Search Results

Search found 12222 results on 489 pages for 'initial context'.

Page 389/489 | < Previous Page | 385 386 387 388 389 390 391 392 393 394 395 396  | Next Page >

  • StringTemplate Variable with Object Properties

    - by David Higgins
    I am starting to use StringTemplate for the first time, and am stuck trying to figure out how to get StringTemplate to do something like the following: article.st $elemenets:article/elements()$ article/elements.st $if($it.is_type)$ $it:article/type()$ $elseif($it.is_type2)$ $it:article/type2()$ // also tried: $it.value:article/type2()$, same result $endif$ article/type.st <type>$it.value$</type> article/type2.st <h1>$it.value.title</h1> <type2>$it.value.text</type2> program.cs StringTemplateGroup group = new StringTemplateGroup("article", "Templates"); StringTemplate template = group.GetInstanceOf("Article"); template.SetAttribute("elements", new Element() { is_type = true, value = "<p>Hello Text</p>" }); template.SetAttribute("elements", new Element() { is_type2 = true, value = new { title = "Type 2 Title", text = "Type2 Text" } }); return template.ToString(); Problem here is ... the if(it.is_type) works fine, and the article/type.st works perfectly. However, when I pass an object to the value property for 'Element' I get this error: Class ClassName has no such attribute: text in template context [Article article/element elseif(it.is_type2)_subtemplate article/type2] So - my question is, how do i access the properties/fields of an object, within an object using StringTemplate?

    Read the article

  • Android ListView appears empty, but contains objects

    - by Lethjakman
    I'm having a really odd problem with my android listview. The listview is inside of a fragment, everything's compiling and I'm no longer getting a nullpointer error, but the listview is appearing empty. Even though it's appearing empty, the log is stating that the listview has 385 objects. I can't figure out why it's empty. I do get a blue fragment, and the listview is populated. Any ideas? How I set the adapter: ActivePackages = getList(); LayoutInflater inflater = (LayoutInflater) this.getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); LinearLayout mContainer = (LinearLayout) inflater.inflate(R.layout.tab_frag1_layout, null); ListView activeList = (ListView) mContainer.findViewById(R.id.activelist); ArrayAdapter<String> adapter = new ArrayAdapter<String>(this, android.R.layout.simple_list_item_1, android.R.id.text1, ActivePackages); Log.i("valueof activeList",String.valueOf(activeList.getCount())); //returns 0 activeList.setAdapter(adapter); adapter.notifyDataSetChanged(); Log.i("valueof activeList",String.valueOf(activeList.getCount())); //returns 385. This is the xml for the fragment: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:orientation="vertical" > <ListView android:id="@+id/activelist" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" android:background="#0073fd"> </ListView> </LinearLayout>

    Read the article

  • Understanding Javascript's difference between calling a function, and returning the function but executing it later.

    - by Squeegy
    I'm trying to understand the difference between foo.bar() and var fn = foo.bar; fn(); I've put together a little example, but I dont totally understand why the failing ones actually fail. var Dog = function() { this.bark = "Arf"; }; Dog.prototype.woof = function() { $('ul').append('<li>'+ this.bark +'</li>'); }; var dog = new Dog(); // works, obviously dog.woof(); // works (dog.woof)(); // FAILS var fnWoof = dog.woof; fnWoof(); // works setTimeout(function() { dog.woof(); }, 0); // FAILS setTimeout(dog.woof, 0); Which produces: Arf Arf undefined Arf undefined On JSFiddle: http://jsfiddle.net/D6Vdg/1/ So it appears that snapping off a function causes it to remove it's context. Ok. But why then does (dog.woof)(); work? It's all just a bit confusing figuring out whats going on here. There are obviously some core semantics I'm just not getting.

    Read the article

  • Where should I declare my CDI resources?

    - by Laird Nelson
    JSR-299 (CDI) introduces the (unfortunately named) concept of a resource: http://docs.jboss.org/weld/reference/1.0.0/en-US/html/resources.html#d0e4373 You can think of a resource in this nomenclature as a bridge between the Java EE 6 brand of dependency injection (@EJB, @Resource, @PersistenceContext and the like) and CDI's brand of dependency injection. The general gist seems to be that somewhere (and this will be the root of my question) you declare what amounts to a bridge class: it contains fields annotated both with Java EE's @EJB or @PersistenceContext or @Resource annotations and with CDI's @Produces annotations. The net effect is that Java EE 6 injects a persistence context, say, where it's called for, and CDI recognizes that injected PersistenceContext as a source for future injections down the line (handled by @Inject). My question is: what is the community's consensus--or is there one--on: what this bridge class should be named where this bridge class should live whether it's best to localize all this stuff into one class or make several of them ...? Left to my own devices, I was thinking of declaring a single class called CDIResources and using that as the One True Place to link Java EE's DI with CDI's DI. Many examples do something similar, but I'm not clear on whether they're "just" examples or whether that's a good way to do it. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Nested dereferencing arrows in Perl: to omit or not to omit?

    - by DVK
    In Perl, when you have a nested data structure, it is permissible to omit de-referencing arrows to 2d and more level of nesting. In other words, the following two syntaxes are identical: my $hash_ref = { 1 => [ 11, 12, 13 ], 3 => [31, 32] }; my $elem1 = $hash_ref->{1}->[1]; my $elem2 = $hash_ref->{1}[1]; # exactly the same as above Now, my question is, is there a good reason to choose one style over the other? It seems to be a popular bone of stylistic contention (Just on SO, I accidentally bumped into this and this in the space of 5 minutes). So far, none of the usual suspects says anything definitive: perldoc merely says "you are free to omit the pointer dereferencing arrow". Conway's "Perl Best Practices" says "whenever possible, dereference with arrows", but it appears to only apply to the context of dereferencing the main reference, not optional arrows on 2d level of nested data structures. "MAstering Perl for Bioinfirmatics" author James Tisdall doesn't give very solid preference either: "The sharp-witted reader may have noticed that we seem to be omitting arrow operators between array subscripts. (After all, these are anonymous arrays of anonymous arrays of anonymous arrays, etc., so shouldn't they be written [$array-[$i]-[$j]-[$k]?) Perl allows this; only the arrow operator between the variable name and the first array subscript is required. It make things easier on the eyes and helps avoid carpal tunnel syndrome. On the other hand, you may prefer to keep the dereferencing arrows in place, to make it clear you are dealing with references. Your choice." Personally, i'm on the side of "always put arrows in, since itg's more readable and obvious tiy're dealing with a reference".

    Read the article

  • simpletest - Why does setReturnValue() seem to change behaviour depending on if test is run in isola

    - by JW
    I am using SimpleTest version 1.0.1 for a unit test. I create a new mock object within a test method and on it i do: $MockDbAdaptor->setReturnValue('query',1); Now, when i run this in a standalone unit test my tested object is happy to see 1 returned when query() is called on the mock db adaptor. However, when this exact same test is run as part of my 'all_tests' TestSuite, the test is failing. This happens because a call to the mock's query() method does not appear to return any value - thus causing my test subject to complain and trigger an unexpected exception that fails the test. So, the behaviour of setReturnValue() seems to change depending on whether the test is run in isolation or not. I can get it to work in both a standalone and TestSuite contexts by using this instead: $MockDbAdaptor->setReturnValueAt(0,'query',1); So my immediate problem can be fixed ...but it feels like a hack. I thought if i create a new mock within a test method then why is the setReturnValue() behaviour getting affected by the context in which the test class instance is run? It feel like a bug.

    Read the article

  • Is this a bug? : I get " The type ... is not a complex type or an entity type" in my WCF data servic

    - by veertien
    When invoking a query on the data service I get this error message inside the XML feed: <m:error> <m:code></m:code> <m:message xml:lang="nl-NL">Internal Server Error. The type 'MyType' is not a complex type or an entity type.</m:message> </m:error> When I use the example described here in the article "How to: Create a Data Service Using the Reflection Provider (WCF Data Services)" http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd728281(v=VS.100).aspx it works as expected. I have created the service in a .NET 4.0 web project. My data context class returns a query object that is derived from the LINQExtender (http://linqextender.codeplex.com/). When I execute the query object in a unit test, it works as expected. My entity type is defined as: [DataServiceKey("Id")] public class Accommodation { [UniqueIdentifier] [OriginalFieldName("EntityId")] public string Id { get; set; } [OriginalFieldName("AccoName")] public string Name { get; set; } } (the UniqueIdentifier and OriginalFieldName attributes are used by LINQExtender) Does anybody know if this is a bug in WCF data services or am I doing something wrong?

    Read the article

  • Get more debug info from AxHost?

    - by Presidenten
    Hello I'm trying to deploy an application which uses an library that embeds an ActiveX control with AxHost in C#. When I run the installed app on our test rig I catch and present the following exception: Unexpected exception. This application has failed to start because the application configuration is incorrect. Reinstalling the application may fix this problem. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x800736B1) at System.Windows.Forms.UnsafeNativeMethods.CoCreateInstance(Guid& clsid, Object punkOuter, Int32 context, Guid& iid) at System.Windows.Forms.AxHost.CreateWithoutLicense(Guid clsid) at System.Windows.Forms.AxHost.CreateWithLicense(String license, Guid clsid) at System.Windows.Forms.AxHost.CreateInstanceCore(Guid clsid) at System.Windows.Forms.AxHost.CreateInstance() at System.Windows.Forms.AxHost.GetOcxCreate() at System.Windows.Forms.AxHost.TransitionUpTo(Int32 state) at System.Windows.Forms.AxHost.CreateHandle() at System.Windows.Forms.Control.CreateControl(Boolean fIgnoreVisible) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.CreateControl(Boolean fIgnoreVisible) at System.Windows.Forms.AxHost.EndInit() at ....InitializeComponent() at ... I googled 0x800736B1, so I know that it means that a file could not be loaded. The big Q right now is how to find out which file it is that cant be loaded. Is there some sort of logging function I can turn on, or is there maybe som way I can get more info from the exception?

    Read the article

  • Embedding a File Explorer instance in a WinForms app form

    - by Unsliced
    My (C#, .NET 3.5) app generates files and, in addition to raising events that can be caught and reacted to, I want to display the target folder to the user in a form. The file-list is being shown within the same form as other information. I'm using an instance of the WebBrowser control (System.Windows.Forms.WebBrowser), then navigating to the folder. This shows some default view of the explorer window, with the file summary panel on the left and the files in the 'Tiles' (large icon and text) view. e.g. wb.Navigate(@"c:\path\to\folder\"); I'd like to suppress the panel and to view the file list in the Details view. The user can get to this via a right-click, context menu, but I'd like it to come up automatically. I'd rather not have to build my own TreeView, DataGridView or whatever; the WebBrowser control does all the updating and re-sorting and whatnot 'for free'. Does anybody have a better suggestion? A different control to use or some additional arguments to pass to the control? And if I could trap events (e.g. files being selected/renamed/double-clicked, etc.) then all the better!

    Read the article

  • Complex data types in WCF?

    - by Hojou
    I've run into a problem trying to return an object that holds a collection of childobjects that again can hold a collection of grandchild objects. I get an error, 'connection forcibly closed by host'. Is there any way to make this work? I currently have a structure resembling this: pseudo code: Person: IEnumerable<Order> Order: IEnumberable<OrderLine> All three objects have the DataContract attribute and all public properties i want exposed (including the IEnumerable's) have the DataMember attribute. I have multiple OperationContract's on my service and all the methods returning a single object OR an IEnumerable of an object works perfectly. It's only when i try to nest IEnumerable that it turns bad. Also in my client service reference i picked the generic list as my collection type. I just want to emphasize, only one of my operations/methods fail with this error - the rest of them work perfectly. EDIT (more detailed error description): [SocketException (0x2746): An existing connection was forcibly closed by the remote host] [IOException: Unable to read data from the transport connection: An existing connection was forcibly closed by the remote host.] [WebException: The underlying connection was closed: An unexpected error occurred on a receive.] [CommunicationException: An error occurred while receiving the HTTP response to http://myservice.mydomain.dk/MyService.svc. This could be due to the service endpoint binding not using the HTTP protocol. This could also be due to an HTTP request context being aborted by the server (possibly due to the service shutting down). See server logs for more details.] I tried looking for logs but i can't find any... also i'm using a WSHttpBinding and an http endpoint.

    Read the article

  • Pass table as parameter to SQLCLR TV-UDF

    - by Skeolan
    We have a third-party DLL that can operate on a DataTable of source information and generate some useful values, and we're trying to hook it up through SQLCLR to be callable as a table-valued UDF in SQL Server 2008. Taking the concept here one step further, I would like to program a CLR Table-Valued Function that operates on a table of source data from the DB. I'm pretty sure I understand what needs to happen on the T-SQL side of things; but, what should the method signature look like in the .NET (C#) code? What would be the parameter datatype for "table data from SQL Server?" e.g. /* Setup */ CREATE TYPE InTableType AS TABLE (LocationName VARCHAR(50), Lat FLOAT, Lon FLOAT) GO CREATE TYPE OutTableType AS TABLE (LocationName VARCHAR(50), NeighborName VARCHAR(50), Distance FLOAT) GO CREATE ASSEMBLY myCLRAssembly FROM 'D:\assemblies\myCLR_UDFs.dll' WITH PERMISSION_SET = EXTERNAL_ACCESS GO CREATE FUNCTION GetDistances(@locations InTableType) RETURNS OutTableType AS EXTERNAL NAME myCLRAssembly.GeoDistance.SQLCLRInitMethod GO /* Execution */ DECLARE @myTable InTableType INSERT INTO @myTable(LocationName, Lat, Lon) VALUES('aaa', -50.0, -20.0) INSERT INTO @myTable(LocationName, Lat, Lon) VALUES('bbb', -20.0, -50.0) SELECT * FROM @myTable DECLARE @myResult OutTableType INSERT INTO @myResult MyCLRTVFunction @myTable --returns a table result calculated using the input The lat/lon - distance thing is a silly example that should of course be better handled entirely in SQL; but I hope it illustrates the general intent of table-in - table-out through a table-valued UDF tied to a SQLCLR assembly. I am not certain this is possible; what would the SQLCLRInitMethod method signature look like in the C#? public class GeoDistance { [SqlFunction(FillRowMethodName = "FillRow")] public static IEnumerable SQLCLRInitMethod(<appropriateType> myInputData) { //... } public static void FillRow(...) { //... } } If it's not possible, I know I can use a "context connection=true" SQL connection within the C# code to have the CLR component query for the necessary data given the relevant keys; but that's sensitive to changes in the DB schema. So I hope to just have SQL bundle up all the source data and pass it to the function. Bonus question - assuming this works at all, would it also work with more than one input table?

    Read the article

  • doublechecking: no db-wide 'unicode switch' for sql server in the foreseeable future, i.e. like Orac

    - by user72150
    Hi all, I believe I know the answer to this question, but wanted to confirm: Question Does Sql server (or will it in the foreseeable future), offer a database-wide "unicode switch" which says "store all characters in unicode (UTF-16, UCS-2, etc)", i.e. like Oracle. The Context Our application has provided "CJK" (Chinese-Japanese-Korean) support for years--using Oracle as the db store. Recently folks have been asking for the same support in sql server. We store our db schema definition in xml and generate the vendor-specific definitions (oracle, sql server) using vendor-specific xsl. We can make the change easily. The problem is for upgrades. Generated scripts would need to change the column types for 100+ columns from varchar to nvarchar, varchar(max) to nvarchar(max), etc. These changes require dropping and recreating indexes and foreign keys if the any indexes/fk's exist on the column. Non-trivial. Risky. DB-wide character encodings for us would eliminate programming changes. (I.e. we would not to change the column types from varchar to nvarchar; sql server would correctly store unicode data in varchar columns). I had thought that eventually sql server would "see the light" and allow storing unicode in varchar/clob columns. Evidently not yet. Recap So just to triple check: does mssql offer a database-wide switch for character encoding? Will it in SQL2008R3? or 2010? thanks, bill

    Read the article

  • [iPhone] Background color during flip view animation/transition?

    - by Rob S.
    I have some pretty standing flipping action going on: [UIView beginAnimations:@"swapScreens" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationTransition:UIViewAnimationTransitionFlipFromLeft forView:self.view cache:YES]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:1.0]; [self.view exchangeSubviewAtIndex:0 withSubviewAtIndex:1]; [UIView commitAnimations]; To Apple's credit, this style of animation is amazingly easy to work with. Very cool, and I've been able to animate transitions, flips, fades etc. throughout the app very easily. Question: During the flip transition, the background visible 'behind' the two views during the flip is white and I'd like it to be black. I've: Set the background of the containing view (self.view above) - no dice. I really thought that would work. Set the background of each view to black - no dice. I didn't think this would work although you give different things a shot to understand better :) Google'd like crazy; keep landing on Safari-related listings. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • ASP:NET :Problem in DoNut Caching

    - by Shyju
    I have an ASP.NET page where i am trying to do some output caching.But ran into a problem. My ASPX page has <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="MYProject._Default" %> <%@ OutputCache Duration="600" VaryByParam="None" %> <%@ Register TagPrefix="MYProjectUC" TagName="PageHeader" Src="~/Lib/UserControls/PageHeader.ascx" %> <%@ Register TagPrefix="MYProjectUC" TagName="PageFooter" Src="~/Lib/UserControls/PageFooter.ascx" %> and i have used the User control called "PageHeader" in the aspx page. In PageHeader.ascx, i have an asp.net substitution control, where i want to show some links based on the logged in user. <%@ Control Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="PageHeader.ascx.cs" Inherits="MyProject.Lib.UserControls.PageHeader1" %> <div class="headerRow"> <div class="headerLogo"> <a href="Default.aspx"><img src="Lib/Images/header.gif" alt=""></a> </div> <div id="divHeaderMenu" runat="server"> <asp:Substitution ID="subLinks" runat="server" MethodName="GetUserProfileHeaderLinks" /> </div> </div><!--headerRow--> In my ascx.cs file,i have a static method which will return a string based on whether the used logged in or not using session public static string GetUserProfileHeaderLinks(HttpContext context) { string strHeaderLinks = string.Empty; // check session and return string return strHeaderLinks; } But Still the page shows the same content for both logged in user and Guest user. My objective is to to have the Page being cached except the content inside the substitution control. Any idea how to achieve this ? Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • setAnimationRepeatAutoreverses not behaved as I expected

    - by danielkwan
    I am starting to learn to use UIView animation. So I wrote the following lines: [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:NULL]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:2.0]; [UIView setAnimationRepeatCount:2]; [UIView setAnimationRepeatAutoreverses:YES]; CGPoint position = greenView.center; position.y = position.y + 100.0f; position.x = position.x + 100.0f; greenView.center = position; [UIView commitAnimations]; In this case, the UIView (a green box) moved back and fore 2 times. So far so good, BUT I found out that after the moving twice, the green box ended up jumped to the "new position" (position.x + 100.0f, position.y + 100.0f) instead of going back to the original position (position.x, position.y). That makes the animation look pretty odd (like after the box swing back to the original position caused by setAnimationRepeatAutoreverses, it jumps back to the new position in the last microsecond!) What is the best way to make the green box NOT jump to the new position at the very last minute?

    Read the article

  • Dealing with asynchronous control structures (Fluent Interface?)

    - by Christophe Herreman
    The initialization code of our Flex application is doing a series of asynchronous calls to check user credentials, load external data, connecting to a JMS topic, etc. Depending on the context the application runs in, some of these calls are not executed or executed with different parameters. Since all of these calls happen asynchronously, the code controlling them is hard to read, understand, maintain and test. For each call, we need to have some callback mechanism in which we decide what call to execute next. I was wondering if anyone had experimented with wrapping these calls in executable units and having a Fluent Interface (FI) that would connect and control them. From the top of my head, the code might look something like: var asyncChain:AsyncChain = execute(LoadSystemSettings) .execute(LoadAppContext) .if(IsAutologin) .execute(AutoLogin) .else() .execute(ShowLoginScreen) .etc; asyncChain.execute(); The AsyncChain would be an execution tree, build with the FI (and we could of course also build one without a FI). This might be an interesting idea for environments that run in a single threaded model like the Flash Player, Silverlight, JavaFX?, ... Before I dive into the code to try things out, I was hoping to get some feedback.

    Read the article

  • Test Ruby-on-Rails controller with RSpec and different route name

    - by jhwist
    I have a Rails model named Xpmodule with a corresponding controller XpmoduleController. class XpmoduleController < ApplicationController def index @xpmodule = Xpmodule.find(params[:module_id]) end def subscribe flash[:notice] = "You are now subscribed to #{params[:subscription][:title]}" redirect_to :action => :index end end The original intent was to name the model Module which for obvious reasons doesn't work. However I still want to have the URLs look like /module/4711/ therefore I added this to my routes.rb: map.connect '/module/:module_id', :controller => 'xpmodule', :action => 'index' map.connect '/module/:module_id/subscribe', :controller => 'xpmodule', :action => 'subscribe' Now I want to test this controller with Rspec: describe XpmoduleController do fixtures :xpmodules context "index" do it "should assign the current xpmodule" do xpm = mock_model(Xpmodule) Xpmodule.should_receive(:find).and_return(xpm) get "index" assigns[:xpmodule].should be_an_instance_of(Xpmodule) end end end for which I get No route matches {:action=>"index", :controller=>"xpmodule"}. Which of course is sort-of right, but I don't want to add this route just for testing purposes. Is there a way to tell Rspec to call a different URL in get?

    Read the article

  • Can't get SWT Display on Mac OS X.

    - by Mattias Holmqvist
    I'm running Mac OS X Snow Leopard and wan't to access the Display from the activator in an OSGi bundle. Below is the start method for my activator: @Override public void start(BundleContext context) throws Exception { ExecutorService service = Executors.newSingleThreadExecutor(); service.execute(new Runnable() { @Override public void run() { Display display = Display.getDefault(); Shell shell = new Shell(display); Text helloText = new Text(shell, SWT.CENTER); helloText.setText("Hello SWT!"); helloText.pack(); shell.pack(); shell.open(); while (!shell.isDisposed()) { if (!display.readAndDispatch()) display.sleep(); } display.dispose(); } }); } Calling this code in a Windows environment works fine, but deploying on Mac OS X I get the following output: 2009-10-14 17:17:54.050 java[2010:10003] *** __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x101620d20 of class NSCFString autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2009-10-14 17:17:54.081 java[2010:10003] *** __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x100119240 of class NSCFNumber autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2009-10-14 17:17:54.084 java[2010:10003] *** __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x1001024b0 of class NSCFString autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2009-10-14 17:17:54.086 java[2010:10003] *** __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x7fff701d7f70 of class NSCFString autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2009-10-14 17:17:54.087 java[2010:10003] *** __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x100113330 of class NSCFString autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking 2009-10-14 17:17:54.092 java[2010:10003] *** __NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x101624540 of class NSCFData autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking . . . I've used the -XstartOnFirstThread VM argument without any luck. I'm on 64-bit Cocoa but I've also tried 32-bit Cocoa. When trying on Carbon I get the following error: Invalid memory access of location 00000020 eip=9012337c When debugging into the Display class I can see that the Displays[] array only contains null references.

    Read the article

  • Sharing sessions across applications using the ASP.NET Session State Service

    - by Dan
    I am trying to share sessions between two web applications, both hosted on the same server. One is a .net 2.0 web forms application the other is as .net 3.5 MVC2 application. Both apps have their session set up like this: <sessionState mode="StateServer" stateConnectionString="tcpip=127.0.0.1:42424" /> In the webform application I am posting the the session key to the MVC app: protected void LinkButton1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Session["myvariable"] = "dan"; string sessionKey = HttpContext.Current.Session.SessionID; //Followed by some code that posts sessionKey to the other application } I then recieve it in the MVC application and try use the same session like this: [HttpPost] public void Recieve(string sessionKey ) { var manager = new SessionIDManager(); bool redirected; bool IsAdded; manager.SaveSessionID(HttpContext.ApplicationInstance.Context, Id, out redirected, out IsAdded); var sessionKey = Session["myvariable"]; } The key is being posted but the session does not seem to get loaded in the MVC app, i.e. sessionKey is null. Can what I am trying to do be done?

    Read the article

  • Spring HandlerInterceptor or Spring Security to protect resource

    - by richever
    I've got a basic Spring Security 3 set up using my own login page. My configuration is below. I have the login and sign up page accessible to all as well as most everything else. I'm new to Spring Security and understand that if a user is trying to access a protected resource they will be taken to the defined login page. And upon successful login they are taken to some other page, home in my case. I want to keep the latter behavior; however, I'd like specify that if a user tries to access certain resources they are taken to the sign up page, not the login page. Currently, in my annotated controllers I check the security context to see if the user is logged in and if not I redirect them to the sign up page. I only do this currently with two urls and no others. This seemed redundant so I tried creating a HandlerInterceptor to redirect for these requests but realized that with annotations, you can't specify specific requests to be handled - they all are. So I'm wondering if there is some way to implement this type of specific url handling in Spring Security, or is going the HandlerInterceptor route my only option? Thanks! <http auto-config="true" use-expressions="true"> <intercept-url pattern="/login*" access="permitAll"/> <intercept-url pattern="/signup*" access="permitAll"/> <intercept-url pattern="/static/**" filters="none" /> <intercept-url pattern="/" access="permitAll"/> <form-login login-page="/login" default-target-url="/home"/> <logout logout-success-url="/home"/> <anonymous/> <remember-me/> </http>

    Read the article

  • asp.net mvc cookies not being sent back

    - by brian b
    My application at mysubdomain.mydomain.com needs to set a cookie that contains some user session information. They log in at a https page. We authenticate them and set some session info in a cookie. We do this in a helper library that takes in the controller context contextBase.Response.Cookies[CookiePayload.CookieName].Value = encryptedTicket; contextBase.Response.Cookies[CookiePayload.CookieName].Expires = cookieExpires; contextBase.Response.Cookies[CookiePayload.CookieName].Domain= ConfigHelper.CookieDomain; contextBase.Response.Cookies[CookiePayload.CookieName].HttpOnly=true; We do a quick redirect in the controller (to a non https page): this.ControllerContext.HttpContext.Response.Redirect(redirectTo, false); return null; The cookie appears in the response (according to firebug's net tab). But neither fireforx nor ie send the cookie on subsequent gets. We are setting the cookie domain to mydomain.com even though the site is mysubdomain.mydomain.com. Skipping the redirect command has no effect, nor does changing the cookie value. I'm baffled. Thanks for any suggestions.

    Read the article

  • UIView Animation animates position but not width

    - by Aaron Vegh
    Hi there, I'm trying to transform a UISearchBar, like in Mobile Safari: touch in the search field and it grows while the location field shrinks. My current animation to alter the width and position of the search field only animates the position: just before it slides to the right place, it simply snaps out to the right width. Here's my code: [UIView beginAnimations:@"searchGrowUp" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveEaseIn]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.5f]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; CGFloat findFieldWidth = findField.frame.size.width; CGFloat urlFieldWidth = urlField.frame.size.width; CGRect findFieldFrame = findField.frame; CGRect urlFieldFrame = urlField.frame; findFieldFrame.origin.x = findFieldFrame.origin.x - 150.0f; findFieldFrame.size.width = findFieldWidth + 150.0f; urlFieldFrame.size.width = urlFieldWidth - 150.0f; urlField.frame = urlFieldFrame; findField.frame = findFieldFrame; [UIView commitAnimations]; I've modified this code slightly for the sake of presenting it here, but I hope this gives the gist. Any guesses as to why this is happening would be appreciated! Cheers, Aaron.

    Read the article

  • RESTful WCF Data Service Authentication

    - by Adrian Grigore
    Hi, I'd like to implement a REST api to an existing ASP.NET MVC website. I've managed to set up WCF Data services so that I can browse my data, but now the question is how to handle authentication. Right now the data service is secured via the site's built in forms authentication, and that's ok when accessing the service from AJAX forms. However, It's not ideal for a RESTful api. What I would like as an alternative to forms authentication is for the users to simply embed the user name and password into the url to the web service or as request parameters. For example, if my web service is usually accessible as http://localhost:1234/api.svc I'd like to be able to access it using the url http://localhost:1234/api.svc/{login}/{password} So, my questions are as follows: Is this a sane approach? If yes, how can I implement this? It seems trivial redirecting GET requests so that the login and password are attached as GET parameters. I also know how to inspect the http context and use those parameters to filter the results. But I am not sure if / how the same approach could be applied to POST, PUT and DELETE requests. Thanks, Adrian

    Read the article

  • Project Euler considered harmful

    - by xxxxxxx
    Hi, I've done some Project Euler problems and I was able to solve them very fast because I already knew all the theory behind them. I learned that "accidentaly" because I also had to learn it for university. I used to also solve olympiad problems, I wasn't very good but I was solving some of the problems. I've reached the conclusion that Project Euler problems are taken out of their context(and olympiad problems as well). That's why they are hard. Mathematics and it's theory is taught in order to make the problems easy. However, Project Euler apparently makes an invitation at making them hard again. Why ? I honestly think this is a complete waste of time. Mathematicians had centuries at their disposal in order to solve math problems and they developed theories to explain properly why certain things happen. I think olympiad problems and Project Euler problems are really useless. What's your take on Project Euler ? Do you get something out of it or do you just find formulas on some websites and implement the code fast and then get the result and solve the problem ?

    Read the article

  • Why does Cut/Paste of form components sometimes stop working in Delphi 2007 IDE?

    - by robsoft
    This is driving me crazy. I'm not going to take it anymore. I'm going to ask, even at the risk of eternal public humiliation! (If it's something really obvious or that I've done to the system myself). For reasons I've never quite had the patience to work out, every so often the form I'm working on in Delphi 2007's visual form editor goes 'pseudo-read-only'; I can add new components to the form, I can move/resize existing ones (and change any properties in the Object Inspector), and I can select a component and 'copy' it to the clipboard. But I'm completely unable to cut a component from the form, or paste a new copy down. I don't believe it's to do with the 'Lock Controls' Edit menu option as I can toggle this on or off and it has the effect it's supposed to - this disappearance of Cut & Paste happens on the right-click context menu, from the keyboard and from the main Edit menu - it's as if the form has become read only to thing to do with the clipboard. If I close the form in the IDE and then reopen it, everything starts working fine again (just as D1, D3, D5 and D7 always did for me, previously). I'm not going mad, as I'm sure I read something about why this happens on a newsgroup once and it's caught me out from time to time many many times in the last few months, but I've failed to find the newsgroup reference this evening and I've decided that, as more and more Delphi users seem to be making use of StackOverflow, it was worth asking here. Help - when I'm doing lots of form-work it drives me absolutely mad!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 385 386 387 388 389 390 391 392 393 394 395 396  | Next Page >