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  • ISerializable and backward compatibility

    - by pierusch
    hello I have to work an an old application that used binaryFormatter to serialize application data into filestream (say in a file named "data.oldformat") without any optimizazion the main class has been marked with attribute <serializable()>public MainClass ....... end class and the serialization code dim b as new binaryformatter b.serialize(mystream,mymainclass) In an attempt to optimize the serialization/deserialization process I simply made the class implement the ISerializable interface and wrote some optimized serialization routines <serializable()>public MainClass implements ISerializable ....... end class The optimization works really well but I MUST find a way to reatrive the data inside the old files for backward compatibility. How can I do that?? Pierluigi

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  • Using Java Executor on AppEngine causes AccessControlException

    - by Drew
    How do you get java.util.concurrent.Executor or CompletionService to work on Google AppEngine? The classes are all officially white-listed, but I get a runtime security error when trying to submit asynchronous tasks. Code: // uses the async API but this factory makes it so that tasks really // happen sequentially Executor executor = java.util.concurrent.Executors.newSingleThreadExecutor(); // wrap Executor in CompletionService CompletionService<String> completionService = new ExecutorCompletionService<String>(executor); final SomeTask someTask = new SomeTask(); // this line throws exception completionService.submit(new Callable<String>(){ public String call() { return someTask.doNothing("blah"); } }); // alternately, send Runnable task directly to Executor, // which also throws an exception executor.execute(new Runnable(){ public void run() { someTask.doNothing("blah"); } }); } private class SomeTask{ public String doNothing(String message){ return message; } } Exception: java.security.AccessControlException: access denied (java.lang.RuntimePermission modifyThreadGroup) at java.security.AccessControlContext.checkPermission(AccessControlContext.java:323) at java.security.AccessController.checkPermission(AccessController.java:546) at java.lang.SecurityManager.checkPermission(SecurityManager.java:532) at com.google.appengine.tools.development.DevAppServerFactory$CustomSecurityManager.checkPermission(DevAppServerFactory.java:166) at com.google.appengine.tools.development.DevAppServerFactory$CustomSecurityManager.checkAccess(DevAppServerFactory.java:191) at java.lang.ThreadGroup.checkAccess(ThreadGroup.java:288) at java.lang.Thread.init(Thread.java:332) at java.lang.Thread.(Thread.java:565) at java.util.concurrent.Executors$DefaultThreadFactory.newThread(Executors.java:542) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor.addThread(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:672) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor.addIfUnderCorePoolSize(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:697) at java.util.concurrent.ThreadPoolExecutor.execute(ThreadPoolExecutor.java:652) at java.util.concurrent.Executors$DelegatedExecutorService.execute(Executors.java:590) at java.util.concurrent.ExecutorCompletionService.submit(ExecutorCompletionService.java:152) This code works fine when run on Tomcat or via command-line JVM. However, it chokes in the AppEngine SDK Jetty container (tried with Eclipse plugin and the maven-gae-plugin). AppEngine is likely designed to not allow potentially dangerous programs to run, so I could see them completely disabling thread creation. However, why would Google allow you to create a class, but not allow you to call methods on it? White-listing java.util.concurrent is misleading. Is there some other way to do parallel/simultaneous/concurrent tasks on GAE?

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  • installing paramiko

    - by fixxxer
    This may sound like a repeated question on SF, but I could not find a clear answer to it, yet.So. I installed Paramiko 1.7 with "setup.py install" command and while running the demo.py program, I got this error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\Documents and Settings\fixavier\Desktop\paramiko-1.7\demos\demo.py", line 33, in <module> import paramiko File "C:\Python26\lib\site-packages\paramiko\__init__.py", line 69, in <module> from transport import randpool, SecurityOptions, Transport File "C:\Python26\lib\site-packages\paramiko\transport.py", line 32, in <module> from paramiko import util File "C:\Python26\lib\site-packages\paramiko\util.py", line 31, in <module> from paramiko.common import * File "C:\Python26\lib\site-packages\paramiko\common.py", line 99, in <module> from Crypto.Util.randpool import PersistentRandomPool, RandomPool ImportError: No module named Crypto.Util.randpool I'm getting this error even after installing PyCrypto 2.1. On running test.py(which comes with the installation), I got the following error - Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\Documents and Settings\fixavier\Desktop\pycrypto-2.0.1\pycrypto-2.0.1\test.py", line 18, in <module> from Crypto.Util import test File "C:\Documents and Settings\fixavier\Desktop\pycrypto-2.0.1\pycrypto-2.0.1\build/lib.win32-2.6\Crypto\Util\test.py", line 17, in <module> import testdata File "C:\Documents and Settings\fixavier\Desktop\pycrypto-2.0.1\pycrypto-2.0.1\test\testdata.py", line 450, in <module> from Crypto.Cipher import AES ImportError: cannot import name AES I don't have the confidence to go ahead and install AES after all this, for all I know I may get another ImportError! Please advice.Is it the way of installation thats problematic?

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  • Google App Engine: JDO does the job, JPA does not

    - by Phuong Nguyen de ManCity fan
    I have setup a project using both Jdo and Jpa. I used Jpa Annotation to Declare my Entity. Then I setup my testCases based on LocalTestHelper (from Google App Engine Documentation). When I run the test, a call to makePersistent of Jdo:PersistenceManager is perfectly OK; a call to persist of Jpa:EntityManager raised an error: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Type ("org.seamoo.persistence.jpa.model.ExampleModel") is not that of an entity but needs to be for this operation at org.datanucleus.jpa.EntityManagerImpl.assertEntity(EntityManagerImpl.java:888) at org.datanucleus.jpa.EntityManagerImpl.persist(EntityManagerImpl.java:385) Caused by: org.datanucleus.exceptions.NoPersistenceInformationException: The class "org.seamoo.persistence.jpa.model.ExampleModel" is required to be persistable yet no Meta-Data/Annotations can be found for this class. Please check that the Meta-Data/annotations is defined in a valid file location. at org.datanucleus.ObjectManagerImpl.assertClassPersistable(ObjectManagerImpl.java:3894) at org.datanucleus.jpa.EntityManagerImpl.assertEntity(EntityManagerImpl.java:884) ... 27 more How can it be the case? Below is the link to the source code of the maven projects that reproduce that problem: http://seamoo.com/jpa-bug-reproduce.tar.gz Execute the maven test goal over the parent pom you will notice that 3/4 tests from org.seamoo.persistence.jdo.JdoGenericDAOImplTest passed, while all tests from org.seamoo.persistence.jpa.JpaGenericDAOImplTest failed.

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  • Dealing with asynchronous control structures (Fluent Interface?)

    - by Christophe Herreman
    The initialization code of our Flex application is doing a series of asynchronous calls to check user credentials, load external data, connecting to a JMS topic, etc. Depending on the context the application runs in, some of these calls are not executed or executed with different parameters. Since all of these calls happen asynchronously, the code controlling them is hard to read, understand, maintain and test. For each call, we need to have some callback mechanism in which we decide what call to execute next. I was wondering if anyone had experimented with wrapping these calls in executable units and having a Fluent Interface (FI) that would connect and control them. From the top of my head, the code might look something like: var asyncChain:AsyncChain = execute(LoadSystemSettings) .execute(LoadAppContext) .if(IsAutologin) .execute(AutoLogin) .else() .execute(ShowLoginScreen) .etc; asyncChain.execute(); The AsyncChain would be an execution tree, build with the FI (and we could of course also build one without a FI). This might be an interesting idea for environments that run in a single threaded model like the Flash Player, Silverlight, JavaFX?, ... Before I dive into the code to try things out, I was hoping to get some feedback.

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  • Sending Email from Lotus Notes using Excel and having Attachment & HTML body

    - by Anthony
    Right I'm trying to send an Email form an excel spreadsheet though lotus notes, it has an attachment and the body needs to be in HTML. I've got some code that from all I've read should allow me to do this however it doesn't. Without the HTML body the attachment will send, when I impliment a HTML body the Email still sends but the attachment dissapears, I've tried rearanging the order of the code cutting out bits that might not be needed but all is invain. (You need to reference Lotus Domino Objects to run this code. strEmail is the email addresses strAttach is the string location of the attachment strSubject is the subject text strBody is the body text ) Sub Send_Lotus_Email(strEmail, strAttach, strSubject, strBody) Dim noSession As Object, noDatabase As Object, noDocument As Object Dim obAttachment As Object, EmbedObject As Object Const EMBED_ATTACHMENT As Long = 1454 Set noSession = CreateObject("Notes.NotesSession") Set noDatabase = noSession.GETDATABASE("", "") 'If Lotus Notes is not open then open the mail-part of it. If noDatabase.IsOpen = False Then noDatabase.OPENMAIL 'Create the e-mail and the attachment. Set noDocument = noDatabase.CreateDocument Set obAttachment = noDocument.CreateRichTextItem("strAttach") Set EmbedObject = obAttachment.EmbedObject(EMBED_ATTACHMENT, "", strAttach) 'Add values to the created e-mail main properties. With noDocument .Form = "Memo" .SendTo = strEmail '.Body = strBody ' Where to send the body if HTML body isn't used. .Subject = strSubject .SaveMessageOnSend = True End With noSession.ConvertMIME = False Set Body = noDocument.CreateMIMEEntity("Body") ' MIMEEntity to support HTML Set stream = noSession.CreateStream Call stream.WriteText(strBody) ' Write the body text to the stream Call Body.SetContentFromText(stream, "text/html;charset=iso-8859-1", ENC_IDENTITY_8BIT) noSession.ConvertMIME = True 'Send the e-mail. With noDocument .PostedDate = Now() .Send 0, strEmail End With 'Release objects from the memory. Set EmbedObject = Nothing Set obAttachment = Nothing Set noDocument = Nothing Set noDatabase = Nothing Set noSession = Nothing End Sub If somone could point me in the right direction I'd be greatly appreciated. Edit: I've done a little more investigating and I've found an oddity, if i look at the sent folder the emails all have the paperclip icon of having an attachment even though when you go into the email even in the sent the HTML ones don't show an attachment.

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  • cannot receive UDP broadcast packets

    - by user292792
    Hello I have 2 boxes: - an embedded device (ARM Omap with linux) which I'll call "Omap". - a PC (can either be Windows or linux). Scenario 1 Both boxes are in the same network (example: my office). The Omap gets its address from a DHCP server (ex: 192.168.10.110). The PC has always the same address (ex. 192.168.10.104). I can successfully exchange UDP broadcast packets on any port. Success. Scenario 2 The 2 boxes are in a network withOUT a DHCP server. The PC has a static IP address (example: 10.10.10.20). The Omap boots, looks for a DHCP server, doesn't find it, and is in what I call "bad IP address" state. Now... Broadcasting UDP packets from the Omap works: the PC can see them. The opposite doesn't work: UDP packets broadcasted by the PC are not seen by the Omap. I am using Wireshark on another PC to verify that the packets are being sent. Failure. I tried to change the Omap ip address (with ifconfig)... no luck. What am I missing? To complete the picture, when the Omap is in Scenario 2, if I run udhcpc ... it can communicate with the DHCP server and get an IP address. I also see the packets with Wireshark. So this means that the DHCP client is able to broadcast UDP packets. (Yes, I tried to use DHCP ports 67/68 but it doesn't work). I am using Boost C++ Asio UDP sockets. Specifically, I took the multicast examples and changed them to do broadcasting. Any help is appreciated. Thanks, Benedetto

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  • Inheritance using prototype / "new"

    - by mikkol
    Hi I'm new in Javascript OO and want to know more about about inheritance. Hope you can provide some advice! I see this great post: How to "properly" create a custom object in JavaScript? which talks about how a class is inherited as I see in other websites, ex.: function man(x) { this.x = x; this.y = 2; } man.prototype.name = "man"; man.prototype.two = function() { this.y = "two"; } function shawn() { man.apply(this, arguments); }; shawn.prototype = new man; The above post claims that in order not to call "man"'s constructor while inheriting, one can use a helper like this instead: function subclassOf(base) { _subclassOf.prototype= base.prototype; return new _subclassOf(); } function _subclassOf() {}; shawn.prototype = subclassOf(man); While I understand its intention, I don't see why we can't call shawn.prototype = man.prototype; I see it works exactly the same. Or is there something I'm missing? Thanks in advance!

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  • Google App Engine on Google Apps Domain

    - by Bob Ralian
    I'm having trouble getting my domain pointed to my website hosted with google app engine. Here's the background... take care to separate the concepts of "google apps" (domain hosting, email, etc.) and "google app engine" (website framework). I have a domain that's using Google Apps for Your Domain, let's call it company.com. So my login for my google apps account is [email protected]. I have a different domain that is aliased back to my google apps account, let's call it mycompany.com. It's been successfully aliased and registered with my primary google apps account using the cname method, and has updated mx records. We have a ton of domains, and I only want to use one "google apps" account to maintain them all. Now I have a website I've built using google app engine, and the url is effectively mycompany.appspot.com. I want to get mycompany.com to point to my website that currently resides at mycompany.appspot.com. There's a spot in the google app engine dashboard under application settings where you can add a domain. So I click there and enter mycompany.com and I get an error message saying that domain is not using google apps. If I back up to the page I submitted, there's a note saying I need to register the domain with google apps. So I click the link to do that and enter mycompany.com and I get an error message saying the domain has been registered and is in the process of ownership verification. But that process is already finished. So... what do I do? Does google app engine not support a domain that is only aliased to a primary google apps account? Does mycompany.com need to have its own primary google apps account?

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  • My Android ListView item layout looks terrible

    - by jnylen
    I wanted to create a layout like the CyanogenMod call log in that there is a list item and a call button on the left which gets focus separately (screenshot). Instead, I get this mess. Here's my code: <RelativeLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:minHeight="?android:attr/listPreferredItemHeight" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:paddingLeft="4dip" > <DontPressWithParentImageView android:id="@+id/play_icon" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:paddingLeft="14dip" android:paddingRight="14dip" android:layout_alignParentRight="true" android:gravity="center_vertical" android:src="@drawable/sym_play" android:background="@drawable/play_background" /> <View android:id="@+id/divider" android:layout_width="1px" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_marginTop="5dip" android:layout_marginBottom="5dip" android:layout_toLeftOf="@id/play_icon" android:layout_marginLeft="2dip" android:background="@drawable/divider_vertical_dark" /> <TextView android:id="@+id/file_info" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_alignParentBottom="true" android:layout_marginBottom="8dip" android:layout_marginTop="-10dip" android:layout_marginLeft="10dip" android:layout_alignWithParentIfMissing="true" android:singleLine="true" android:ellipsize="marquee" android:textAppearance="?android:attr/textAppearanceSmall" android:textStyle="bold" /> <TextView android:id="@+id/file_title" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_alignParentTop="true" android:layout_above="@id/file_info" android:layout_alignWithParentIfMissing="true" android:layout_marginBottom="-10dip" android:layout_marginLeft="4dip" android:textAppearance="?android:attr/textAppearanceLarge" android:singleLine="true" android:ellipsize="marquee" android:gravity="center_vertical" /> </RelativeLayout> For reference, the code I started with is here and here, and the source to DontPressWithParentImageView is here (but as you can see from my screenshot, that part is working). What am I doing wrong?

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  • Rails Autocompletion Issue - Rails 1.2.3 to 2.3.5

    - by Grant Sayer
    I have an issue with rails Autocompletion from some code that i've inherited from an old Rails 1.2.3 project that I'm porting to Rails 2.3.5. The issue revolves around javascript execution within the auto_complete helper :after_update_element. The scenario is: A user is presented with a popup form with a number of fields. In the first field as they enter text the auto_complete AJAX call occurs, returning a result, plus a series of other HTML data wrapped in <divs> so that the after_update_element call can iterate over the other data and fill in the remaining fields. The issue lies with the extraction of the other fields which works on IE, fails on Firefox. Here is the code: <%= text_field_with_auto_complete :item, :product_code, {:value => ""}, {:size => 40, :class => "input-text", :tabindex => 6, :select => 'code', :with => "element.name + '=' + escape(element.value) + '&supplier_id=' + $('item_supplier_id').value", :after_update_element => "function (ele, value) { $('item_supplier_id').value = Utilities.extract_value(value, 'supplier_id'); $('item_supplied_size').value = Utilities.extract_value(value, 'size')}"}%> Now the function Utilities is designed to grab the fields from the string of values and looks like: // // Extract a particular set of data from the autocomplete actions // Utilities.extract_value = function (value, className) { var result; var elements = document.getElementsByClassName(className, value); if (elements && elements.length == 1) { result = elements[0].innerHTML.unescapeHTML(); } return result; }; In Firefox the value of result is undefined

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  • Delete array of size 1

    - by Arne
    This is possibly a candidate for a one-line answer. I would like know it anyway.. I am writing a simple circular buffer and for some reasons that are not important for the question I need to implement it using an array of doubles. In fact I have not investiated other ways to do it, but since an array is required anyway I have not spent much time on looking for alternatives. template<typename T> class CircularBuffer { public: CircularBuffer(unsigned int size); ~CircularBuffer(); void Resize(unsigned int new_size); ... private: T* buffer; unsigned int buffer_size; }; Since I need to have the buffer dynamically sized the buffer_size is neither const nor a template parameter. Now the question: During construction and in function Resize(int) I only require the size to be at least one, although a buffer of size one is effectively no longer a buffer. Of course using a simple double instead would be more appropriate but anyway. Now when deleting the internal buffer in the destructor - or in function resize for that matter - I need to delete the allocated memory. Question is, how? First candidate is of course delete[] buffer; but then again, if I have allocated a buffer of size one, that is if the pointer was aquired with buffer = new T[0], is it still appropriate to call delete[] on the pointer or do I need to call delete buffer; (without brackets) ? Thanks, Arne

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  • Com server build using Python on 64-bit Windows 7 machine

    - by Vijayendra Bapte
    Original post is here: http://mail.python.org/pipermail/python-win32/2010-December/011011.html I am using: OS: 64 bit Windows 7 Professional Python: python-2.7.1.amd64 Python win32 extensions: pywin32-214.win-amd64-py2.7 Py2exe: py2exe-0.6.9.win64-py2.7.amd64 I am trying to build icon overlay for Windows. It has worked fine on 32 bit Windows but not working on 64 bit Windows 7. Here are the Python modules I have created for testing: test_icon_overlay.py: ( http://mail.python.org/pipermail/python-win32/attachments/20101229/bb8c78a4/attachment-0002.obj ) com server created in Python for icon overlay which adds check mark overlay icon(C:\icons\test.ico) on "C:\icons" folder setup_VI.py: ( http://mail.python.org/pipermail/python-win32/attachments/20101229/bb8c78a4/attachment-0003.obj ) setup file which creates test_icon_overlay.dll for distribution. icons.zip: ( http://mail.python.org/pipermail/python-win32/attachments/20101229/bb8c78a4/attachment-0001.zip ) for testing you should extract icons.zip inside C:\ Icon overlay appears on C:\icons folder when I execute python test_icon_overlay.py on Windows command prompt and restarts explorer.exe. But its not working with the dll file created using setup_VI.py I have created dll file using python setup_VI.py py2exe and then tried to register it using regsvr32 test_icon_overlay.dll. Registration fails with windows error message Error 0x80040201 while registering shell extension. Then I turned on logger in Python27/Lib/site-packages/py2exe/boot_com_servers.py and here is the traceback which I am getting in comerror.txt on regsvr32 test_icon_overlay.dll PATH is ['C:\\root\\avalon\\module\\sync\\python\\src\\dist\\library.zip'] Traceback (most recent call last): File "boot_com_servers.py", line 37, in <module> pywintypes.error: (126, 'GetModuleFileName', 'The specified module could not be found.') Traceback (most recent call last): File "<string>", line 1, in <module> NameError: name 'DllRegisterServer' is not defined Looks like there might be a problem with win32api.GetModuleFileName(sys.frozendllhandle) or with the dll build on 64-bit Windows 7. Also, I saw that installation of pywin32-214.win-amd64-py2.7 on 64-bit Windows 7 finish with the error message: Snapshot close failed in file object destructor: sys.excepthook is missing lost sys.stderr Is there anything which I am doing wrong? Any help on this is highly appreciated.

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  • Why can a struct defined inside a function not be used as functor to std::for_each?

    - by Oswald
    The following code won't compile. The compiler complains about *no matching function for call to for_each*. Why is this so? #include <map> #include <algorithm> struct Element { void flip() {} }; void flip_all(std::map<Element*, Element*> input) { struct FlipFunctor { void operator() (std::pair<Element* const, Element*>& item) { item.second->flip(); } }; std::for_each(input.begin(), input.end(), FlipFunctor()); } When I move struct FlipFunctor before function flip_all, the code compiles. Full error message: no matching function for call to ‘for_each(std::_Rb_tree_iterator<std::pair<Element* const, Element*> >, std::_Rb_tree_iterator<std::pair<Element* const, Element*> >, flip_all(std::map<Element*, Element*, std::less<Element*>, std::allocator<std::pair<Element* const, Element*> > >)::FlipFunctor)’

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  • .NET Remoting memory leak?

    - by PrimeTSS
    I have a Remoting Class as a Singleton <configuration> <system.runtime.remoting> <application> <service> <wellknown mode="Singleton" type="PTSSLinkClasses.PTSSLinkClientDesktopRemotable, PTSSLinkClasses" objectUri="PTSSLinkDesktop" /> </service> <channels> <channel ref="http" port="8901"/> </channels> </application> </system.runtime.remoting> </configuration> Its created within a "server" Service. Another client service consumes this remote object. The client is calling the remote object every .5 second using a timer (polling) (for testing) If the server service is stopped, so the remote object is not available, memory useage for the client service keeps increasing...... I have overwritten InitialLifetimeService to return a null public override Object InitializeLifetimeService() { return null; } If a remote object is not available does .net queue all the call requests to this object??? untill all the memory is consumed? How can I dected if the remote object is not available and stop trying to call the remote method?

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  • incorporate simple vimeo video request with jquery carousel

    - by Andrew Welch
    Hi, I did a tutorial for a jquery carousel that scrolls a ul. At the moment the ul is hardcoded, but I want to use a simple call to vimeo api to bring in the videos for a certain user into the carousel. I have uploaded my code here: http://www.welchcreative.co.uk/wp-content/infinitecarouselvimeo.zip My problem is that I don't know where I should put the code for the simple vimeo call, because at the moment, I think that the problem is that the vimeo videos load after the jquery stuff because it uses window.onload rather than document ready and I can't seem to work out how to put the two and two together. Ideally, 1. the code loads the vimeo videos first and puts them in a ul wiht the correct classes. 2. the carousel code then acts on the list above. in that order. I hope that isn't too vague. It's a pretty simple idea. I'm new to javascript and jquery. Thanks Andy

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  • Creating instance of a service-side DataContract class on client-side in WCF

    - by hgulyan
    Hi, I have my custom class Customer with its properties. I added DataContract mark above the class and DataMember to properties and it was working fine, but I'm calling a service class's function, passing customer instance as parameter and some of my properties get 0 values. While debugging I can see my properties values and after it gets to the function, some properties' values are 0. Why it can be so? There's no code between this two actions. DataContract mark workes fine, everything's ok. Any suggestions on this issue? I tried to change ByRef to ByVal, but it doesn't change anything. Why it would pass other values right and some of integer types just 0? Maybe the answer is simple, but I can't figure it out. Thank You. <DataContract()> Public Class Customer Private Type_of_clientField As Integer = -1 <DataMember(Order:=1)> Public Property type_of_client() As Integer Get Return Type_of_clientField End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) Type_of_clientField = value End Set End Property End Class <ServiceContract(SessionMode:=SessionMode.Allowed)> <DataContractFormat()> Public Interface CustomerService <OperationContract()> Function addCustomer(ByRef customer As Customer) As Long End Interface type_of_client properties value is 6 before I call addCustomer function. After it enters that function the value is 0. UPDATE: The issue is in instance creating. When I create an instance of a class on client side, that is stored on service side, some of my properties pass 0 or nothing, but when I call a function of a service class, that returns a new instance of that class, it works fine. What's is the difference? Could that be serialization issue?

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  • Using complex data types from Java in Axis webservice

    - by Manuel Ferreria
    I am currently developing a Java app which handles a SOAP webservice. The problem lies after I parse the WSDL [the Parser object from Apache Axis does it for me], and I create the call. When I try to invoke it, I have to pass a Object[] to assign the parameters [taken from the Action of the WSDL]. A normal action is easy, but when I have custom datatypes, I can't get it to fill it out for me. I try to pass Object[]{ new Object { }}, but it assigns the first field instead. I can't pass it already processed, because it changes the '< ' to '--lt --gt', and the server doesn't recognize it'. This is a fragment of the WSDL. <s:element name="FERecuperaQTYRequest"> <s:complexType> <s:sequence> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1" name="argAuth" type="tns:FEAuthRequest" /> </s:sequence> </s:complexType> </s:element> <s:complexType name="FEAuthRequest"> <s:sequence> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1" name="Token" type="s:string" /> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1" name="Sign" type="s:string" /> <s:element minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1" name="cuit" type="s:long" /> </s:sequence> </s:complexType> And this is the troublesome Java Fragment QTY = (String) call.invoke ( new Object[]{ new Object[]{ tokenConexion.getToken (), tokenConexion.getSign (), tokenConexion.getCUIT () } });

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  • Setting LD_LIBRARY_PATH in Apache PassEnv/SetEnv still cant find library

    - by DoMoreASAP
    I am trying to test the Cybersource 3d party implementation. I was able to get the test files running fine from the command line, which requires that on Linux I export the path to the payment libraries to LD_LIBRARY_PATH. to try to test this on my server I have created the apache config below <VirtualHost 127.0.0.1:12345> AddHandler cgi-script .cgi AddHandler fcgid-script .php .fcgi FCGIWrapper /my/path/to/php_fcgi/bin/php-cgi .php AddType text/html .shtml AddOutputFilter INCLUDES .shtml DocumentRoot /my/path/to/cybersource/simapi-php-5.0.1/ ProxyPreserveHost on <Directory /my/path/to/cybersource/simapi-php-5.0.1> SetEnv LD_LIBRARY_PATH /my/path/to/cybersource/LinkedLibraries/lib/ AllowOverride all Options +Indexes IndexOptions Charset=UTF-8 </Directory> </VirtualHost> I have set the env variable there with SetEnv command, which seems to be working when i run a page that prints <?php phpinfo(); ?> however the test script when called through the browser still wont work, apache says: tail /my/apache/error_log [Tue Mar 30 23:11:46 2010] [notice] mod_fcgid: call /my/path/to/cybersource/index.php with wrapper /my/path/to/cybersource/php_fcgi/bin/php-cgi PHP Warning: PHP Startup: Unable to load dynamic library '/my/path/to/cybersource/extensionsdir/php5_cybersource.so' - libspapache.so: cannot open shared object file: No such file or directory in Unknown on line 0 so it cant find the linked file libspapache.so even though it is in the LD_LIBRARY_PATH that is supposedly defined i really appreciate the help. thanks so much.

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  • cells order changes in UITableView after reloadSections: method

    - by user304895
    I'm having a problem using a grouped UITableView, and after 3 days of searching, I didn't found the solution... Actually, I have a Grouped table, composed of two sections : The first section contains a UISegmentedControl with three buttons : button0, button1 and button2. When clicking on the button0, I want to show two cells in the second section, with embedded UITextField in each cell. When clicking on the button1, I want to show one cell in the second section with an embedded UITextField. When clicking on the button2, I have to show the camera in ModalView (I think it will be ok). I've also put placeholders in each UITextField. Each time a button is clicked, I call a pickOne: method in order to update my view. In this method, I construct a NSIndexSet with NSRange of (1, 1), and then I call the reloadSections: method from the UITableViewController with NSIndexSet as a parameter. When the view appears for the first time, everything is ok, but when I click many times on the buttons, the order of the cells changes (cells containing the two textFields for the button0), and the new placeHolders are written over the old ones. Even more, sometimes when I click on the button0, it shows me only the second cell... Do you have any idea ? or need some code ? Thank you :)

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  • Nested multithread operations tracing

    - by Sinix
    I've a code alike void ExecuteTraced(Action a, string message) { TraceOpStart(message); a(); TraceOpEnd(message); } The callback (a) could call ExecuteTraced again, and, in some cases, asynchronously (via ThreadPool, BeginInvoke, PLINQ etc, so I've no ability to explicitly mark operation scope). I want to trace all operation nested (even if they perform asynchronously). So, I need the ability to get last traced operation inside logical call context (there may be a lot of concurrent threads, so it's impossible to use lastTraced static field). There're CallContext.LogicalGetData and CallContext.LogicalSetData, but unfortunately, LogicalCallContext propagates changes back to the parent context as EndInvoke() called. Even worse, this may occure at any moment if EndInvoke() was called async. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/883486/endinvoke-changes-current-callcontext-why Also, there is Trace.CorrelationManager, but it based on CallContext and have all the same troubles. There's a workaround: use the CallContext.HostContext property which does not propagates back as async operation ended. Also, it does'nt clone, so the value should be immutable - not a problem. Though, it's used by HttpContext and so, workaround is not usable in Asp.Net apps. The only way I see is to wrap HostContext (if not mine) or entire LogicalCallContext into dynamic and dispatch all calls beside last traced operation. Help, please!

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  • Java/Spring: Why won't Spring use the validator object I have configured?

    - by GMK
    I'm writing a web app with Java & Spring 2.5.6 and using annotations for bean validation. I can get the basic annotation validation working fine, and Spring will even call a custom Validator declared with @Validator on the target bean. But it always instantiates a brand new Validator object to do it. This is bad because the new validator has none of the injected dependencies it needs to run, and so it throws a null pointer exception on validate. I need one of two things and I don't know how to do either. Convince Spring to use the validator I have already configured. Convince Spring to honor the @Autowired annotations when it creates the new validator. The validator has the @Component annotation, like this. @Component public class AccessCodeBeanValidator implements Validator { @Autowired private MessageSource messageSource; Spring finds the validator in the component scan, injects the autowired dependencies, but then ignores it and creates a new one at validation time. The only thing that I can do at the moment is add a validator reference into the controller for each validator object and use that ref directly, instead of relying on the bean validation framework to call the validator for me. It looks like this. // first validate via the annotations on the bean beanValidator.validate(accessCodeBean, result); // then validate using the specific validator class acbValidator.validate(accessCodeBean, result); if (result.hasErrors()) { If anyone knows how to convince spring to use the existing validator, instead of creating a new one, or how to make it do the autowiring when it creates a new one, I'd love to know.

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  • ASPX FormsAuthentication.RedirectFromLoginPage function is not working anymore

    - by Mike Webb
    Here is my issue. I have an ASPX web site and I have code in there to redirect from the login page with the call to "FormsAuthentication.RedirectFromLoginPage(username, false);" This sends the user from the root website folder to 'website/Admin/'. I have a 'default.aspx' page in 'website/Admin/' and the call to redirect works on a previous version of the website we have running currently, but the one that I am updating on a separate test server is not working. It gives me the error "Directory Listing Denied. This Virtual Directory does not allow contents to be listed." I have this in the config file: <authorization> <allow users="*" /> </authorization> under the "authentication" option and... <location path="Admin"> <system.web> <authorization> <deny users="?" /> </authorization> </system.web> </location> for the location of Admin. Also, there is no difference in the code between the web.config, Login.aspx, or the default.aspx files on the current server and the one on the test server, so I am confused as to why the redirect will not work on both. It even works in the Visual Studio server environment, for which the code is also identical. Any suggestions and help is appreciated.

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  • Matlab crashes on library initialize when called from Java

    - by David Sauter
    Hello everyone. The setup I have is I'm using a Java application to call native C-code with JNI, which in turn starts up the MATLAB runtime and calls functions on it (I know there are other solutions to call MATLAB methods from Java). The problem is that the MATLAB engine crashes at some point during the initialization and I don't know what's causing it exactly. The crash causes my jvm to terminate, I assume it's some kind of memory corruption. The C++ code calling MATLAB functions that is actually crashing is JNIEXPORT void JNICALL some_jni_vodoo_initializeLibrary(JNIEnv* env, jclass thisClass) { try { if (!mclInitializeApplication(NULL, 0)) { THROW_EXCEPTION(env, "Could not initialize the application properly."); return; } if (!<library>Initialize()) { THROW_EXCEPTION(env, "Could not initialize the library."); return; } } ... The function <library>Initialize() crashes here, the Java error log reads Stack Trace: [0] jmi.dll:0x793f4175(0x7934cdca, 1, 0x7937e67c "à;.y`[email protected] in C:\BUILD_ARE..", 0x792d6a32) [1] jvm.dll:0x792df9a5(0xc0000005, 0x79356791, 0x4961b400 "Ð\8y", 0x6d8b29de) [2] jvm.dll:0x792e0431(0x8b515008, 0x70f0e8ce, 0x8b5ffffa, 0xc25d5ec6) ------------------------------------------------------------------------ Fatal Java Exception detected at Fri Apr 30 11:08:08 2010 ------------------------------------------------------------------------ Configuration: MATLAB Version: 7.8.0.347 (R2009a) MATLAB License: unknown Operating System: Microsoft Windows Vista Window System: Version 6.0 (Build 6002: Service Pack 2) Processor ID: x86 Family 6 Model 10 Stepping 5, GenuineIntel Virtual Machine: Java is not enabled Default Encoding: windows-1252 Java is not enabled I really have no idea what could be wrong. Is there not enough memory from the jvm? I guess the problem is somehow related to Java, since calling the JNI functions from a simple test C++ program works fine... Thanks

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  • Objective-C object release and allocation timing

    - by ryanjm.mp
    The code for this question is too long to be of any use. But I'm pretty sure my problem has to do with releasing a class. I have a helper class, ConnectionHelper.h/.m, that handles a NSURLConnection for me. Basically, I give it the URL I want and it returns the data (it happens to do a quick json parse on it too). It has a delegate which I set to the calling class (in this case: DownloadViewController). When it finishes the download, it calls [delegate didFinishParseOf:objectName withDictionary:dictionary];. Then in DownloadViewController I release ConnectionHelper and alloc a new one in order to download the next object. My problem is, I do this once, and then it creates the connection for the second one, and then my program just crashes. After this call: [[NSHTTPCookieStorage sharedHTTPCookieStorage] setCookieAcceptPolicy:NSHTTPCookieAcceptPolicyNever]; NSURLConnection *theConnection=[[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self]; Then I don't think any of the following methods are called: - (NSCachedURLResponse *)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection willCacheResponse:(NSCachedURLResponse *)cachedResponse - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveResponse:(NSURLResponse *)response - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveData:(NSData *)data - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didFailWithError:(NSError *)error - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveAuthenticationChallenge:(NSURLAuthenticationChallenge *)challenge So am I right in that I'm not releasing something? When I release it the first time, the dealloc function isn't being called. Is there a way I can "force" it to deallocate? Do I need to force it to? I didn't think it would matter since I allocating a new ConnectionHelper for the new call. How else would they overlap / conflict with each other? Thank you.

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