email attachment from MemoryStream.

    - by David
    Hi all I'm using the following method to create an attachment from a MemoryStream: public void AddAttachment(Stream stream, string filename, string mimeType) { byte[] buffer = ((MemoryStream) stream).GetBuffer(); Attachment attachment = new Attachment(stream, filename, mimeType); _mail.Attachments.Add(attachment); } Note that the first line is not necessary isn't necessary for the attachment functionality, it's just useful to have the byte[] handy during debugging so that I can see how big it is. (It generally has around 80,000 elements.) The code runs fine and the email is sent. When Outlook receives the email, in the Inbox it displays the attachment symbol, but when you go into the email the attachment isn't there. Unfortunately I don't have access to the mail server to find out more about the email, e.g. what the attachment looks like, its size etc. Can anyone suggest what properties of the MemoryStream argument might tell me if it is in some way invalid for attachment? Or think of anything else I might try? Thank you. David

    Read the article

  • Annoying IE7 problem.

    - by Yo-L
    I am styling a Wordpress theme but has run into problem with IE7. The first word("it") inside the paragraph/strong tag ends up to the left of the img tag when I want it BELOW the image. My problem is that the only element I can change CSS properties here is the div, since the code inside is posted with a WYSIWYG by an blog author. Is there anyway i can fix this problem? I have tried lots of different settings and every other browser FF safari IE8 renders the text below the image. <div style="width: 430px;"> <h1>It is hard getting it right in IE7!</h1> <p> <img class="aligncenter size-full wp-image-4333" src="http://xxx.xxx.xx/files/2010/03/xxx.jpg" alt="xxx" style="width: 430px; height: 600px" /> <strong>It is hard</strong> getting it right in IE7! </p> </div>

    Read the article

  • Flex 3: should I provide prepared data to my component or make it to process data before display?

    - by grapkulec
    I'm starting to learn a little Flex just for fun and maybe to prove that I still can learn something new :) I have some idea for a project and one of its parts is a tree component which could display data in different ways depending on configuration. The idea There is list of objects having properties like id, date, time, name, description. And sometimes list should be displayed like this: first level: date second level: time third level: name and sometimes like this: first level: year second level: month third level: day fourth level: time and name By level I mean level of nesting of course. So, we can have years, that have months, that have days, that have hours and so forth. The problem What could be the best way to do it? I mean, should I prepare data for different ways of nesting outside of component or even outside of flex? I can do it at web service level in C# where I plan to have database access layer and send to flex nice and ready to display XML or array of objects. But I wonder if that won't cause additional and maybe unneccessary network traffic. I tried to hack some code in my component to convert my data objects into XML or ArrayCollection but I don't know enough of Flex and got stuck on elimination of duplicates or getting specific data by some key value. Usually to do such things I have STL with maps, sets and vectors and I find Flex arrays and even Dictionary a little bit confusing (I've read language reference and googled without any significant luck). The question So, to sum things up: should I give my tree component data prepared just for chosen type of display or should I try to do it internally inside component (or some helper class written in ActionScript)?

    Read the article

  • Why is a CoreData forceFetch required after a delete on the iPad but not the iPhone?

    - by alyoshak
    When the following code is run on the iPhone the count of fetched objects after the delete is one less than before the delete. But on the iPad the count remains the same. This inconsistency was causing a crash on the iPad because elsewhere in the code, soon after the delete, fetchedObjects is called and the calling code, trusting the count, attempts access to the just-deleted object's properties, resulting in a NSObjectInaccessibleException error (see below). A fix has been to use that commented-out call to performFetch, which when executed makes the second call to fetchObjects yield the same result as on the iPhone without it. My question is: Why is the iPad producing different results than the iPhone? This is the second of these differences that I've discovered and posted recently. -(NSError*)deleteObject:(NSManagedObject*)mo; { NSLog(@"\n\nNum objects in store before delete: %i\n\n", [[self.fetchedResultsController fetchedObjects] count]); [self.managedObjectContext deleteObject:mo]; // Save the context. NSError *error = nil; if (![self.managedObjectContext save:&error]) { } // [self.fetchedResultsController performFetch:&error]; // force a fetch NSLog(@"\n\nNum objects in store after delete (and save): %i\n\n", [[self.fetchedResultsController fetchedObjects] count]); return error; } (The full NSObjectInaccessibleException is: "Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSObjectInaccessibleException', reason: 'CoreData could not fulfill a fault for '0x1dcf90 <x-coredata://DC02B10D-555A-4AB8-8BC4-F419C4982794/Blueprint/p"

    Read the article

  • IList<Item> Collection Class accessing database

    - by Mike
    Hi, I have a database with Users. Users have Items. These Items can change actively. How do you access the items in a collection type format? For the user, I fill all the user properties at the time of instantiation. If I load the user's items at the time of the instantiation, and the items change, they will have old data. I was thinking, maybe I need an ItemCollection class and have that a field/property apart of the user class, that way to traverse all the user's items I could use a foreach loop. So, my question is, what is the best practice/best way of accessing the items from a database using some sort of collection? On accessing the particular Item, it needs to get the latest database information, and when the user does do a foreach loop, the latest item information must be available. I.e. What I'm trying to do Console.WriteLine(User.Items[3].ID); returns 5. //this updates the item information and saves it to the database. User.Items[3].ID = 13; //Add a new item to the database. User.Items.Add(new Item { id = 17}); foreach (Item item in User.Items) { //this would traverse all items in the database. //not some cached copy at the time of instantiation of the user. }

    Read the article

  • Getting a connection from a Sybase datasource in WAS 6.1 fails with message "User name property miss

    - by Abel Morelos
    I have a standalone application that needs to connect to a Sybase database via a datasource, I'm trying to connect using getConnection() and get the connection from this Sybase datasource which is hosted in WAS 6.1, sadly I'm getting an error JZ004 - Sybase(R) jConnect for JDBC(TM) Programmer's Reference: SQL Exception and Warning Messages JZ004 error message is: User name property missing in DriverManager.getConnection(..., Properties) Action: Provide the required user property. As you can see, this is not a connectivity (so we can discard JNDI or lookup problems), but rather a configuration problem. For my Sybase datasource in WAS 6.1 I have set up the proper authentication alias (Component-managed Authentication Alias), and I know the credentials are alright, "Test Connection" is successful for this datasource. Somebody had a similar problem and was because of the authentication alias- http://forum.springsource.org/showthread.php?t=39915 Next, I tried calling getConnection() but now I provided the credentials like getConnection(user, password)... and this time it worked!!! So I suspect that somehow WAS 6.1 is not picking or taking the authentication info I set in the datasource as mentioned before. If you think that maybe getConnection(user, password) should be OK for my case, well, that's not the case since I have a requirement to keep the credentials in the server, the standalone application only needs to know the JNDI information to lookup the datasource. Please let me know if have faced a similar problem, or what would you suggest me to do. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Why won't VS2010 RC use my existing types when I add a service reference?

    - by Johan Driessen
    I have a huge problem getting services references in VS2010 RC to use existing assemblies. Even though I have a class library with all the data contracts (classes marked with DataContract and properties with DataMember) that is shared between the service project and the consuming project (which is a class library), when I add a service reference, the data contracts are regenerated withing the service reference instead of using the existing types. When I was using VS2010 beta 2, this worked fine, and I have existing service references using the very same data contracts. But if I add a new service reference, or even update an old one, it won't use the existing types anymore. I have made a mini-test-solution, with one service, one data contract type and one console app as a consumer (all in the same solution), and there it seems to work, but that's no great comfort to me. Is there any way to see why it can't use the existing types? Edit to clearify. It works to generate the proxy classes with svcutil.exe, and point to the data contracts dll, like this: svcutil.exe http://localhost/MyService.svc /reference:[Path To DataContracts]\DataContracts.dll /n:*,MyProject.MyServiceReference /ct:System.Collections.Generic.List`1 The question is, what possible reason could there be for Visual Studio to generate its own datacontracts instead of using the existing ones even though the "reuse" checkbox is checked and the datacontracts assembly is referenced.

    Read the article

  • Silverlight MVVM binding seems not to work

    - by Savvas Sopiadis
    Hi everybody! Building my first SL MVVM application (Silverlight4 RC) and have some issues i don't understand. Having a WPF background i don't know what is going on here: ViewModel has several properties, in which one is called SelectedRecord. This is a get only property and is defined like this: public Culture SelectedRecord { get { return culturesView.View.CurrentItem as Culture; } } As you can see it is gets the current value of a CollectionViewSource (called culturesView). So if i select a Culture, the SelectedRecord (gets a value directly from within the CollectionViewSource) as expected. (Actually there is a datagrid control bound to the CollectionViewSource, hence it is possible to change the selected item) OK. Now to the View . There are several views which access this ViewModel and in particular there is one which shows the values of the aforementioned property SelectedRecord (let's call it the EditView). To show this EditView there is a button (which has its Command property bound to an ICommand in the ViewModel) which functions (the first time) as expected. This means: 1st try : i select a record, switch to EditView, outcome: selected record values are shown (as expected!!). 2nd try: switch back to datagrid, select another record, switch to EditView, outcome: the values of the previous shown record are shown again!!! WHY?? First i thought that the SelectedRecord has not the correct value set, but i was mistaken: it HAS the correct value! So it should be shown!? What am i missing? In WPF this would work!! Thanks in advance

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390 391 392 393 394  | Next Page >