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• Configuration Error , Finding assembly after I swapped referenced dll out. Visual Studio 2003

  - by TampaRich

  Here is the situation. I had a clean build of my asp.net web application working. I then went into the bin folder under the web app and replaced two referenced dll's with two older version of the same dll's. (Same name etc.) After testing I replaced those dll's back to the new ones and now my application keeps throwing the configuration error === Pre-bind state information === LOG: DisplayName = xxxxx.xxxx.Personalization (Partial) LOG: Appbase = file:///c:/inetpub/wwwroot/appname LOG: Initial PrivatePath = bin Calling assembly : (Unknown). LOG: Policy not being applied to reference at this time (private, custom, partial, or location-based assembly bind). I found this issue on the web and tried all the solutions to it but nothing worked. I then went into all my projects that it references under the solution and cleared out the bin/debug folder in each, I cleared out the obj folder under each and also deleted the temporary files associated with the application. I rebuilt it and it still will not work due to this error Not sure what is causing this or how to fix this issue. I have tried restarting IIS, stopping index services which was said to be a known issue. This is .net framework 1.1 app and visual studio 2003 Any suggestions would be great. Thanks.

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• How to add a hierarchical tag in an XML file though XSL?

  - by Hetal

  Hello, I am facing a problem in XML transformation. Sorry if the question is asked before. The XML tag hierarchy is as follows: //This tag contains the header data (Example:Pick Slip Number) Then the Detail lines are printed. The detail lines are printed. This detail line belongs to the previous Pick Slip Number. The detail lines are printed. This detail line belongs to the previous Pick Slip Number. My requirement is to: //This tag contains the header data (Example:Pick Slip Number) Then the Detail lines are printed. The detail lines are printed. This detail line belongs to the previous Pick Slip Number. The detail lines are printed. This detail line belongs to the previous Pick Slip Number. My requirement is to print the Pick Slip Number at every page on the header. Since there is no parent tag for and , I face the problem while printing. I am trying to serach something in XML transformation. But I dont know how to transform the XML tag hierarchy. I have attached the XML file for the reference. Thanks..

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• How do I delete duplicates between two excel sheets quickly vba

  - by MainTank

  I am using vba and I have two sheets one is named "Do Not Call" and has about 800,000 rows of data in column A. I want to use this data to check column I in the second sheet, named "Sheet1". If it finds a match I want it to delete the whole row in "Sheet1". I have tailored the code I have found from a similar question here: Excel formula to Cross reference 2 sheets, remove duplicates from one sheet and ran it but nothing happens. I am not getting any errors but it is not functioning. Here is the code I am currently trying and have no idea why it is not working Option Explicit Sub CleanDupes() Dim wsA As Worksheet Dim wsB As Worksheet Dim keyColA As String Dim keyColB As String Dim rngA As Range Dim rngB As Range Dim intRowCounterA As Integer Dim intRowCounterB As Integer Dim strValueA As String keyColA = "A" keyColB = "I" intRowCounterA = 1 intRowCounterB = 1 Set wsA = Worksheets("Do Not Call") Set wsB = Worksheets("Sheet1") Dim dict As Object Set dict = CreateObject("Scripting.Dictionary") Do While Not IsEmpty(wsA.Range(keyColA & intRowCounterA).Value) Set rngA = wsA.Range(keyColA & intRowCounterA) strValueA = rngA.Value If Not dict.Exists(strValueA) Then dict.Add strValueA, 1 End If intRowCounterA = intRowCounterA + 1 Loop intRowCounterB = 1 Do While Not IsEmpty(wsB.Range(keyColB & intRowCounterB).Value) Set rngB = wsB.Range(keyColB & intRowCounterB) If dict.Exists(rngB.Value) Then wsB.Rows(intRowCounterB).delete intRowCounterB = intRowCounterB - 1 End If intRowCounterB = intRowCounterB + 1 Loop End Sub I apologize if the above code is not in a code tag. This is my first time posting code online and I have no idea if I did it correctly.

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• Multiple ID's in database

  - by eric

  I have a database that contains a few tables such as person, staff, member, and supporter. The person table contains information about every staff, member, and supporter. The information it contains is name,address,email, and telephone. I also created an id that is the primary key. My issue is that I also have an primary key ID for staff, member, and supporter. For instance, in the person table is John with id 1. He is a supporter so in the supporter table is pID(for person id)to reference back to John with all his information and ID(for supporter ID). pID references to the person table and every person has an ID incremented by 1 starting at 1. supporter ID is for every supporter and also starts at 1 and is incremented by 1. Is it possible to have in the supporter table pID = 1 and supporter ID = 1? Another person may have a pID = 26 and supporter ID = 5. Or will supporter ID have to be different than the pID and be something like "sup"? So you would have pID = 1 and supporter ID = sup1 or pID = 26 and supporter ID = sup5

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• Meaning of NEXT in Linked List creation in perl

  - by seleniumnewbie

  So I am trying to learn Linked Lists using Perl. I am reading "Mastering Algorithms with Perl" by Job Orwant. In the book he explains how to create a linked list I understand most of it, but I just simply fail to understand the command/index/key NEXT in the second last line of the code snippet. $list=undef; $tail=\$list; foreach (1..5){ my $node = [undef, $_ * $_]; $$tail = $node; $tail = \${$node->[NEXT]}; # The NEXT on this line? } What is he trying to do there? Isn $node a scalar, which stores the address of the unnamed array. Also even if we are de-referencing $node, should we not refer to the individual elements by an index number example (0,1). If we do use "NEXT" as a key, is $node a reference to a hash? I am very confused. Something in plain English will be highly appreciated.

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• JQuery to PHP function and back Ajaxed

  - by Xaris

  Hi all, i have a set of php function that i want to call on different events mostly onclick with jquery async (ajax). The first function is called on load $(document).ready(function() { $("#div2").hide('slow'); $("#div1").empty().html('<img src="ajax-loader.gif" />'); $.ajax( { type: "POST", url: "WebFunctions.php", data: {'func':'1'}, success: function(html) { $("#div1").show('slow').html(html) } }); The Data: {'func':'1'} -- is a switch statement on the php side switch($_POST['func']) { case '1': getParents(); break; case '2': getChilds(params); break; case '3': getChildObjects(params); break; default: } "This functions are calls to a soap server" <-- irrelevant. So when that function finishes i get an array which contains IDs and Names. I echo the names but i want the ID for reference so when i click on the echoed name i can call an other php function with parameter the ID of the name... How do i get rid of the switch statement?? How do i call properly php functions and pass params to it??? How can i save this IDs so when i click on an item with that id an other php function is called?? Plz feel free to ask any question, any answer is welcome :)

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• Page Entirely Blank Despite Having Source Code! (TinyMCE, FireFox)

  - by Chris Cooper

  Alright guys, here's a tough one... In reference to this page. The page will seemingly randomly not display the output of server when using Firefox (version 3.5). I have not seen this problem occur in Safari or IE. The best way to have the problem occur is just reload the page about 10 times and it ought to have happened by then, and once it does - it'll continue on subsequent refreshes until you change the page. The problem is literally the browser not displaying the output (code). Viewing the source shows all the appropriate code yet the browser displays a blank white page. The web developer and firebug plugins don't show any errors that would indicate the problem. I have tested this on a separate system and OS and it occurs in Firefox on that system as well. The problem did not occur until after TinyMCE (A Rich Text Editor JavaScript library for textareas) was added to the project. TinyMCE works however, where it should. I know this is a confusing problem, but I am completely lost as to what could be causing this significant issue. Thanks in advance. EDIT: If it's any help... I've noticed that if I cause a css file error by changing a stylesheet source to something non-existant (xxx.css), the page will continuously display without a problem (besides whatever related css not showing due to the src change). I've also noticed that causing any simple javascript error with some bad code will cause the page to load properly continuously (besides of course javascript not running on the page). EDIT#2: Moving all <script> tags down at the tail of the <body> 'fixes' (well, hides) this error and the page shows normally. A band-aid.

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• How can I pass a hash to a Perl subroutine?

  - by Vishalrix

  In one of my main( or primary) routines,I have two or more hashes. I want the subroutine foo() to recieve these possibly-multiple hashes as distinct hashes. Right now I have no preference if they go by value, or as references. I am struggling with this for the last many hours and would appreciate help, so that I dont have to leave perl for php! ( I am using mod_perl, or will be) Right now I have got some answer to my requirement, shown here From http://forums.gentoo.org/viewtopic-t-803720-start-0.html # sub: dump the hash values with the keys '1' and '3' sub dumpvals { foreach $h (@_) { print "1: $h->{1} 3: $h->{3}\n"; } } # initialize an array of anonymous hash references @arr = ({1,2,3,4}, {1,7,3,8}); # create a new hash and add the reference to the array $t{1} = 5; $t{3} = 6; push @arr, \%t; # call the sub dumpvals(@arr); I only want to extend it so that in dumpvals I could do something like this: foreach my %k ( keys @_[0]) { # use $k and @_[0], and others } The syntax is wrong, but I suppose you can tell that I am trying to get the keys of the first hash ( hash1 or h1), and iterate over them. How to do it in the latter code snippet above?

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• Web service failing when installed in seperate project from the website...

  - by Adam

  I am totally new to web services and cannot get mine to work. My setup is on VS 2008 using IIS. I have one solution file with 3 projects in it: website, code, and services. If I put my webservice into my website and call it locally then it will work fine (it's just a hello world web service). I want to put the service into a different location for use from multiple sites. I don't know what I'm doing wrong - i've read so much conflicting info regarding disco files, access files, silverlight, flash, java, etc. I just looking for quick simple steps to create a web service that I can access from javascript and deploy to a seperate website. End goal is to have functionality in webservices so that website will call via JS and run much smoother in the loading time and async calls. Do I need to create a disco file? Do I need to configure security? -- I know this is prob best, i'm just looking to get it working at all. Do I need to allow cross browser access on IIS or on my hosted server? Are there any quick reference websites that you can recommend? Should I be using WCF as new technology? - I saw this on MSDN but seems to be more for windows apps then web apps. I'm not getting any specific error codes. I have installed the firefox debugging tools (firebug) and I can see what the headers are but I don't know how to interpret them and there is no response being passed back. Any help is appreciated!!!

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• What am I doing wrong with SVN merging?

  - by randomusername

  When SVN with merge tracking works, it's really nice, I love it. But it keeps getting twisted up. We are using TortoiseSVN. We continuously get the following message: Error: Reintegrate can only be used if revisions 1234 through 2345 were previously merged from /Trunk to the reintegrate source, but this is not the case For reference, this is the method we are using: Create a Branch Develop in the branch Occasionally Merge a range of revisions from the Trunk to the Branch When branch is stable, Reintegrate a branch from the branch to the trunk Delete the branch I Merge a range of revisions from the trunk to the branch (leaving the range blank, so it should be all revisions) just prior to the reintegrate operation, so the branch should be properly synced with the trunk. Right now, the Trunk has multiple SVN merge tracking properties associated with it. Should it? Or should a Reintegrate not add any merge tracking info? Is there something wrong with our process? This is making SVN unusable - 1 out of every 3 reintegrates forces me to dive in and hack at the merge tracking info.

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• How to get the value of an XML element using Linq even when empty.

  - by Yeodave

  Please excuse my stupidity, I tend to find the traversing XML overly complicated. I am using ASP.NET in VB. I have an XML document which contains all the details of staff in my company... <staff> <staffName>Test Staff</staffName> <staffTitle>Slave</staffTitle> <staffDepartmentName>Finance</staffDepartmentName> <staffOffice>London</staffOffice> <staffEmail>[email protected]</staffEmail> <staffPhone>0207 123 456</staffPhone> <staffNotes>Working hours Mon to Thurs 9.15 - 5.15</staffNotes> <staffBio></staffBio> </staff> As you can see, some nodes do not always contain data for ever member of staff; only Directors have biographies. I access the values like this... For Each staff In ( _ From matches In myXMLFile.Descendants("staff").Descendants("staffName") _ Where matches.Nodes(0).ToString.ToLower.Contains(LCase(search)) _ Order By matches.Value _ Select matches) staffName = staff.Descendants("staffName").Nodes(0).ToString) staffTitle = staff.Descendants("staffTitle").Nodes(0).ToString) staffOffice = staff.Descendants("staffOffice").Nodes(0).ToString) staffEmail = staff.Descendants("staffEmail").Nodes(0).ToString) staffPhone = staff.Descendants("staffPhone").Nodes(0).ToString) staffNotes = staff.Descendants("staffNotes").Nodes(0).ToString) staffBio = staff.Descendants("staffBio").Nodes(0).ToString) ' Do something with that data... Next Once it gets to staffBio I get an error saying "Object reference not set to an instance of an object." obviously because that node does not exist. My question is how can I assign the value to a variable even when it is empty without having to do a conditional check before each assignment?

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• Threading in client-server socket program - proxy sever

  - by crazyTechie

  I am trying to write a program that acts as a proxy server. Proxy server basically listens to a given port (7575) and sends the request to the server. As of now, I did not implement caching the response. The code looks like ServerSocket socket = new ServerSocket(7575); Socket clientSocket = socket.accept(); clientRequestHandler(clientSocket); I changed the above code as below: //calling the same clientRequestHandler method from inside another method. Socket clientSocket = socket.accept(); Thread serverThread = new Thread(new ConnectionHandler(client)); serverThread.start(); class ConnectionHandler implements Runnable { Socket clientSocket = null; ConnectionHandler(Socket client){ this.clientSocket = client; } @Override public void run () { try { PrxyServer.clientRequestHandler(clientSocket); } catch (Exception ex) { ex.printStackTrace(); } } } Using the code, I am able to open a webpage like google. However, if I open another web page even I completely receive the first response, I get connection reset by peer expection. 1. How can I handle this issue Can i use threading to handle different requests. Can someone give a reference where I look for example code that implements threading. Thanks. Thanks.

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• i not find how in powershell pass through http autentification then use a webservices (lotus/domino)

  - by user1716616

  We have here a domino/lotus webservices i want use with powershell. probleme is in front of webservices lotus admin ask a http autentification. how i can use this webservice?? here what i tryed first scrap the first page and get cookie. $url = "http://xxxxxxx/names.nsf?Login" $CookieContainer = New-Object System.Net.CookieContainer $postData = "Username=web.services&Password=jesuisunestar" $buffer = [text.encoding]::ascii.getbytes($postData) [net.httpWebRequest] $req = [net.webRequest]::create($url) $req.method = "POST" $req.Accept = "text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8" $req.Headers.Add("Accept-Language: en-US") $req.Headers.Add("Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate") $req.Headers.Add("Accept-Charset: ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7") $req.AllowAutoRedirect = $false $req.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded" $req.ContentLength = $buffer.length $req.TimeOut = 50000 $req.KeepAlive = $true $req.Headers.Add("Keep-Alive: 300"); $req.CookieContainer = $CookieContainer $reqst = $req.getRequestStream() $reqst.write($buffer, 0, $buffer.length) $reqst.flush() $reqst.close() [net.httpWebResponse] $res = $req.getResponse() $resst = $res.getResponseStream() $sr = new-object IO.StreamReader($resst) $result = $sr.ReadToEnd() this seem work but now no idea how i can use cookie with a webservicesproxy??? ps: i success have this to work with c# + visualstudio (just the class reference is autobuilt and i don't understand half of this but it allow me to use .CookieContenaire on the generated webservice )

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• Some ASP.NET and Access

  - by Fazleh

  Good Day all, I have a big problem but i think its minor for you guys in Stackoverflow. I am creating a web application that has two main parts. The Payment part and Requisition part. It backbone is using access and the script is in ASP.NET. I managed to sort out most of the application. But I have been having a few problems. I have pasted the link to the project in http://www.mediafire.com/download/p09fefreifidud3/Inyatsi.rar so it will be easy for someone to see what I am blabbing about. Now for my problems: The AddRequisition.aspx/AddPayment.aspx: both have a reference number. I wanted it to be unique number(but not a primary key). I wanted it to be in the following format: DDMMYY(TransactionNo)(UserID) eg: 24061101PK. I have tried and tried but have not been able to sort it out. The AmountINWords gets the value from Amount. It converts the Amount into words. Thats not all. It picks what currncy was picked in the CurrencyPaidIn and pust the respective currency inside. eg. 123.45 USD becomes One Hundred and twenty three dollars and forty five cents. I tried using queries but as you will see that went all wrong. Those are the only two things that I cant seem to get my head around. I do know that there are some things that are not conventional ASP.NET and some text boxes are not the right size. I was thinking of sorting out those after I get those two fixed because they are simple to do. I really need some help with this application please. If someone can just have a look at the code and add a few things here and there. Thanks in advance. Faz

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• How can I set/store cookie when anchor clicked

  - by Unaverage Guy

  I am trying to use Cookie so that a default style OR a specific style is applied in reference to the anchor tag clicked, even when the browser is closed/reopen. So if the user clicked the second link, close or refresh the browser and reopen, than the style should still be active, if it is their first time the default should apply. This is a little over my turf. Here is the HTML: <a id="default" href="#/">Default Style</a> <a id="style2" href="#/">Style 2</a> <a id="style3" href="#/">Style 3</a> <ol> <li><span>Hello World</span></li> </ol> JQuery: (Compliments of StackOverflow) <script type="text/javascript"> $('#default').on('click',function(){ $('ol li span').removeClass(function() { return $(this).attr('class'); }).addClass('default'); }); $('#style2').click(function(){ $('ol li span').removeClass(function() { return $(this).attr('class'); }).addClass('style2'); }); $('#style3').click(function(){ $('ol li span').removeClass(function() { return $(this).attr('class'); }).addClass('style3'); }); </script> CSS: <style type="text/css"> .default{ color: #333; } .style2{ color: #999; } .style3{ color: #800; } </style>

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• How to structure code with 2 methods, one after another, which throw the same two exceptions?

  - by dotnetdev

  Hi, I have two methods, one called straight after another, which both throw the exact same 2 exceptions (IF an erroneous condition occurs, not stating that I'm getting exceptions). For this, should I write seperate try and catch blocks with the one statement in each try block and catch both exceptions (Both of which I can handle as I checked MSDN class library reference and there is something I can do, eg, re-open SqlConnection or run a query and not a stored proc which does not exist). So code like this: try { obj.Open(); } catch (SqlException) { // Take action here. } catch (InvalidOperationException) { // Take action here. } And likewise for the other method I call straight after. This seems like a very messy way of coding. The other way is to code with the exception variable (that is ommited as I am using AOP to log the exception details, using a class-level attribute). Doing this, this could aid me in finding out which method caused an exception and then taking action accordingly. Is this the best approach or is there another best practise altogether? I also assume that, as only these two methods are thrown, I do not need to catch Exception as that would be for an exception I cannot handle (causes way out of my control). Thanks

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• Doctrine YAML not generating correctly? Or is this markup wrong?

  - by ropstah

  I'm trying to get a many-to-many relationship between Users and Settings. The models seem to be generated correctly, however the following query fails: "User_Setting" with an alias of "us" in your query does not reference the parent component it is related to. $q = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $q->select('{s.*}, {us.*}') ->from('User u CROSS JOIN Setting s LEFT JOIN User_Setting us ON us.usr_auto_key = u.usr_auto_key AND us.set_auto_key = s.set_auto_key') ->addComponent('s', 'Setting s INDEXBY s.set_auto_key') ->addComponent('us', 'User_Setting us') ->where(u.usr_auto_key = ?',$this->usr_auto_key); $this->settings = $q->execute(); Does anyone spot a problem? This is my YAML: User: connection: default tableName: User columns: usr_auto_key: type: integer(4) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: true autoincrement: true notnull: true email: type: string(100) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: false default: '' notnull: true autoincrement: false password: type: string(32) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: false default: '' notnull: true autoincrement: false relations: Setting: class: Setting foreignAlias: User refClass: User_Setting local: usr_auto_key foreign: set_auto_key Setting: connection: default tableName: Setting columns: set_auto_key: type: integer(4) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: true autoincrement: true notnull: true name: type: string(50) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: false notnull: true autoincrement: false User_Setting: connection: default tableName: User_Setting columns: usr_auto_key: type: integer(4) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: true autoincrement: false notnull: true set_auto_key: type: integer(4) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: true autoincrement: false notnull: true value: type: string(255) fixed: false unsigned: false primary: false notnull: true autoincrement: false relations: Setting: foreignAlias: User_Setting local: set_auto_key foreign: set_auto_key User: foreignAlias: User_Setting local: usr_auto_key foreign: usr_auto_key

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• Sys. engineer has decided to dynamically transform all XSLs into DLLs on website build process. DLL

  - by John Sullivan

  Hello, OS: Win XP. Here is my situation. I have a browser based application. It is "wrapped" in a Visual Basic application. Our "Systems Engineer Senior" has decided to spawn DLL files from all of our XSL pages (many of which have duplicate names) upon building a new instance of the website and have the active server pages (ASPX) use the DLL instead. This has created a "known issue" in which ~200 DLL naming conflicts occur and, thus, half of our application is broken. I think a solution to this problem is that, thankfully, we're generating the names of the DLLs and linking them up with our application dynamically. Therefore we can do something kludgy like generate a hash and append it to the end of the DLL file name when we build our website, then always reference the DLL that had some kind of random string / hash appended to its name. Aside from outright renaming the DLLs, is there another way to have multiple DLLs with the same name register for one application? I think the answer is "No, only between different applications using a special technique." Please confirm. Another question I have on my mind is whether this whole idea is a good practice -- converting our XSL pages (which we use in mass -- every time a response from our web app occurs) into DLL functions that call a "function" to do what the XSL page did via an active server page (ASPX), when we were before just sending an XML response to an XSL page via aspx.

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• jquery .children() returning wrong size

  - by i need help

  Hi guys, I just found the children size not consistent. Below attach full code with alert, for easy reference. Is the way I get the data wrong? <body> <table width="100" border="0" cellspacing="0" cellpadding="0"> <tr> <td height="30" valign="top"><strong>Header Title</strong></td> </tr> <tr> <td height="32" valign="top">Date : <strong>01/01/2010 </strong> <br><div><b></b></div><span></span></td> </tr> </table> </body> $("td").each(function() { alert($(this).children().size()); }); //first td showing 1 direct children- <strong> //second td showing 4 direct children- <strong> <br> <div> <span> ----- $("tr").each(function() { alert($(this).children().size()); }); //first tr showing 1 direct children - <td> //second tr showing 1 direct children - <td> ----- $("table").each(function() { alert($(this).children().size()); }); // ERROR // this table showing 1 direct children only.... something WRONG. // I thought there are 2 <tr> inside this table?

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• Loading a view routed by a URL parameter (e.g., /users/:id) in MEAN stack

  - by Matt Rowles

  I am having difficulties with trying to load a user by their id, for some reason my http.get call isn't hitting my controller. I get the following error in the browser console: TypeError: undefined is not a function at new <anonymous> (http://localhost:9000/scripts/controllers/users.js:10:8) Update I've fixed my code up as per comments below, but now my code just enters an infinite loop in the angular users controllers (see code below). I am using the Angular Express Generator for reference Backend - nodejs, express, mongo routes.js: // not sure if this is required, but have used it before? app.param('username', users.show); app.route('/api/users/:username') .get(users.show); controller.js: // This never gets hit exports.show = function (req, res, next, username) { User.findOne({ username: username }) .exec(function (err, user) { req.user = user; res.json(req.user || null); }); }; Frontend - angular app.js: $routeProvider .when('/users/:username', { templateUrl: function( params ){ return 'users/view/' + params.username; }, controller: 'UsersCtrl' }) services/user.js: angular.module('app') .factory('User', function ($resource) { return $resource('/api/users/:username', { username: '@username' }, { update: { method: 'PUT', params: {} }, get: { method: 'GET', params: { username:'username' } } }); }); controllers/users.js: angular.module('app') .controller('UsersCtrl', ['$scope', '$http', '$routeParams', '$route', 'User', function ($scope, $http, $routeParams, $route, User) { // this returns the error above $http.get( '/api/users/' + $routeParams.username ) .success(function( user ) { $scope.user = user; }) .error(function( err) { console.log( err ); }); }]); If it helps, I'm using this setup

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• C: writing the following code into functions

  - by donok

  Dear respected programmers. Please could you help me (again) on how to put the following code into functions for my program. I have read on-line and understand how functions work but when I do it myself it all goes pear shaped/wrong(I am such a noob). Please could you help with how to for example to write the code below into functions.(like opening the input file). My attempt: void outputFile(int argc, char **argv) { /* Check that the output file doesnt exist */ if (stat(argv[argc-1], &inode) != -1) { printf("Warning: The file %s already exists. Not going to overwrite\n", argv[argc-1]); return -1; } /*Opening ouput files*/ file_desc_out = open(argv[i],O_CREAT | O_WRONLY | O_EXCL , S_IRUSR|S_IWUSR); if(file_desc_out == -1) { printf("Error: %s cannot be opened. \n",argv[i]); //insted of argv[2] have pointer i. return -1; } } Any help on how I would now reference to this in my program is appreciated thank you. I tried: ouputfile(but I cant figure out what goes here and why either).

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• Detecting what the target object is when NullReferenceException is thrown.

  - by StingyJack

  I'm sure we all have received the wonderfully vague "Object reference not set to instance of an Object" exception at some time or another. Identifying the object that is the problem is often a tedious task of setting breakpoints and inspecting all members in each statement. Does anyone have any tricks to easily and efficiently identify the object that causes the exception, either via programmatical means or otherwise? --edit It seems I was vague like the exception =). The point is to _not have to debug the app to find the errant object. The compiler/runtime does know that the object has been allocated, and that the object has not yet been instantiated. Is there a way to extract / identify those details in a caught exception @ W. Craig Trader Your explanation that it is a result of a design problem is probably the best answer I could get. I am fairly compulsive with defensive coding and have managed to get rid of most of these errors after fixing my habits over time. The remaining ones just tweak me to no end, and lead me to posting this question to the community. Thanks for everyone's suggestions.

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• How to make 2 incompatible types, but with the same members, interchangeable?

  - by Quigrim

  Yesterday 2 of the guys on our team came to me with an uncommon problem. We are using a third-party component in one of our winforms applications. All the code has already been written against it. They then wanted to incorporate another third-party component, by the same vender, into our application. To their delight they found that the second component had the exact same public members as the first. But to their dismay, the 2 components have completely separate inheritance hierarchies, and implement no common interfaces. Makes you wonder... Well, makes me wonder. An example of the problem: public class ThirdPartyClass1 { public string Name { get { return "ThirdPartyClass1"; } } public void DoThirdPartyStuff () { Console.WriteLine ("ThirdPartyClass1 is doing its thing."); } } public class ThirdPartyClass2 { public string Name { get { return "ThirdPartyClass2"; } } public void DoThirdPartyStuff () { Console.WriteLine ("ThirdPartyClass2 is doing its thing."); } } Gladly they felt copying and pasting the code they wrote for the first component was not the correct answer. So they were thinking of assigning the component instant into an object reference and then modifying the code to do conditional casts after checking what type it was. But that is arguably even uglier than the copy and paste approach. So they then asked me if I can write some reflection code to access the properties and call the methods off the two different object types since we know what they are, and they are exactly the same. But my first thought was that there goes the elegance. I figure there has to be a better, graceful solution to this problem.

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• Database PK-FK design for future-effective-date entries?

  - by Scott Balmos

  Ultimately I'm going to convert this into a Hibernate/JPA design. But I wanted to start out from purely a database perspective. We have various tables containing data that is future-effective-dated. Take an employee table with the following pseudo-definition: employee id INT AUTO_INCREMENT ... data fields ... effectiveFrom DATE effectiveTo DATE employee_reviews id INT AUTO_INCREMENT employee_id INT FK employee.id Very simplistic. But let's say Employee A has id = 1, effectiveFrom = 1/1/2011, effectiveTo = 1/1/2099. That employee is going to be changing jobs in the future, which would in theory create a new row, id = 2 with effectiveFrom = 7/1/2011, effectiveTo = 1/1/2099, and id = 1's effectiveTo updated to 6/30/2011. But now, my program would have to go through any table that has a FK relationship to employee every night, and update those FK to reference the newly-effective employee entry. I have seen various postings in both pure SQL and Hibernate forums that I should have a separate employee_versions table, which is where I would have all effective-dated data stored, resulting in the updated pseudo-definition below: employee id INT AUTO_INCREMENT employee_versions id INT AUTO_INCREMENT employee_id INT FK employee.id ... data fields ... effectiveFrom DATE effectiveTo DATE employee_reviews id INT AUTO_INCREMENT employee_id INT FK employee.id Then to get any actual data, one would have to actually select from employee_versions with the proper employee_id and date range. This feels rather unnatural to have this secondary "versions" table for each versioned entity. Anyone have any opinions, suggestions from your own prior work, etc? Like I said, I'm taking this purely from a general SQL design standpoint first before layering in Hibernate on top. Thanks!

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• NHibernate Entity code conversion from #C to VB.Net

  - by CoderRoller

  Hello and thanks for your help in advance. I am starting on the NHibernate world and i am experimenting with the NHibernate CookBook recipes, i am trying to set a base entity class for my entities and this is the C# code for this. I would like to know whats the VB.NET version so i can implement it in my sample project. This is the C# code: public abstract class Entity<TId> { public virtual TId Id { get; protected set; } public override bool Equals(object obj) { return Equals(obj as Entity<TId>); } private static bool IsTransient(Entity<TId> obj) { return obj != null && Equals(obj.Id, default(TId)); } private Type GetUnproxiedType() { return GetType(); } public virtual bool Equals(Entity<TId> other) { if (other == null) return false; if (ReferenceEquals(this, other)) return true; if (!IsTransient(this) && !IsTransient(other) && Equals(Id, other.Id)) { var otherType = other.GetUnproxiedType(); var thisType = GetUnproxiedType(); return thisType.IsAssignableFrom(otherType) || otherType.IsAssignableFrom(thisType); } return false; } public override int GetHashCode() { if (Equals(Id, default(TId))) return base.GetHashCode(); return Id.GetHashCode(); } } I tried using an online converter but puts a Nothing reference in place of default(TId) that doesn't seem right to me that's why I request for help: Private Shared Function IsTransient(obj As Entity(Of TId)) As Boolean Return obj IsNot Nothing AndAlso Equals(obj.Id, Nothing) End Function I Would appreciate the insight you may give me on the subject.

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