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• object datasource problems in visual studio 2008,

  - by kamal

  After going to the process of adding the various attributes like insert,delete and update.But when i run it through the browser ,editing works but updating and deleting doesn't !(for the update and shows the same thing for delete,my friends think i need to use codes to repair the problems,can you help me please.it shows this: Server Error in '/WebSite3' Application. ObjectDataSource 'ObjectDataSource1' could not find a non-generic method 'Update' that has parameters: First_name, Surname, Original_author_id, First name, original_author id. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.InvalidOperationException: ObjectDataSource 'ObjectDataSource1' could not find a non-generic method 'Update' that has parameters: First_name, Surname, Original_author_id, First name, original_author id. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [InvalidOperationException: ObjectDataSource 'ObjectDataSource1' could not find a non-generic method 'Update' that has parameters: First_name, Surname, Original_author_id, First name, original_author id.] System.Web.UI.WebControls.ObjectDataSourceView.GetResolvedMethodData(Type type, String methodName, IDictionary allParameters, DataSourceOperation operation) +1119426 System.Web.UI.WebControls.ObjectDataSourceView.ExecuteUpdate(IDictionary keys, IDictionary values, IDictionary oldValues) +1008 System.Web.UI.DataSourceView.Update(IDictionary keys, IDictionary values, IDictionary oldValues, DataSourceViewOperationCallback callback) +92 System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridView.HandleUpdate(GridViewRow row, Int32 rowIndex, Boolean causesValidation) +907 System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridView.HandleEvent(EventArgs e, Boolean causesValidation, String validationGroup) +704 System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridView.OnBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs e) +95 System.Web.UI.Control.RaiseBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs args) +37 System.Web.UI.WebControls.GridViewRow.OnBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs e) +123 System.Web.UI.Control.RaiseBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs args) +37 System.Web.UI.WebControls.LinkButton.OnCommand(CommandEventArgs e) +118

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• How to exit grid with ctrl-TAB when grid is on a tabpage (onkeydown works when grid not on tabpage)

  - by Charles Hankey

  winforms .net 3.5 Ultrawingrid 9.2 In my subclass of Ultrawingrid.Ultragrid : Protected Overrides Sub OnKeyDown(ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.KeyEventArgs) If e.KeyCode = Windows.Forms.Keys.Tab andalso e.control = True then SetFocusToNextControl(True) End if Mybase.OnKeyDown(e) End Sub This works fine. But when the grid is dropped on a TabControl tabpage, the ctrl-tab looks very different to the sub above. e.keycode is seen as controlkey {17} I realize that by default cntrl-Tab moves between tabpages. I need to override this behavior. My thought is I probably need a subclass of the tabControl which will pass the keycombo through just as the form does but I confess to being clueless as to how to accomplish that. I tried to override the onkeydown of a tabcontrol subclass and just issuing a return and not and base call to onkeydown if the ctrl-tab combo was pressed but it seemed to see the e.keycode as controlkey as well. FWIW I tried a different combination like ctrl-E and got pretty much the same result with focus disappearing from the grid but not going anywhere I could detect. The sub still saw the e.control as controlkey. Oddly, ctrl-X, ctrl-A etc all work in the grid and a ctrl-Delete combo I put in the subclass for deleting a row works fine. Once again - grid directly on form and it all works. I'm definitely over my head on this one. Guidance much appreciated. vb or c# fine. TIA

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• MS Access 2003 - Save button enabling on form open on different tabs

  - by Justin

  I have a tab control on a form, and a couple different tabs have save buttons on them. Once the user saves data (via SQL statements in VBA), I set the .enabled = false so that they cannot use this button again until moving to a brand new record (which is a button click on the overall form). so when my form open i was going to reference a sub that enabled all these save buttons because the open event would mean new record. though i get an error that says it either does not exist, or is closed. any ideas? thanks EDIT: Sub Example() error handling Dim db as dao.database dim rs as dao.recordset dim sql as string SQL = "INSERT INTO tblMain (Name, Address, CITY) VALUES (" if not isnull (me.name) then sql = sql & """" & me.name & """," else sql = sql & " NULL," end if if not insull(me.adress) then sql = sql & " """ & me.address & """," else sql = sql & " NULL," end if if not isnull(me.city) then sql = sql & " """ & me.city & """," else sql = sql & " NULL," end if 'debug.print(sql) set db = currentdb db.execute (sql) MsgBox "Changes were successfully saved" me.MyTabCtl.Pages.Item("SecondPage").setfocus me.cmdSaveInfo.enabled = false and then on then the cmdSave needs to get re enabled on a new record (which by the way, this form is unbound), so it all happens when the form is re-opened. I tried this: Sub Form_Open() me.cmdSaveInfo.enabled = true End Sub and this is where I get the error stated above. So this is also not the tab that has focus when the form opens. Is that why I get this error? I cannot enable or disable a control when the tab is not showing?

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• How do you replace an entire xaml element?

  - by luke

  <ListView> <ListView.Resources> <DataTempalte x:Key="label"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Label}"/> </DataTEmplate> <DataTemplate x:Key="editor"> <UserControl Content="{Binding Control.content}"/> <!-- This is the line --> </DataTemplate> </ListView.Resources> <ListView.View> <GridView> <GridViewColumn Header="Name" CellTemplate="{StaticResource label}"/> <GridViewColumn Header="Value" CellTemplate="{StaticResource editor}"/> </GridView> </ListView.View> On the marketed line, I'm replacing the contents of a UserControl with the contents of another UserControl that is dynamically created in code. I'd like to replace the entire control, and not just the content. Is there a way to do this?

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• tree view; show lines property is not working properly

  - by Jibu P C

  Hii, I am a bigginer in using tree view control. I am using tree view control to make a simple tree like structure. But when i use show lines property it is not connecting to the root node. The code which i have written is as follows. <asp:TreeView ID="treeSettings" runat="server" ImageSet="Simple2" NodeIndent="15" ShowLines="True"> <ParentNodeStyle Font-Bold="False" /> <HoverNodeStyle BackColor="#CCCCCC" BorderColor="#888888" BorderStyle="None" Font-Underline="True" /> <SelectedNodeStyle BackColor="#FFCCCC" Font-Underline="False" HorizontalPadding="0px" VerticalPadding="1px" Height="0px" /> <Nodes> <asp:TreeNode Text="Settings" Value="Settings"> <asp:TreeNode Text="Edit Task" Value="Edit Task"></asp:TreeNode> <asp:TreeNode Text="Assign" Value="Assign a Resource"></asp:TreeNode> <asp:TreeNode Text="Task Status" Value="Task Status"></asp:TreeNode> </asp:TreeNode> </Nodes> <NodeStyle Font-Names="Verdana" Font-Size="8pt" ForeColor="Black" HorizontalPadding="0px" NodeSpacing="1px" VerticalPadding="0px" Width="100px" ChildNodesPadding="0px" /> <LeafNodeStyle NodeSpacing="0px" /> </asp:TreeView>enter code here`

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• iPhone SDK allow touches to affect multiple views

  - by Parad0x13

  I have a main view that has has two buttons on it that control methods to display the next image and display the previous image. In this case the 'Image' is a class that inherits from UIImageView and has multiple pictures on it that you can interact with, and I call this class a 'Pane'. The pane itself handles all the user interaction itself while the main view controls the display of next and previous panes with the buttons. Here is my dilemma, because the pane fully covers the main view it wont allow for the user to tap the buttons on the main view! So once a pane pops up you cannot change it via the buttons! Is there a way to allow touches through transparent parts of a view, or if not how in the world do I achieve this?! I cannot pass touchesBegan or any of those methods from the pane to the superview because all of the button touch methods are created in the xib file. I cannot insert the pane under the control panel because then you wouldn't be able to interact with the pane. And as far as I know theres no way to pass touch events to every single pane within the paneHoldingArray that belongs to the main view I cannot add the command buttons inside of the pane because I want to be able to replace the command button's image with a thumbprint render of the next/previous pane. I've been stuck on this for a very long time, please somebody help me out with a fix action or a new way to re-engineer the code so that it will work!

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• How to get a fully transparent backbuffer in directx 9 without vista Desktop Window Manager

  - by flawlesslyfaulted

  I currently have an activex control that initiates a media (video/audio) framework another development group in my company developed and I am providing a window handle to that code. That handle is being used by their rendering plugin in the pipeline that uses Direct3d for rendering the video using that handle. I have seperate LPDIRECT3D9EX and LPDIRECT3DDEVICE9EX pointers that I initialize in my activex control. I am trying to clear a backbuffer to transparent and then use directx drawing primatives to draw on that backbuffer producing a transparent window with my drawing primatives over the streaming video on the directx surface below. It appears that clearing a device backbuffer with full alpha transparency is ignored by directx. d3ddev->Clear(0, NULL, D3DCLEAR_TARGET, D3DCOLOR_RGBA(0, 0, 1, 0 /*full alpha*/), 1.0f, 0); I can see the object I draw but they are drawn on top of a backbuffer that has the RGB color specified without the alpha value. The project linked (http://www.codeproject.com/KB/directx/umvistad3d.aspx) to in the stackoverflow question below does what I want but requires vista's Desktop Window Manager and won't work for XP. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/148275/how-do-i-draw-transparent-directx-content-in-a-transparent-window I have tried with D3DRS_ALPHABLENDENABLE true with configured blend with no avail. I have also tried to have pixels with full alpha values not rendered using D3DRS_ALPHATESTENABLE, D3DRS_ALPHAREF, and D3DRS_ALPHAFUNC setup but this doesn't work either. I have tried using ColorFill with alpha after retrieving the backbuffer with GetBackBuffer but this doesn't work either. (again only RGB is used) Finally I have tried creating a texture, selecting a surface, colorfilling that surface with a fully transparent alpha value, then loading that surface onto the backbuffer but only the RGB values appear to be used. I have checked the capabilities using the DXCapsViewer.exe and the D3DFMT_A8R8G8B8 backbuffer format that I am using for the backbuffer is valid so it can't be that. Has anyone gotten a transparent backbuffer in directx to work in XP?

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• Custom webserver caching

  - by Mark Kinsella

  I'm working with a custom webserver on an embedded system and having some problems correctly setting my HTTP Headers for caching. Our webserver is generating all dynamic content as XML and we're using semi-static XSL files to display it with some dynamic JSON requests thrown in for good measure along with semi-static images. I say "semi-static" because the problems occur when we need to do a firmware update which might change the XSL and image files. Here's what needs to be done: cache the XSL and image files and do not cache the XML and JSON responses. I have full control over the HTTP response and am currently: Using ETags with the XSL and image files, using the modified time and size to generate the ETag Setting Cache-Control: no-cache on the XML and JSON responses As I said, everything works dandy until a firmware update when the XSL and image files are sometimes cached. I've seen it work fine with the latest versions of Firefox and Safari but have had some problems with IE. I know one solution to this problem would be simply rename the XSL and image files after each version (eg. logo-v1.1.png, logo-v1.2.png) and set the Expires header to a date in the future but this would be difficult with the XSL files and I'd like to avoid this. Note: There is a clock on the unit but requires the user to set it and might not be 100% reliable which is what might be causing my caching issues when using ETags. What's the best practice that I should employ? I'd like to avoid as many webserver requests as possible but invalidating old XSL and image files after a software update is the #1 priority.

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• BPEL, initialize variable and repeating onAlarm eventHandler

  - by Michael

  I have a little problem I can't solve so far. In BPEL I want to create an onAlarm eventHandler which fires immediatly (i.e. the "for" element is set to 'PT0S') and repeats every 2 seconds. This eventHandler shall contain a counter which increments every time the alarm fires. The question is: How to initialize the counter? If the variable will be initialized within the onAlarm scope the value would not increment anymore. In the "normal" control flow the value also cannot be initialized, because it is not defined if the process or the onAlarm scope runs first. So I would get every now and then an uninitializedVariable exception. My solution would be to not initialize the variable neither in the process scope nor in the onAlarm scope, but create a faultHandler wherein the variable will be initialized and afterwards the onAlarm flow will be executed. Problem is every uninitializedVariable execution will be caught now by this faultHandler and there may be another too. So is there another possibility to deal with this problem or can I somehow find out which variable wasn't initialized properly so the faultHandler can get two control flows? The solution should work on every BPEL engine. Thanks, Michael

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• 2 Mutually exclusive RadioButton "Lists"

  - by user72603

  I think this has to be THE most frustrating thing I've ever done in web forms. Yet one would think it would be the easiest of all things in the world to do. That is this: I need 2 separate lists of radiobuttons on my .aspx page. One set allows a customer to select an option. The other set does also but for a different purpose. But only one set can have a selected radiobutton. Ok I've tried this using 2 asp.net Radiobuttonlists controls on the same page. Got around the nasty bug with GroupName (asp.net assigns the control's uniqueID which prevents the groupname from ever working because now, 2 radiobuttonlists can't have the same groupname for all their radiobuttons because each radiobuttonlist has a different uniqueID thus the bug assigns the unique ID as the name attribute when the buttons are rendered. since the name sets are different, they are not mutually exclusive). Anyway, so I created that custom RadioButtonListcontrol and fixed that groupname problem. But when ended up happening is when I went to put 2 instances of my new custom radiobuttonlist control on my .aspx page, all was swell until I noticed that every time I checked for radiobuttonlist1.SelectedValue or radiobuttonlist2.SelectedValue (did not matter which I was checking) the value always spit back string.empty and i was not able to figure out why (see http://forums.asp.net/t/1401117.aspx). Ok onto the third try tonight and into the break of dawn (no sleep). I tried to instead just scrap trying to use 2 custom radiobuttonlists altogether because of that string.empty issue and try to spit out 2 sets of radiobuttonlists via using 2 asp.net repeaters and a standard input HTML tag inside. Got that working. Ok but the 2 lists still are not mutually exclusive. I can select a value in the first set of radiobuttons from repeater1 and same goes for repeater2. I cannot for the life of me get the "sets" to be mutually exclusive sets of radiobuttons.

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• How to calculate unweighted averages in Excel PivotTable?

  - by yonatron

  I often make PivotTables in which each row contains a number of per-person average measures. I then want to look at the unweighted column average for each measure, and usually make some kind of chart from these. Because my individual cells are often averaged from different numbers of data points, the Grand Total row ends up being a weighted average, which I’m not interested in. So I usually make my own average row a few rows above the table to use for my charts. That’s not too much work, but there’s another problem. I often add a few more people’s worth of data to the PivotTables’ source, then refresh the tables. This means my average row needs to be updated to encompass more rows from the PivotTable. Not a huge deal with one table, but when I have lots of them across lots of sheets, I have to do find/replace on a whole bunch of formulas. So: is there a way to automatically get unweighted column averages in a PivotTable, such that when the table is refreshed, the averages don’t change locations and encompass the newly added (or removed) data Thanks

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• Datatemplate binding

  - by Lasse O

  How can i achieve something like this: <ListView Name="OverviewTitlesListView" ItemsSource="{Binding OverviewTitlesCollection}"> <ListView.View> <GridView> <GridViewColumn Header="Index" Width="60" DisplayMemberBinding="{Binding TitleIndex}"/> <GridViewColumn Header="Start Time" Width="100" DisplayMemberBinding="{Binding StartTime}"/> <GridViewColumn Header="End Time" Width="100" DisplayMemberBinding="{Binding EndTime}"/> <GridViewColumn Header="Title Text" Width="550" DisplayMemberBinding="{Binding Text}"/> <GridViewColumn Header="Approved" Width="80"> <GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <TextBlock Name="Test"/> <DataTemplate.Triggers> <Trigger Property="{Binding IsApproved}" Value="true"> <Setter TargetName="Test" Property="Text" Value="Approved"/> </Trigger> <Trigger Property="{Binding IsApproved}" Value="false"> <Setter TargetName="Test" Property="Text" Value="Not Approved"/> </Trigger> </DataTemplate.Triggers> </DataTemplate> </GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> </GridViewColumn> </GridView> </ListView.View> </ListView> When IsApproved property changes on my object in OverviewTitlesCollection i want to control the text of the TextBlock. How can i control this by triggers in my datatemplate?

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• Are dots legal in the name property of an HTML button

  - by justSteve

  a page with a bit of MVC code: <%=Html.SubmitButton("ChooseWebinar.Submit", "Continue to Registration Details")%><br/> that generates an input button where the '.' is embedded in the name: [rendered html] At page load this control (the submit button) is hidden - when one of two different dropdowns registers a value, the button is shown: function toggleChooseWebinarSubmit() { if ($("#ChooseWebinar_RecordedWebinarId").val() || $("#ChooseWebinar_UpcomingWebinarId").val()) { $("#ChooseWebinar_Submit").show(); } else { $("#ChooseWebinar_Submit").hide(); } I've just received a report from an IE8 user who says that after selecting a value in a dropdown, the button is _not displaying. I can't reproduce the condition (i've tried compatibility mode too). Obviously the show/hide is targeting the 'ID' selector but i can't help but wonder about that period in the control's name. Any known issues? - or perhaps the .change is problematic and the toggle's never getting called: $(window).load(function() { toggleChooseWebinarSubmit(); $("#ChooseWebinar_UpcomingWebinarId").change(function() { if ($(this).val()) { $("#ChooseWebinar_RecordedWebinarId").val(""); } toggleChooseWebinarSubmit(); }); $("#ChooseWebinar_RecordedWebinarId").change(function() { if ($(this).val()) { $("#ChooseWebinar_UpcomingWebinarId").val(""); } toggleChooseWebinarSubmit(); }); }); thx

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• restrict script inside iframe to run only within pages of same top-level domain?

  - by Justin Grant

  I'd like to enforce a requirement that client script inside a page (which in turn is loaded inside an iframe of another page) will only run when the parent page is on the same top-level domain as the framed page (although it may be on another hostname in that domain). Is this do-able? I assume that the easy solution of looking at top.location.host won't be available due to cross-site scripting limitations, but I'm wondering if other javascript hackery could suffice. Constraints on any potential solution inculde: I need to be able to run XmlHttpRequest calls inside the child page, and I need to validate that the hostname is in the same domain before I make those calls. (this makes a document.domain solution challenging because AFAIK setting document.domain disables the ability to make XmlHttpRequest calls. I can control client-side script and HTML on both parent or child (and I can create new pages if needed), but I can't make any server-side code changes. I can't simulate the above via server-side calls or proxies, because the child page's hostname uses a forms auth system with hostname-scoped cookies that I can't get access to from the parent page since it's on a different hostname. I don't have enough control over the child-frame site to be able to put both sites behind the same reverse-proxy or load-balancer (which would enable me to put both sites on the same hostname). I don't actually need to access any UI inside the IFrame-- the iframe is invisible and I'm only using it to run javascript within the security context of a site on a different hostname from the parent page. So at this point I'm stumped. Got any ideas? I want to make sure I'm not overlooking an easy solution before giving up.

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• Website Use Monitoring for 3 People

  - by linkedlinked

  I work in an IT startup with 2 partners, and I'm the programmer/IT guy -- in other words, the work horse. To make a long story short, I'm doing most of the work right now, while they spend all day on Facebook. That's OK, because they're paying my salary, but if the project fails, I'm sure they'll blame me for it (I'm doing my best to make sure that doesn't happen!), and I want some sort of recourse. I already have an app that blocks time-wasters on my local PC, and keeps logs of when the app is enabled (so I can say "I had Facebook blocked from 9am-5pm today.") Is there any way I can get a brief summary of the most heavily visited sites, split up by client PC? At the end of the month, I want to be able to say "You both load Facebook, on average, every 10 minutes. You spend hours a day on Youtube, and haven't opened up our bugtracker in weeks" and maybe have a nifty chart or graph to match it. We have a crappy D-Link router, and no IT budget. They are both on Windows Vista, I run Ubuntu Linux. I don't want to install any monitoring software on their PC, but I'm totally fine with, say, routing all the network traffic through my machine. I guess I can think of lots of ways to accomplish this (telnet into JSSH and list open tabs? log all the DNS requests, per-domain? even thinking of setting up a webcam on my desk and just keeping 5-minute snapshots...), I just don't really know where to start. Any advice is appreciated, thanks!

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• Looking for pros/cons of using GWT or JSF

  - by cliff.meyers

  I'm a long time Java developer who has been building UI with Adobe Flex for the past few years. I'm looking to broaden my repertoire with a RIA technology that runs in a plain-old browser, no plug-ins required. I've read a lot about GWT but don't know much about JSF, especially given the varying implementations. Below are some criteria that are important to me as a developer. I'm hoping that the community might be able to tell me about the strengths and weaknesses of GWT and JSF in each: Layout: is it declarative, programmatic or a mix of both? Control library: how rich is the available control library? How easy is it to extend or write custom controls that "play nice" with the built-ins? Javascript: how much of it do I need to write in order to be successful with the framework? Cross-browser: assuming I'm not writing a lot of my own HTML and JS, do the frameworks function equally well in all modern browsers? Tooling: is a rapid edit/refresh cycle available? How easy is it to debug the client and server code? Bookmarking / Browser Navigation: this is a common problem in Flex; does the framework play nicely with these? I would love to hear any other important pros / cons I might not have covered. Thanks!

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• Can't access one directory via HTTPS + public FQDN

  - by Justin James

  Hello - I have the strangest IIS error that I've ever seen in my life. I have an application/directory on an IIS server, that throws an error 500 when accessing ANY of the content in it, including HTML documents, when accessed via HTTPS AND the machines FQDN. When I access it with "localhost" it works fine. When I added a bogus entry for the NIC's IP in the hosts file, it worked fine. When I access it with the machines name and HTTP it works fine. Here's a chart (the machine's name is "lofn.titaniumcrowbar.com"): http - lofn.titaniumcrowbar.com: works https - lofn.titaniumcrowbar.com: broken https - localhost: works https - temp.titaniumcrowbar.com (put into hosts file): works I set up tracing, and I got some useless information: "The I/O operation has been aborted because of either a thread exit or an application request. (0x800703e3)" This would make sense, except this happens when pulling up static content. While the directory may be an "application", the content is all static in it. Any/all suggestions, no matter how strange, are VERY appreciated. Thanks! J.Ja

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• Webbrowser locks first Excel Instance

  - by figus

  VB.NET 2008 - WinForms Hi Everyone! I've been looking for an answer to my problem but I only find more questions related to my problem... The thing is that I'm using a AxWebBrowser control in VB.NET 2008 to open a excel file in a WindowsForm, it opens succesfully and everything... but the problem is this: If I had a Excel File Open before opening another Excel File in my WebBrowser Control, the window that contains the file that was already open gets locked... (I can't give focus to that Excel window... If I click on it, the focus returns to my application) I tried creating a new excel instance with CreateObject("Excel.Application") just before loading the file, but the WebBrowser locks the first Excel Instance... Is there a way to lock it to the last instance??? I use the WebBrowser1.Navigate(Url) method to load the file... where Url is a String like C:\myExcelFile.xlsm WebBrowser1.Document.Application.UserControl is also True, but it get's locked. Any Suggestion?? Thanks in Advance!!!

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• JQuery val() does not work for textarea in Opera

  - by Anil Soman

  I am displaying a modal dialog using jQuery. This dialog has a textarea control on it. But on submitting this dialog, the value of this textarea is not recognized by jQyery for some reason. It always comes blank. This works perfectly in other browsers. I put alert to display the value but it looks blank. Can anybody help me in this regards? Controls <input type="text" id="txtGroupName"/> <textarea rows="3" cols="30" id="txtDescription"></textarea> jQuery code which used this value var postData = new Object(); postData.GroupName = $('#txtGroupName').val(); postData.Description = $('#txtDescription').val(); $('#txtDescription').val() comes blank but $('#txtGroupName').val() is read correctly as it is a input field. One more finding about this issue: When I put alert in my update function after populating the control value on page load, this alert displays the existing value properly. But it displays only existing value. It does not display the edited value after submitting the modal box.

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• Using SetParent to steal the main window of another process but keeping the message loops separate

  - by insta

  Background: My coworker and I are maintaining a million-line legacy application we inherited. Its frontend is written in VB6, and as we're devoting almost all of our resources to converting it to C#, we are looking for quick & dirty solutions to our specific problem. The application behaves in a plugin-ish manner. There are up to 20ish separate ActiveX controls that can be loaded at once in a grid-style layout. The problem is that the ActiveX controls do all of their processing on their own UI thread, and as a lot of it is blocking waiting on network access, the UI gets very soupy. When our hosting C# app loads these controls, it becomes unresponsive because of how many controls are chewing up UI resources doing nothing. To top it off, the controls are fragile and will crash at the slightest provocation. When they are hosted in the main C# app, it creates serious instability. The best my coworker and I have come up with so far is starting a process per ActiveX control. This process, which we call the proxy, is another winforms app. It uses named pipes to communicate with the hosting process. The hosting process creates a window, loads an ActiveX control of our choice (via some reflections & AxHost magic), and tells the main process what its window handle is via the named pipe. The main process uses a combination of SetParent, and SetWindowPos to move the proxy application into itself to emulate a plugin. Size updates are sent via the named pipe. This works well enough until the ActiveX application does some sort of lengthy process and we click around on the main window while it's working. For awhile the main window is responsive, but eventually it becomes unresponsive as the child window waits for its UI thread. How can we keep the child windows on their own complete thread while still getting the benefits of SetParent? (please let me know if anything isn't clear!)

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• ESXi 5 Guests will not boot

  - by Adrian

  I have a problem with Guests not booting under VMWare ESXi 5.0 on my IBM x3550M3 server. Note: Investigation eventually determined that problem was with the VMware client on a Lenovo Edge laptop, the only Windows box available in a Linux IT shop. vSphere Client v4 and v5 duplicated behavior on the Lenovo Edge. As indicated in the comment to the accepted answer, replacing the workstation with one using different video was the "fix" for this particular issue. The ESXi host boots just fine. The Client connects just fine. Guests can be configured but do not successfully boot. The initial guest memory consumption jumps up to 560MB and drops down to 40MB after a few seconds. Initial CPU usage is 1 full CPU (3000Ghz per the chart) and immediately drops downm to 29Mhz. Guests do not display any output in the Console tab but show a state of 'Powered On'. No errors in the Events tab. Switching Guest from BIOS to EFI makes no difference. VMs are listed as Version 7 and the behavior is duplicated across all availabled Guest OS flavors. Problem also duplicated when server is booted up in Legacy Only mode. Logs do not contain anything particularly suspicious. Edit: No firewalls, routers, or VLANs in between the client and server. Edit 2: We have tried to Boot Guest into BIOS screen at Next Boot checkbox in the Guest Setting. Was not successful. Edit 3: 500GB datastore with 1 40GB VM on it. Plenty of space. Edit 4: Guests copied from my old ESXi 4 server DO NOT boot on the ESXi 5 system. Initially it complains about too little Video RAM being configured for the default 2500x1600, but it still doesn't work properly even after I bump the Video RAM settings or switch it to Auto-Detect.

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• File Handler returning garbled files.

  - by forcripesake

  For the past 3 months my site has been using a PHP file handler in combination with htaccess. Users accessing the uploads folder of the site would be redirected to the handler as such: RewriteRule ^(.+)\.*$ downloader.php?f=%{REQUEST_FILENAME} [L] The purpose of the file handler is pseudo coded below, followed by actual code. //Check if file exists and user is downloading from uploads directory; True. //Check against a file type white list and set the mime type(); $ctype = mime type; header("Pragma: public"); // required header("Expires: 0"); header("Cache-Control: must-revalidate, post-check=0, pre-check=0"); header("Cache-Control: private",false); // required for certain browsers header("Content-Type: $ctype"); header("Content-Disposition: attachment; filename=\"".basename($filename)."\";" ); header("Content-Transfer-Encoding: binary"); header("Content-Length: ".filesize($filename)); readfile("$filename"); As of yesterday, the handler started returning garbled files, unreadable images, and had to be bypassed. I'm wondering what settings could have gone awry to cause this.

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• Ignoring build number when referencing dll

  - by brickner

  I have one solution with a .NET 4.0 project (C#) that produces a delayed signed dll, that I dotfuscate and sign. EDIT: This is how I version the dll: [assembly: AssemblyVersion("0.7.0.*")] [assembly: AssemblyFileVersion("0.7.0.0")] I have another solution with a .NET 4.0 project (C++/CLI) that references the signed dll and produces a signed dll (actually, delayed signed and signed in a post build because of a flaw in the C++ build system). The problem is that the reference to the dll contains a specific version number, which includes even the build number (I want to have a build number). Every time I build the referenced dll, I have to change the project settings file (.vcxproj) so it reference the new version dll. Since I work with source control, this is very inconvenient (different computers might have different build numbers since each computer build its own referenced dll - the referenced dll is not in the source control). If I don't change the reference, I get a warning: warning MSB3245: Could not resolve this reference. Could not locate the assembly... And many errors like this: error C3083: 'Foo': the symbol to the left of a '::' must be a type These are resolved once I change the reference. How do I make the reference ignore the build number or even the entire version number?

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• Downloading a file from a PHP page in C#

  - by FoxyShadoww

  Okay, we have a PHP script that creates an download link from a file and we want to download that file via C#. This works fine with progress etc but when the PHP page gives an error the program downloads the error page and saves it as the requested file. Here is the code we have atm: PHP Code: <?php $path = 'upload/test.rar'; if (file_exists($path)) { $mm_type="application/octet-stream"; header("Pragma: public"); header("Expires: 0"); header("Cache-Control: must-revalidate, post-check=0, pre-check=0"); header("Cache-Control: public"); header("Content-Description: File Transfer"); header("Content-Type: " . $mm_type); header("Content-Length: " .(string)(filesize($path)) ); header('Content-Disposition: attachment; filename="'.basename($path).'"'); header("Content-Transfer-Encoding: binary\n"); readfile($path); exit(); } else { print 'Sorry, we could not find requested download file.'; } ?> C# Code: private void btnDownload_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string url = "http://***.com/download.php"; WebClient client = new WebClient(); client.DownloadFileCompleted += new AsyncCompletedEventHandler(client_DownloadFileCompleted); client.DownloadProgressChanged += new DownloadProgressChangedEventHandler(ProgressChanged); client.DownloadFileAsync(new Uri(url), @"c:\temp\test.rar"); } private void ProgressChanged(object sender, DownloadProgressChangedEventArgs e) { progressBar.Value = e.ProgressPercentage; } void client_DownloadFileCompleted(object sender, AsyncCompletedEventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show(print); }

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• Stubbing an ActsAs Rails Plugin

  - by Rabbott

  I need to create a plugin much like Authlogic (or even just add on to Authlogic), but due to requirements beyond my control I need my plugin to authenticate using SOAP. Basically the plugin would require that anyone accessing the controller (before_filter would be fine) would have to authenticate first. I have ZERO control over the login page, or the SOAP server, I am simply a client attempting to authenticate to the providers SOAP Web Service. Here is what happens.. before_filter realizes that no session[:credential] is set, and forwards the user to the url on the providers servers. The user enters their credentials, and once authenticated, the web service forwards the user to a URL that has been entered by their sysadmins, attaching a token to the url on its way back. I need to take that token, append it to some parameters stored in a local YAML file, and make the SOAP call to the providers server. If all goes as planned, I need to set session[:credential] to the result of the SOAP call, and forward the user to the root page. Subsequent calls to the before_filter will not make the SOAP call, because session[:credential] is set. Ideally I think this would be awesome to slap on top of Authlogic, but I'm not sure how to do this, So I started to create my own acts_as_soap_authentic plugin, which isn't causing errors, but doesn't do anything.. Anyone have any pointers, or tips as to how I can get the ball rolling here? It seems simple, but is proving not to be..

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