Search Results

Search found 45581 results on 1824 pages for 'value objects'.

Page 387/1824 | < Previous Page | 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390 391 392 393 394  | Next Page >

  • jqgrid not updating data on reload

    - by meepmeep
    I have a jqgrid with data loading from an xml stream (handled by django 1.1.1): jQuery(document).ready(function(){ jQuery("#list").jqGrid({ url:'/downtime/list_xml/', datatype: 'xml', mtype: 'GET', postData:{site:1,date_start:document.getElementById('datepicker_start').value,date_end:document.getElementById('datepicker_end').value}, colNames:[...], colModel :[...], pager: '#pager', rowNum: 25, rowList:[10,25,50], viewrecords: true, height: 500, caption: 'Click on column headers to reorder' }); $("#grid_reload").click(function(){ $("#list").trigger("reloadGrid"); }); $("#tabs").tabs(); $("#datepicker_start").datepicker({dateFormat: 'yy-mm-dd'}); $("#datepicker_end").datepicker({dateFormat: 'yy-mm-dd'}); ... And the html elements: <th>Start Date:</th> <td><input id="datepicker_start" type="text" value="2009-12-01"></input></td> <th>End Date:</th> <td><input id="datepicker_end" type="text" value="2009-12-03"></input></td> <td><input id="grid_reload" type="submit" value="load" /></td> When I click the grid_reload button, the grid reloads, but when it has done so it shows exactly the same data as before, even though the xml is tested to return different data for different timestamps. I have checked using alert(document.getElementById('datepicker_start').value) that the values in the date inputs are passed correctly when the reload event is triggered. Any ideas why the data doesn't update? A caching or browser issue perhaps?

    Read the article

  • Database structure and source control - best practice

    - by Paddy
    Background I came from several years working in a company where all the database objects were stored in source control, one file per object. We had a list of all the objects that was maintained when new items were added (to allow us to have scripts run in order and handle dependencies) and a VB script that ran to create one big script for running against the database. All the tables were 'create if not exists' and all the SP's etc. were drop and recreate. Up to the present and I am now working in a place where the database is the master and there is no source control for DB objects, but we do use redgate's tools for updating our production database (SQL compare), which is very handy, and requires little work. Question How do you handle your DB objects? I like to have them under source control (and, as we're using GIT, I'd like to be able to handle merge conflicts in the scripts, rather than the DB), but I'm going to be pressed to get past the ease of using SQL compare to update the database. I don't really want to have us updating scripts in GIT and then using SQL compare to update the production database from our DEV DB, as I'd rather have 'one version of the truth', but I don't really want to get into re-writing a custom bit of software to bundle the whole lot of scripts together. I think that visual studio database edition may do something similar to this, but I'm not sure if we will have the budget for it. I'm sure that this has been asked to death, but I can't find anything that seems to quite have the answer I'm looking for. Similar to this, but not quite the same: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/340614/what-are-the-best-practices-for-database-scripts-under-code-control

    Read the article

  • Passing html parameters to server odd problem

    - by StealthRT
    Hey all i am having a weird problem with sending data back to my server. This is the code i am using: NSString *theURL =[NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://www.xxx.com/confirm.asp?theID=%@&theName=%@&empID=%@&theComp=%@", theConfirmNum, tmpNBUserRow.userName, labelTxt.text, theID]; NSLog(@"%@,%@,%@,%@", theConfirmNum, tmpNBUserRow.userName, labelTxt.text, theID); NSMutableURLRequest *request = [[[NSMutableURLRequest alloc] init] autorelease]; [request setURL:[NSURL URLWithString:theURL]]; [request setHTTPMethod:@"POST"]; NSError *error; NSURLResponse *response; NSData *urlData=[NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:&response error:&error]; NSString *data=[[NSString alloc]initWithData:urlData encoding:NSUTF8StringEncoding]; if ([data isEqualToString:@"Done"]) I can run the code from the browser and it works just fine using the data i got from the NSLog output. The NSLog output for each value is correct. But for some reason when i put a break on the IF ([data isEqualToString:@"Done"]) it has no return value. I checked each value for what it was sending (and again, it was correct in the NSLog output) and i found that the value "theID" said "Out of scope". Although, again, the NSLog had the value in it correctly? So i searched the forum and found a simular problem. I took their advice and added "RETAIN" to the "theID" value like so: theID = [customObjInstance TID]; [theID retain]; However, that did not solve the issue... Here is the console NSLog output: [Session started at 2010-04-11 01:31:50 -0400.] wait_fences: failed to receive reply: 10004003 wait_fences: failed to receive reply: 10004003 nbTxt(5952,0xa0937500) malloc: *** error for object 0x3c0ebc0: double free *** set a breakpoint in malloc_error_break to debug 2010-04-11 01:32:12.270 nbTxt[5952:207] 5122,Rob S.,5122,NB010203 The NSLog values i am sending is the last line "5122,Rob S.,5122,NB010203" Any help would be great :o) David

    Read the article

  • Update table columns bound to NSArrayController

    - by Loz
    Hi, I'm fairly new to the world of bindings in cocoa, and I'm having some troubles (perhaps/probably due to a misunderstanding). I have a singleton that contains an NSMutableArray called plugins, containing objects of class Plugin. It has a method called loadPlugins which adds objects to the plugins array. This may be called at any point. It's been added as an instance in Interface Builder. Also in IB is an NSObjectController, whose content outlet is connected to the singleton. There is also an NSArrayController, whose contentArray is bound to the NSObjectController (controller key is 'selection', model key path is 'plugins', object class name is 'Plugin'). And finally I have a table view with 2 columns, the values of which are bound to the NSArrayController's arrangedObjects, using keys of properties in the Plugin class. So far so standard (as far as I can tell from tutorials at least). My trouble is that when the loadPlugins method is called in the singleton, and objects are added to the plugins array, the table doesn't update to show the objects (unless loadPlugins is called before the nib is loaded). -reloadData called on the tableView doesn't do anything. Is there a way to tell the NSArrayController that the referenced array has been updated? I understand there is the -add: method for NSArrayController, which could be used in the loadPlugins, but this isn't desirable as I want to keep the singleton totally separate from the display aspect. This seems related to: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1623396/refresh-cocoa-binding-nsarraycontroller-combobox The line: "editing the array behind the controller's back" seems to perhaps pinpoint the problem, but I would hope that it would be possible to have the singleton not know about the controller. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Best practices for class-mapping with SoapClient

    - by Foofy
    Using SoapClient's class mapping feature and it's pretty sweet. Unfortunately the SOAP service we're using has a bunch of read-only properties on some of the objects and will throw faults if the properties are passed back as anything but null. Need to filter out the properties before they're used in the SOAP call and am looking for advice on the best way to do it. So far the options are: Stick to a convention where I use getter and setter functions to manipulate the properties, and use property overloading to filter method access since only SoapClient would be doing that. E.g. developers would access properties like this: $obj->getAccountNumber() SoapClient would access properties like this: $obj->accountNumber I don't like this because the properties are still exposed and things could go wrong if developers don't stick to convention. Have a wrapper for SoapClient that sets a public property the mapped objects can check to see if the property is being accessed by SoapClient. I already have a wrapper that assigns a reference to itself to all the mapped objects. class SoapClientWrapper { public function __soapCall($method, $args) { $this->setSoapMode(true); $this->_soapClient->__soapCall($method, $args); $this->setSoapMode(false); } } class Invoice { function __get($val) { if($this->_soapClient->getSoapMode()) { return null; } else { return $this->$val; } } } This works but it doesn't feel right and seems a bit clunky. Do the mapping manually, and don't use SoapClient's mapping features. I'd just have a function on all the mapped objects that returns the safe-to-send properties. Also, nobody would have access to properties they shouldn't since I could enforce getters and setters. A lot more work, though.

    Read the article

  • Why is ExecuteFunction method only available through base.ExecuteFunction in a child class of Object

    - by Matt
    I'm trying to call ObjectContext.ExecuteFunction from my objectcontext object in the repository of my site. The repository is generic, so all I have is an ObjectContext object, rather than one that actually represents my specific one from the Entity Framework. Here's an example of code that was generated that uses the ExecuteFunction method: [global::System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCode("System.Data.Entity.Design.EntityClassGenerator", "4.0.0.0")] public global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectResult<ArtistSearchVariation> FindSearchVariation(string source) { global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectParameter sourceParameter; if ((source != null)) { sourceParameter = new global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectParameter("Source", source); } else { sourceParameter = new global::System.Data.Objects.ObjectParameter("Source", typeof(string)); } return base.ExecuteFunction<ArtistSearchVariation>("FindSearchVariation", sourceParameter); } But what I would like to do is something like this... public class Repository<E, C> : IRepository<E, C>, IDisposable where E : EntityObject where C : ObjectContext { private readonly C _ctx; // ... public ObjectResult<E> ExecuteFunction(string functionName, params[]) { // Create object parameters return _ctx.ExecuteFunction<E>(functionName, /* parameters */) } } Anyone know why I have to call ExecuteFunction from base instead of _ctx? Also, is there any way to do something like I've written out? I would really like to keep my repository generic, but with having to execute stored procedures it's looking more and more difficult... Thanks, Matt

    Read the article

  • How to fix RapidXML String ownership concerns?

    - by Roddy
    RapidXML is a fast, lightweight C++ XML DOM Parser, but it has some quirks. The worst of these to my mind is this: 3.2 Ownership Of Strings. Nodes and attributes produced by RapidXml do not own their name and value strings. They merely hold the pointers to them. This means you have to be careful when setting these values manually, by using xml_base::name(const Ch *) or xml_base::value(const Ch *) functions. Care must be taken to ensure that lifetime of the string passed is at least as long as lifetime of the node/attribute. The easiest way to achieve it is to allocate the string from memory_pool owned by the document. Use memory_pool::allocate_string() function for this purpose. Now, I understand it's done this way for speed, but this feels like an car crash waiting to happen. The following code looks innocuous but 'name' and 'value' are out of scope when foo returns, so the doc is undefined. void foo() { char name[]="Name"; char value[]="Value"; doc.append_node(doc.allocate_node(node_element, name, value)); } The suggestion of using allocate_string() as per manual works, but it's so easy to forget. Has anyone 'enhanced' RapidXML to avoid this issue?

    Read the article

  • log4net creates log file but does not write to it (windows service in C#)

    - by user1825172
    I am trying to use basic logging for a windows service. I added the reference to log4net I added the following in AssemblyInfo.cs: [assembly: log4net.Config.XmlConfigurator(Watch = true)] I added the following to my App.config: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="log4net" type="log4net.Config.Log4NetConfigurationSectionHandler,log4net, Version=1.2.10.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=1b44e1d426115821" requirePermission="false" /> </configSections> <!-- Log4net Logging Setup --> <log4net> <appender name="RollingFileAppender" type="log4net.Appender.RollingFileAppender,log4net"> <file value="c:\\CGSD\\log\\logfile.txt" /> <appendToFile value="true" /> <lockingModel type="log4net.Appender.FileAppender+MinimalLock" /> <layout type="log4net.Layout.PatternLayout"> <conversionPattern value="%date [%thread] %level %logger - %message%newline" /> </layout> <filter type="log4net.Filter.LevelRangeFilter"> <levelMin value="INFO" /> <levelMax value="FATAL" /> </filter> </appender> <root> <level value="ALL"/> <appender-ref ref="RollingFileAppender"/> </root> </log4net> </configuration> I have the following code in my service: log4net.Config.XmlConfigurator.Configure(); log4net.ILog log = log4net.LogManager.GetLogger(typeof(Program)); log.Debug("test"); the file c:\CGSD\log\logfile.txt is created but nothing is ever written to it. i've been thru the forums all day trying to trac this one down, but if i overlooked an already posted solution i apologize. thx!

    Read the article

  • Add autoFill capabilities to jQuery-UI 1.8.1

    - by rockinthesixstring
    here's what I currently have, unfortunately I cannot seem to figure out how to get autoFill to work with jQuery-UI... It used to work with the straight up Autocomplete.js <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8.1/jquery-ui.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="http://jquery-ui.googlecode.com/svn/tags/latest/external/jquery.bgiframe-2.1.1.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8.1/i18n/jquery-ui-i18n.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> var thesource = "RegionsAutoComplete.axd?PID=3" $(function () { function log(message) { $("<div/>").text(message).prependTo("#log"); $("#log").attr("scrollTop", 0); } $.expr[':'].textEquals = function (a, i, m) { return $(a).text().match("^" + m[3] + "$"); }; $("#birds").autocomplete({ source: thesource, change: function (event, ui) { //if the value of the textbox does not match a suggestion, clear its value if ($(".ui-autocomplete li:textEquals('" + $(this).val() + "')").size() == 0) { $(this).val(''); } else { log(ui.item ? ("Selected: " + ui.item.value + " aka " + ui.item.id) : "Nothing selected, input was " + this.value); } } }).live('keydown', function (e) { var keyCode = e.keyCode || e.which; //if TAB or RETURN is pressed and the text in the textbox does not match a suggestion, set the value of the textbox to the text of the first suggestion if ((keyCode == 9 || keyCode == 13) && ($(".ui-autocomplete li:textEquals('" + $(this).val() + "')").size() == 0)) { $(this).val($(".ui-autocomplete li:visible:first").text()); } }); }); </script> I've used the answer here to get the mustMatch working, but unfortunately if I "tab" away from the input box, I get the "Nothing selected" response instead of an Value and ID. Does anyone know how to extract the ID out of the autocomplete when you don't actually select the field?

    Read the article

  • In C# should I reuse a function / property parameter to compute temp result or create a temporary v

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    The example below may not be problematic as is, but it should be enough to illustrate a point. Imagine that there is a lot more work than trimming going on. public string Thingy { set { // I guess we can throw a null reference exception here on null. value = value.Trim(); // Well, imagine that there is so much processing to do this.thingy = value; // That this.thingy = value.Trim() would not fit on one line ... So, if the assignment has to take two lines, then I either have to abusereuse the parameter, or create a temporary variable. I am not a big fan of temporary variables. On the other hand, I am not a fan of convoluted code. I did not include an example where a function is involved, but I am sure you can imagine it. One concern I have is if a function accepted a string and the parameter was "abused", and then someone changed the signature to ref in both places - this ought to mess things up, but ... who would knowingly make such a change if it already worked without a ref? Seems like it is their responsibility in this case. If I mess with the value of value, am I doing something non-trivial under the hood? If you think that both approaches are acceptable, then which do you prefer and why? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • C# unit test code questions continue

    - by 5YrsLaterDBA
    more questions after questions in here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2714073/c-unit-test-code-questions I found the VS unit test testframe treat private and protected method in the same way but deferent with public method. The following is the generated code for a private method: /// <summary> ///A test for recordLogin ///</summary> [TestMethod()] [DeploymentItem("SystemSoftware.exe")] public void recordLoginTest() { User_Accessor target = new User_Accessor(); // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value Guid userId = new Guid(); // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value string action = string.Empty; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value Users user = null; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value AndeDBEntities db = null; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value bool expected = false; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value bool actual; actual = target.recordLogin(userId, action, user, db); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); Assert.Inconclusive("Verify the correctness of this test method."); } questions: [DeploymentItem("SystemSoftware.exe")] is for private and protected methods, why needs it and what is it for? In my original class/file, if I point to the original method and try to "Find All References". The reference in the unit test class/file will not show up for private and protected methods but it will show up for all public methods. Why is that? Is it right? 3.

    Read the article

  • Read Parent nodes only from XML using LINQToXML

    - by ItsMeSri
    I have XML string that has parent nodes "Committee" and inside that another child node "Committee" is there. When I am using "from committee in xDocument.DescendantsAndSelf("Committee")" it is reading childnode also, but I don't want to read child nodes, I just want to read Parent nodes only. <Committee> <Position>STAFF</Position> <Appointment>1/16/2006</Appointment> <Committee>PPMSSTAFF</Committee> <CommitteeName>PPMS Staff</CommitteeName> <Expiration>12/25/2099</Expiration> </Committee> <Committee> <Position>STAFF</Position> <Appointment>4/16/2004</Appointment> <Committee>PMOSSTAFF</Committee> <CommitteeName>PPMS </CommitteeName> <Expiration>12/25/2099</Expiration> </Committee> XElement xDocument= XElement.Parse(xml); var committeeXmls = from Committee in xDocument.Descendants("Committee") select new { CommitteeName = Committee.Element("CommitteeName"), Position = Committee.Element("Position"), Appointment = Committee.Element("Appointment"), Expiration = Committee.Element("Expiration") }; int i = 0; foreach (var committeeXml in committeeXmls) { if (committeeXml != null) { drCommittee = dtCommittee.NewRow(); drCommittee["ID"] = ++i; drCommittee["CommitteeName"] = committeeXml.CommitteeName.Value; drCommittee["Position"] = committeeXml.Position.Value; drCommittee["Appointment"] = committeeXml.Appointment.Value; drCommittee["Expiration"] = committeeXml.Expiration.Value; dtCommittee.Rows.Add(drCommittee); // educationXml.GraduationDate.Value, educationXml.Major.Value); } }

    Read the article

  • JavaScript To Clear Form Field On Submit Before Form Submission To Perl Script

    - by Russell C.
    We have a very long form that has a number of fields and 2 different submit buttons. When a user clicks the 1st submit button ("Photo Search") the form should POST and our script will do a search for matching photos based on what the user entered in the text input ("photo_search_text") next to the 1st submit button and reload the entire form with matching photos added to the form. Upon clicking the 2nd submit button ("Save Changes") at the end of the form, it should POST and our script should update the database with the information the user entered in the form. Unfortunately the layout of the form makes it impossible to separate it into 2 separate forms. I checked the entire form POST and unfortunately the submitted fields are identical to the perl script processing the form submission no matter which submit button is clicked so the perl script can't differentiate which action to perform based on which submit button is pushed. The only thing I can think of is to update the onclick action of the 2nd submit button so it clears the "photo_search_text" field before the form is submitted and then only perform a photo search if that fields has a value. Based on all this, my question is what does the JavaScript look that could clear out the "photo_search_text" field when someone clicks on the 2nd submit button? Here is what I've tried so far none of which has worked successfully: <input type="submit" name="submit" onclick="document.update-form.photo_search_text.value='';" value="Save Changes"> <input type="submit" name="submit" onsubmit="document.update-form.photo_search_text.value='';" value="Save Changes"> <input type="submit" name="submit" onclick="document.getElementById('photo_search_text')='';" value="Save Changes"> We also use JQuery on the site so if there is a way to do this with jQuery instead of plain JavaScript feel free to provide example code for that instead. Lastly, if there is another way to handle this that I'm not thinking of any and all suggestions would be welcome. Thanks in advance for your help!

    Read the article

  • Get Mechanize to handle cookies from an arbitrary POST (to log into a website programmatically)

    - by Horace Loeb
    I want to log into https://www.t-mobile.com/ programmatically. My first idea was to use Mechanize to submit the login form: However, it turns out that this isn't even a real form. Instead, when you click "Log in" some javascript grabs the values of the fields, creates a new form dynamically, and submits it. "Log in" button HTML: <button onclick="handleLogin(); return false;" class="btnBlue" id="myTMobile-login"><span>Log in</span></button> The handleLogin() function: function handleLogin() { if (ValidateMsisdnPassword()) { // client-side form validation logic var a = document.createElement("FORM"); a.name = "form1"; a.method = "POST"; a.action = mytmoUrl; // defined elsewhere as https://my.t-mobile.com/Login/LoginController.aspx var c = document.createElement("INPUT"); c.type = "HIDDEN"; c.value = document.getElementById("myTMobile-phone").value; // the value of the phone number input field c.name = "txtMSISDN"; a.appendChild(c); var b = document.createElement("INPUT"); b.type = "HIDDEN"; b.value = document.getElementById("myTMobile-password").value; // the value of the password input field b.name = "txtPassword"; a.appendChild(b); document.body.appendChild(a); a.submit(); return true } else { return false } } I could simulate this form submission by POSTing the form data to https://my.t-mobile.com/Login/LoginController.aspx with Net::HTTP#post_form, but I don't know how to get the resultant cookie into Mechanize so I can continue to scrape the UI available when I'm logged in. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Problem with oracle stored procedure - parameters

    - by Nicole
    I have this stored procedure: CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE "LIQUIDACION_OBTENER" ( p_Cuenta IN NUMBER, p_Fecha IN DATE, p_Detalle OUT LIQUIDACION.FILADETALLE%TYPE ) IS BEGIN SELECT FILADETALLE INTO p_Detalle FROM Liquidacion WHERE (FILACUENTA = p_Cuenta) AND (FILAFECHA = p_Fecha); END; / ...and my c# code: string liquidacion = string.Empty; OracleCommand command = new OracleCommand("Liquidacion_Obtener"); command.BindByName = true; command.Parameters.Add(new OracleParameter("p_Cuenta", OracleDbType.Int64)); command.Parameters["p_Cuenta"].Value = cuenta; command.Parameters.Add(new OracleParameter("p_Fecha", OracleDbType.Date)); command.Parameters["p_Fecha"].Value = fecha; command.Parameters.Add("p_Detalle", OracleDbType.Varchar2, ParameterDirection.Output); OracleConnectionHolder connection = null; connection = this.GetConnection(); command.Connection = connection.Connection; command.CommandTimeout = 30; command.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; OracleDataReader lector = command.ExecuteReader(); while (lector.Read()) { liquidacion += ((OracleString)command.Parameters["p_Detalle"].Value).Value; } the thing is that when I try to put a value into the parameter "Fecha" (that is a date) the code gives me this error (when the line command.ExecuteReader(); is executed) Oracle.DataAccess.Client.OracleException : ORA-06502: PL/SQL: numeric or value error ORA-06512: at "SYSTEM.LIQUIDACION_OBTENER", line 9 ORA-06512: at line 1 I tried with the datetime and was not the problem, I eve tried with no input parameters and just the output and still got the same error. Aparently the problem is with the output parameter. I already tried putting p_Detalle OUT VARCHAR2 instead of p_Detalle OUT LIQUIDACION.FILADETALLE%TYPE but it didn't work either I hope my post is understandable.. thanks!!!!!!!!!!

    Read the article

  • How is jQuery so fast?

    - by ClarkeyBoy
    Hey, I have a rather large application which, on the admin frontend, takes a few seconds to load a page because of all the pageviews that it has to load into objects before displaying anything. Its a bit complex to explain how the system works, but a few of my other questions explains the system in great detail. The main difference between what they say and the current system is that the customer frontend no longer loads all the pageviews into objects when a customer first views the page - it simply adds the pageview to the database and creates an object in an unsynchronised list... to put it simply, when a customer views a page it no longer loads all the pageviews into objects; but the admin frontend still does. I have been working on some admin tools on the customer frontend recently, so if an administrator clicks the description of an item in the catalogue then the right hand column will display statistics and available actions for the selected item. To do this the page which gets loaded (through $('action-container').load(bla bla bla);) into the right hand column has to loop through ALL the pageviews - this ultimately means that ALL the pageviews are loaded into objects if they haven't been already. For some reason this loads really REALLY fast. The difference in speed is only like a second on my dev site, but the live site has thousands of pageviews so the difference is quite big... So my question is: why is it that the admin frontend loads so slowly while using $(bla).load(bla); is so fast? I mean whatever method jQuery uses, can't browsers use this method too and load pages super-fast? Obviously not as someone would've done that by now - but I am interested to know just why the difference is so big... is it just my system or is there a major difference in speed between the browser getting a page and jQuery getting a page? Do other people experience the same kind of differences? Thanks in advance, Regards, Richard

    Read the article

  • issue in property file

    - by devuser
    I want to load the property file when tomcat is starting.so I'm using servletContextListener to do that and i can get values of property file to my web application. But i want to keep the same value after changing the property file once log into web application.But when i change the value of property file and log into system again it change the value to new one.I want to keep the same value that loaded when tomcat was starting.how can i implement this? My coding is as below import javax.servlet.*; import java.io.IOException; import java.util.Properties; import java.util.logging.Level; import java.util.logging.Logger; import java.io.*; import java.util.ResourceBundle; public final class sysProperties implements javax.servlet.ServletContextListener { private static Properties props = new Properties(); private static String file_name = "com/util/contact.properties"; public addSystemProperties() { } public void contextInitialized(ServletContextEvent servletContextEvent) { // Get the context ServletContext servletContext = servletContextEvent.getServletContext(); // Set a context attribute try { // props.load(servletContext.getResourceAsStream(file_name)); props.load(getClass().getClassLoader().getResourceAsStream(file_name)); System.out.println(" Application X is starting"); servletContext.setAttribute("h1",props.getProperty("home.h1")); servletContext.setAttribute("h2",props.getProperty("home.h2")); System.out.println("h1"+servletContext.getAttribute("h1")); System.out.println("h2"+ servletContext.getAttribute("h2")); ; } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println(" Error setting context attribute: " + e.getMessage()); } } public void contextDestroyed(ServletContextEvent servletContextEvent) { // Get the context ServletContext servletContext = servletContextEvent.getServletContext(); // Output the context variable we set earlier System.out.println(" Application X is shutting down"); System.out.println(" Value of h1 is: " + servletContext.getAttribute("h1")); System.out.println(" Value of h2 is: " + servletContext.getAttribute("h2")); // Clean up (not really necessary as the context is being destroyed, but let's be neat) servletContext.removeAttribute(props.getProperty("h1")); servletContext.removeAttribute(props.getProperty("h2")); } }

    Read the article

  • validation properties by attribute

    - by netmajor
    I create class with two property - name,link(below). I use simple property validation by Required and StringLength attribute. I bind this class object to WPF ListBox(with textBoxs). But when I have textbox empty or write words longer than 8 sign nothing happens :/ What should I do to fires ErrorMessage? Or how to implement validation in other way ? I also try use : if (value is int) { throw new ArgumentException("Wpisales stringa!!"); } But it only fires in debug mode :/ My class with implementation of attribute validation: public class RssInfo : INotifyPropertyChanged { public RssInfo() { } public RssInfo(string _nazwa, string _link) { nazwa = _nazwa; link = _link; } private string nazwa; [Required(ErrorMessage = "To pole jest obowiazkowe nAZWA")] public string Nazwa { get { return nazwa; } set { if (value != nazwa) { nazwa = value; onPropertyChanged("Nazwa"); } if (value is int) { throw new ArgumentException("Wpisales stringa!!"); } } } private string link; [Required(ErrorMessage="To pole jest obowiazkowe link")] [StringLength(8, ErrorMessage = "Link cannot be longer than 8 characters")] public string Link { get { return link; } set { if (value != link) { link = value; onPropertyChanged("Link"); } } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; #endregion private void onPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (this.PropertyChanged != null) { PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } } }

    Read the article

  • Linq to XML: create an anonymous object with element attributes and values

    - by Phil Scholtes
    I'm new to Linq and I'm trying to query a XML document to find a list of account managers for a particular user. (I realize it might make more sense to put this in a database or something else, but this scenario calls for a XML document). <user emailAddress='[email protected]'> <accountManager department='Customer Service' title='Manager'>[email protected]</accountManager> <accountManager department='Sales' title='Account Manager'>[email protected]</accountManager> <accountManager department='Sales' title='Account Manager'>[email protected]</accountManager> </user> I trying to create a list of objects (anonymous type?) with properties consisting of both XElement attributes (department, title) and values (email). I know that I can get either of the two, but my problem is selecting both. Here is what I'm trying: var managers = _xDoc.Root.Descendants("user") .Where(d => d.Attribute("emailAddress").Value == "[email protected]") .SelectMany(u => u.Descendants("accountManager").Select(a => a.Value)); foreach (var manager in managers) { //do stuff } I can get at a.Value and a.Attribute but I can't figure out how to get both and store them in an object. I have a feeling it would wind up looking something like: select new { department = u.Attribute("department").Value, title = u.Attribute("title").Value, email = u.Value };

    Read the article

  • Is possible to reuse subqueries?

    - by Gothmog
    Hello, I'm having some problems trying to perform a query. I have two tables, one with elements information, and another one with records related with the elements of the first table. The idea is to get in the same row the element information plus several records information. Structure could be explain like this: table [ id, name ] [1, '1'], [2, '2'] table2 [ id, type, value ] [1, 1, '2009-12-02'] [1, 2, '2010-01-03'] [1, 4, '2010-01-03'] [2, 1, '2010-01-02'] [2, 2, '2010-01-02'] [2, 2, '2010-01-03'] [2, 3, '2010-01-07'] [2, 4, '2010-01-07'] And this is want I would like to achieve: result [id, name, Column1, Column2, Column3, Column4] [1, '1', '2009-12-02', '2010-01-03', , '2010-01-03'] [2, '2', '2010-01-02', '2010-01-02', '2010-01-07', '2010-01-07'] The following query gets the proper result, but it seems to me extremely inefficient, having to iterate table2 for each column. Would be possible in anyway to do a subquery and reuse it? SELECT a.id, a.name, (select min(value) from table2 t where t.id = subquery.id and t.type = 1 group by t.type) as Column1, (select min(value) from table2 t where t.id = subquery.id and t.type = 2 group by t.type) as Column2, (select min(value) from table2 t where t.id = subquery.id and t.type = 3 group by t.type) as Column3, (select min(value) from table2 t where t.id = subquery.id and t.type = 4 group by t.type) as Column4 FROM (SELECT distinct id FROM table2 t WHERE (t.type in (1, 2, 3, 4)) AND t.value between '2010-01-01' and '2010-01-07') as subquery LEFT JOIN table a ON a.id = subquery.id

    Read the article

  • Oracle sqlldr: column not allowed here

    - by Wade Williams
    Can anyone spot the error in this attempted data load? The '\\N' is because this is an import of an OUTFILE dump from mysql, which puts \N for NULL fields. The decode is to catch cases where the field might be an empty string, or might have \N. Using Oracle 10g on Linux. load data infile objects.txt discardfile objects.dsc truncate into table objects fields terminated by x'1F' optionally enclosed by '"' (ID INTEGER EXTERNAL NULLIF (ID='\\N'), TITLE CHAR(128) NULLIF (TITLE='\\N'), PRIORITY CHAR(16) "decode(:PRIORITY, BLANKS, NULL, '\\N', NULL)", STATUS CHAR(64) "decode(:STATUS, BLANKS, NULL, '\\N', NULL)", ORIG_DATE DATE "YYYY-MM-DD HH:MM:SS" NULLIF (ORIG_DATE='\\N'), LASTMOD DATE "YYYY-MM-DD HH:MM:SS" NULLIF (LASTMOD='\\N'), SUBMITTER CHAR(128) NULLIF (SUBMITTER='\\N'), DEVELOPER CHAR(128) NULLIF (DEVELOPER='\\N'), ARCHIVE CHAR(4000) NULLIF (ARCHIVE='\\N'), SEVERITY CHAR(64) "decode(:SEVERITY, BLANKS, NULL, '\\N', NULL)", VALUED CHAR(4000) NULLIF (VALUED='\\N'), SRD DATE "YYYY-MM-DD" NULLIF (SRD='\\N'), TAG CHAR(64) NULLIF (TAG='\\N') ) Sample Data (record 1). The ^_ represents the unprintable 0x1F delimiter. 1987^_Component 1987^_\N^_Done^_2002-10-16 01:51:44^_2002-10-16 01:51:44^_import^_badger^_N^_^_N^_0000-00-00^_none Error: Record 1: Rejected - Error on table objects, column SEVERITY. ORA-00984: column not allowed here

    Read the article

  • Persisting Joda DateTime instead of Java Date in hibernate

    - by Tauren
    My entities currently contain java Date properties. I'm starting to use Joda Time for date manipulation and calculations quite frequently. This means that I'm constantly having to convert my Dates into Joda DateTime objects and back again. So I was wondering, is there any reason I shouldn't just change my entities to store Joda DateTime objects instead of Java Date objects? Please note that these entities are persisted via Hibernate. I found the jodatime-hibernate project, but I also was reading on the Joda mailing list that it wasn't compatible with newer versions of hibernate. And it seems like it isn't very well maintained. So I'm wondering if it would be best to just continue converting between Date and DateTime, or if it would be wise to start persisting DateTime objects. My concern is being reliant on a poorly maintained library. Edit: Note that one of my objectives is to be better able to store timezone information. Storing just a Date appears to save the date in the local timezone. As my application can be used globally, I need to know the timezone as well. Joda Time Hibernate seems to address this as well in the user guide.

    Read the article

  • How do I add a URL parameter to redirected login page using JSF 2.0

    - by Big Al
    I have a question about session timeouts and JSF 2. I have my exception handler working exactly the way everyone prefers but I need to pass a value to the login page. For example, I have a typical login URL - www.acme.com/?companyId=company14 which in turn presents company14 with their own custom login page (using their logo). After they enter the application and do a bit of work, they read an email or 2. The session times out and a session timeout page is shown instructing the user to click Ok to proceed to the login page. How do I add ?companyId=company14 to the URL? I can hardcode it in the exception handler by using this: requestMap.put("companyId", "company14"); and then referring to it on the viewExpired.xhtml page: <h:panelGrid id="expiredGrid" columns="1"> <f:facet name="header"> <h:outputText id="outExpireMsg" value="Your session has expired"/> </f:facet> <h:outputText id="outReqMessage" value="Reloading the page will require login."/> <h:outputText value=""/> <h:button id="okButton" type="submit" value="Ok" outcome="login?companyId=#{companyId}"/> </h:panelGrid> The issue is I can't seem to save the companyId anywhere without it getting wiped out by the session timeout. I'd like to set the companyId in the exceptionhandler using this value. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Redirecting users on select from autocomplete?

    - by juno-2
    Hi, i'm trying to implement the jquery autocomplete plugin. I've got it up and running, but something is not working properly. Basically i have a autocomplete-list of employees. The list is generated from a table in a sql-database (employee_names and employee_ID), using a VB.NET handler (.ashx file). The data is formatted as: employee_name-employee_ID. So far so good and all employees are listed in autocomplete. The problem is that i don't know how to redirect a user to a certain page (for example employee_profile.aspx) when they've selected an employee from autocomplete. This is my redirect-code, but it ain't working like it should: $('#fname2').result(function(event, data, formatted) { location.href = "employee_profile.aspx?id=" + data }); For example; a user selects It will redirect a user to employee_profile.aspx?id=name of employee-id of employee (for example: employee_profile.aspx?id=John Doe-91210) instead of employee_profile.aspx?id=91210. I know i can strip the employee_ID with: formatResult: function(data, value) { return value.split("-")[1]; } }); But i do not know how to pass that employee_ID to the redirect-page.. Here my whole code: $().ready(function() { $("#fname2").autocomplete("AutocompleteData.ashx", { minChars: 3, selectFirst: false, formatItem: function(data, i, n, value) { return value.split("-")[0]; }, //Not used, just for splitting employee_ID //formatResult: function(data, value) { // return value.split("-")[1]; //} }); $('#fname2').result(function(event, data, formatted) { location.href = "employee_profile.aspx?id=" + data }); }); I know i'm very close and it should be something really simple, but can anyone help me out?

    Read the article

  • Delphi - OnKeyPress occurs before TStringGrid updates cell with new character

    - by JMTyler
    Coding in Delphi, attaching an OnKeyPress event handler to a TStringGrid: The OnKeyPress event fires before the grid cell that the user is typing into has actually updated its value with the key that has been pressed. This is obviously a problem, when I want to know what the contents of that cell are at this moment, as in, as the user modifies it. The "hacked" solution is simple, if you're not considering every detail: just grab the value from the cell and, since the OnKeyPress event comes along with a Key parameter, append that value to the end - now you have the current value of the cell! False. What if the user has selected all the text in the cell (ie: "foo") and they are now typing 'b'. Since they selected the text, it will be erased and replaced with the letter 'b'. However, the value of the cell will still display as "foo" in OnKeyPress, and the value of Key will be 'b', so the above logic would lead the application to conclude that the cell now contains "foob", which we know is not true. So. Does anybody know how to get around this problem? Is there a way to make OnKeyPress react after the grid's contents have been updated, or perhaps a way to force an update at the start of the handler? I am desperately avoiding the use of the OnKeyUp event here, so any suggestions aside from that would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 383 384 385 386 387 388 389 390 391 392 393 394  | Next Page >