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  • Why is Grails Searchable Plugin causing errors on Hibernate AutoFlush?

    - by Mark Rogers
    In the Grails 1.2.5 project that I am trying to troubleshoot, we use the Grails Searchable plugin .5.5.1. The problem is that whenever we attempt to index large sets domain classes, Grails keeps throwing: ERROR hibernate.AssertionFailure - an assertion failure occured (this may indicate a bug in Hibernate, but is more likely due to unsafe use of the session) org.hibernate.AssertionFailure: collection [domain-class] was not processed by flush() But the domain classes involved have been mapped and used by hibernate without issues outside of the calls to searchable plugin. The use of the searchable plugin goes as follows: Create a compass session with compass.openSession() Begin compass transaction: compassSession.beginTransaction() Then compassSession.create(result.get(0)) is called on an important unindexed domain class Finally compassTransaction.commit() is called to commit the transaction. Goto 2 and process next domain class Between the 3 and 4th Domain class, an autoflush is triggered that throws the error. Can anyone give me any hints about how to solve this problem? Has anyone encountered this problem before? I know that they had a systemic issue with this back in pre .5 versions of the searchable-plugin. Is it possible those issues weren't totally fixed?

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  • Rewriting jQuery to plain old javascript - are the performance gains worth it?

    - by Swader
    Since jQuery is an incredibly easy and banal library, I've developed a rather complex project fairly quickly with it. The entire interface is jQuery based, and memory is cleaned regularly to maintain optimum performance. Everything works very well in Firefox, and exceptionally so in Chrome (other browsers are of no concern for me as this is not a commercial or publicly available product). What I'm wondering now is - since pure plain old javascript is really not a complicated language to master, would it be performance enhancing to rewrite the whole thing in plain old JS, and if so, how much of a boost would you expect to get from it? If the answers prove positive enough, I'll go ahead and do it, run a benchmark and report back with the precise findings. Cheers Edit: Thanks guys, valuable insight. The purpose was not to "re-invent the wheel" - it was just for experience and personal improvement. Just because something exists, doesn't mean you shouldn't explore it into greater detail, know how it works or try to recreate it. This is the same reason I seldom use frameworks, I would much rather use my own code and iron it out and gain massive experience doing it, than start off by using someone else's code, regardless of how ironed out it is. Anyway, won't be doing it, thanks for saving me the effort :)

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  • Cannot inherit from generic base class and specific interface using same type with generic constrain

    - by simendsjo
    Sorry about the strange title. I really have no idea how to express it any better... I get an error on the following snippet. I use the class Dummy everywhere. Doesn't the compiler understand the constraint I've added on DummyImplBase? Is this a compiler bug as it works if I use Dummy directly instead of setting it as a constraint? Error 1 'ConsoleApplication53.DummyImplBase' does not implement interface member 'ConsoleApplication53.IRequired.RequiredMethod()'. 'ConsoleApplication53.RequiredBase.RequiredMethod()' cannot implement 'ConsoleApplication53.IRequired.RequiredMethod()' because it does not have the matching return type of 'ConsoleApplication53.Dummy'. C:\Documents and Settings\simen\My Documents\Visual Studio 2008\Projects\ConsoleApplication53\ConsoleApplication53\Program.cs 37 27 ConsoleApplication53 public class Dummy { } public interface IRequired<T> { T RequiredMethod(); } public interface IDummyRequired : IRequired<Dummy> { void OtherMethod(); } public class RequiredBase<T> : IRequired<T> { public T RequiredMethod() { return default(T); } } public abstract class DummyImplBase<T> : RequiredBase<T>, IDummyRequired where T: Dummy { public void OtherMethod() { } }

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  • Product Name Print Several times, How to fix.?

    - by mans
    i had added the following Opencart module for my order report list... http://www.opencart.com/index.php?route=extension/extension/info&extension_id=3597&filter_search=order%20list%20filter%20model&page=4 I have problems with the column "Products". If there are more than one option the products name prints several times. So if I got a product with three options the product name prints three times. Is there any way to fix this problem? i want print product name and model number only once, any idea.? i will attach the results what i got now... this is my sql query... public function getOrders($data = array()) { $sql = "select o.order_id,o.email,o.telephone,CONCAT(o.shipping_address_1, ' ', o.shipping_address_2) AS address,CONCAT(o.firstname, ' ', o.lastname) AS customer,o.payment_zone AS state,o.payment_address_2 AS block, o.payment_address_1 AS address,o.payment_postcode AS postcode,(SELECT os.name FROM " . DB_PREFIX . "order_status os WHERE os.order_status_id = o.order_status_id AND os.language_id = '" . (int)$this->config->get('config_language_id') . "') AS status,o.payment_city AS city,GROUP_CONCAT(pd.name) AS pdtname,GROUP_CONCAT(op.model) AS model,o.date_added,sum(op.quantity) AS quantity,GROUP_CONCAT(opt.value ) AS options, GROUP_CONCAT(opt.order_product_id ) AS ordprdid,GROUP_CONCAT(op.order_product_id ) AS optprdid, GROUP_CONCAT(op.quantity) AS opquantity from `" . DB_PREFIX . "order` o LEFT JOIN " . DB_PREFIX . "order_product op ON (op.order_id = o.order_id) LEFT JOIN " . DB_PREFIX . "product_description pd ON (pd.product_id = op.product_id and pd.language_id = '" . (int)$this->config->get('config_language_id') . "') LEFT JOIN " . DB_PREFIX . "order_option opt ON (opt.order_product_id = op.order_product_id) "; Product Name = GROUP_CONCAT(pd.name) AS pdtname,

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  • asp.net Can I force every page to inherit from a base page? Also should some of this logic be in my master page?

    - by Bex
    Hi! I have a web app that has a base page. Each page needs to inherit from this base page as it contains properties they all need as well as dealing with the login rights. My base page has some properties, eg: IsRole1, IsRole2, currentUserID, Role1Allowed, Role2Allowed. On the init of each page I set the properties "Role1Allowed" and "Role2Allowed" Private Sub Page_Init(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Init Role1Allowed = True Role2Allowed= False End Sub The basepage then decides if the user needs redirecting. 'Sample code so not exactly what is going to be, bug gives the idea Protected Overridable Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) If Role1Allowed And Not Role1 Then 'Redirect somewhere End If End Sub The page then must override this pageload if they need anything else in it, but making sure they call the base pageload first. Protected Overrides Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load MyBase.Page_Load(sender, e) If Not IsPostBack Then BindGrid() End If End Sub The other properties (IsRole1, IsRole, currentUserID) are also accessible by the page so it can be decided if certain things need doing based on the user. (I hope this makes sense) Ok so I have 2 questions Should this functionality be in the base page or should it somehow be in the master, and if so how would I get access to all the properties if it was? As there are multiple people working on this project and creating pages some are forgetting to inherit from this basepage, or call the base pageload when overriding it. Is there any way to force them to do this? Thanks for any help. bex

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  • Visual Studio 2010 / ASP.NET MVC 2 / Publish

    - by SevenCentral
    I just did a clean install on Windows 7 x64 Professional with the final release of Visual Studio 2010 Premium. In order to duplicate what I'm experiencing do the following in: Create a new ASP.NET MVC 2 Web Application Right click the project and select Properties On the Web tab, select "Use Local IIS Web Server" Click on Create Virtual Directory Save all Unload the project Edit the project file Change MvcBuildViews to true Save all Reload project Right click the project and select Publish Choose the file system publish method Enter a target location Choose Delete all existing files Select Publish Right click the project Select Publish Each time I do the above I get the following errror: "It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level..." The error originates from obj\debug\package\packagetmp\web.config, relative to the project directory. I can repeat this all day long with any MVC 2 project I've built. In order to fix this problem, I need to set MvcBuildViews to false in the project file. That's not really an option. This wasn't a problem in Visual Studio 2008 and it seems to be an issue with the way the Publish command stages files beneath the project directory. Can anyone else duplicate this error? Is this a bug or by design? Is there a fix, workaround, etc...? Thanks.

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  • Ideas Needed for a Base Code System

    - by Tegan Snyder
    I've developed a PHP web application that is currently in need of a strategic restructuring. Currently when we setup new clients we give them the entire code base on a subdomain of our main domain and create a new table for them in the database. This results in each client having the entire codebase, meaning when we make bug changes, fixes we have to go back and apply them independently across all clients and this is a pain. What I'd like to create is a base code server that holds all the core PHP files. base.domain.com Then all of our clients (client.domain.com) will only need a few files: config.php would have the database connection information. index.php - displays the login box if session non-existant, otherwise it loads baseline code via remote includes to base.domain.com. My question is does my logic seem feasible? How do other people handle similar situations by having a base code? Also.... Is it even possbile to remotely include PHP files from base.domain.com and include them in client.domain.com? Thanks, Tegan

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  • how to allow unamed user in svn authz file?

    - by dtrosset
    I have a subversion server running with apache. It authenticates users using LDAP in apache configuration and uses SVN authorizations to limit user access to certain repositories. This works perfectly. Apache DAV svn SVNParentPath /srv/svn SVNListParentPath Off SVNPathAuthz Off AuthType Basic AuthName "Subversion Repository" AuthBasicProvider ldap AuthLDAPBindDN # private stuff AuthLDAPBindPassword # private stuff AuthLDAPURL # private stuff Require valid-user AuthzSVNAccessFile /etc/apache2/dav_svn.authz Subversion [groups] soft = me, and, all, other, developpers Adding anonymous access from one machine Now, I have a service I want to setup (rietveld, for code reviews) that needs to have an anonymous access to the repository. As this is a web service, accesses are always done from the same server. Thus I added apache configuration to allow all accesses from this machine. This did not work until I add an additional line in the authorization file to allow read access to user -. Apache <Limit GET PROPFIND OPTIONS REPORT> Order allow,deny Allow from # private IP address Satisfy Any </Limit> Subversion [Software:/] @soft = rw - = r # <-- This is the added line For instance, before I add this, all users were authenticated, and thus had a name. Now, some accesses are done without a user name! I found this - user name in the apache log files. But does this line equals to * = r that I absolutely do not want to enable, or does it only allows the anonymous unnamed user (that is allowed access only from the rietveld server)?

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  • iphone file download not working

    - by Anonymous
    Hi, In my app I 'm first connecting to a web service, which in return sends a url for a file. I use the url to download the file and then display it on the new view. I get the correct URL but not able to download file from that location. I have another test app which will download file from the same location and it works like a charm. following is my code for webservice-file download. This is a snippet of the code where i 'm parsing the web service xml and then pass the result to NSData for file download. Any suggestions where am i going wrong -- I 'm referring to the following tutorials. Web Service PDF Viewer if ([elementName isEqualToString:@"PRHPdfResultsResult"]) { NSLog(soapResults); UIAlertView *alert = [[UIAlertView alloc] initWithTitle:@"Report downloaded from:" message:soapResults delegate:self cancelButtonTitle:@"OK" otherButtonTitles:nil]; NSData *pdfData = [[NSData alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:[NSURL URLWithString:soapResults]]; //Store the Data locally as PDF File NSString *resourceDocPath = [[NSString alloc] initWithString:[[[[NSBundle mainBundle] resourcePath] stringByDeletingLastPathComponent] stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"Documents"]]; NSString *filePath = [resourceDocPath stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"myPDF.pdf"]; [pdfData writeToFile:filePath atomically:YES]; [alert show]; [alert release]; [soapResults setString:@""]; elementFound = FALSE; }

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  • How else can I email a file using ASP.NET?

    - by Jane T
    Hi all, I'm using the code below in a ASP.NET page to send a file via email from our users home computer to a mailbox that is used for receiving work that needs photocopying. The code below works fine when sending a file within our network but fails when our users are at home and connected via our SSL VPN, there appears to be a bug in our VPN where it doesn't allow the file to be temporarily saved on the webserver before being sent via email. Can anyone offer any other suggestions on how to attach a file to a ASP.NET page and have the file sent via email without storing it on the web server? Many thanks Jane. MailMessage mail = new MailMessage(); mail.From = txtFrom.Text; mail.To = txtTo.Text; mail.Cc = txtFrom.Text; mail.Subject = txtSubject.Text; mail.Body = "test" mail.BodyFormat = MailFormat.Html; string strdir = "E:\\TEMPforReprographics\\"; //<-------PROBLEM AREA string strfilename = Path.GetFileName(txtFile.PostedFile.FileName); try { txtFile.PostedFile.SaveAs(strdir + strfilename); string strAttachment = strdir + strfilename; mail.Attachments.Add(new MailAttachment(strdir + strfilename)); SmtpMail.SmtpServer = "172.16.0.88"; SmtpMail.Send(mail); Response.Redirect("Thanks.aspx", true); } catch { Response.Write("An error has occured sending the email or uplocading the file."); } finally { }

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  • Make TBODY scrollable in Webkit browsers

    - by Andrew
    I'm aware of this question, but none of the answers work in Safari, Chrome, etc. The accepted strategy (as demonstrated here) is to set the tbody height and overflow properties like so: <table> <thead> <tr><th>This is the header and doesn't scroll</th></tr> </thead> <tbody style="height:100px; overflow:auto;"> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> <tr><td>content that scrolls</td></tr> </tbody> </table> Unfortunately, this does not work in any webkit browsers. There is a bug report about it that doesn't seem to be a high priority (reported June 05). So my question is: are there alternate strategies that do actually work? I've tried the two-table approach, but it's impossible to guarantee that the header will line up with the content. Do I just have to wait for Webkit to fix it?

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  • How to get child nodes after store load

    - by Azincourt
    Version: ExtJs 4.1 To change the child items I use this function: TreeStore (Ext.data.TreeStore) storeId : 'treeStore', ... constructor: function( oConfig ) { ... this.on( 'expand', function( oObj ) { oObj.eachChild(function(oNode) { switch(oNode.data.type) { case "report": oNode.set('icon', strIconReport); break; case "view": oNode.set('icon', strIconView); break; } }); }); Reload After removing or adding items in the tree, I reload the tree somewhere else with: var oStore = Ext.getStore('treeStore'); oStore.load({ node : oNode, params : { newpath : oNode.data.path, overwrite : true } }); Although it is the same store treeStore, after loading and expanding to the correct path, the icons are not changed since the .on( 'expand') function is not called. Why? Question How can I change the icons of this newly loaded store before it expands to the node path? What I tried Before calling .load() I tried to edit the children with oNode.eachChild(function(oChild) {} but no success.

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  • C++ Memory Leak, Can't find where

    - by Nicholas
    I'm using Visual Studio 2008, Developing an OpenGL window. I've created several classes for creating a skeleton, one for joints, one for skin, one for a Body(which is a holder for several joints and skin) and one for reading a skel/skin file. Within each of my classes, I'm using pointers for most of my data, most of which are declared using = new int[XX]. I have a destructor for each Class that deletes the pointers, using delete[XX]. Within my GLUT display function I have it declaring a body, opening the files and drawing them, then deleting the body at the end of the display. But there's still a memory leak somewhere in the program. As Time goes on, it's memory usage just keep increasing, at a consistent rate, which I'm interpreting as something that's not getting deleted. I'm not sure if it's something in the glut display function that's just not deleting the Body class, or something else. I've followed the steps for memory leak detection in Visual Studio 2008 and it doesn't report any leak, but I'm not 100% sure if it's working right for me. I'm not fluent in C++, so there maybe something I'm overlooking, can anyone see it?

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  • Omit return type in C++0x

    - by Clinton
    I've recently found myself using the following macro with gcc 4.5 in C++0x mode: #define RETURN(x) -> decltype(x) { return x; } And writing functions like this: template <class T> auto f(T&& x) RETURN (( g(h(std::forward<T>(x))) )) I've been doing this to avoid the inconvenience having to effectively write the function body twice, and having keep changes in the body and the return type in sync (which in my opinion is a disaster waiting to happen). The problem is that this technique only works on one line functions. So when I have something like this (convoluted example): template <class T> auto f(T&& x) -> ... { auto y1 = f(x); auto y2 = h(y1, g1(x)); auto y3 = h(y1, g2(x)); if (y1) { ++y3; } return h2(y2, y3); } Then I have to put something horrible in the return type. Furthermore, whenever I update the function, I'll need to change the return type, and if I don't change it correctly, I'll get a compile error if I'm lucky, or a runtime bug in the worse case. Having to copy and paste changes to two locations and keep them in sync I feel is not good practice. And I can't think of a situation where I'd want an implicit cast on return instead of an explicit cast. Surely there is a way to ask the compiler to deduce this information. What is the point of the compiler keeping it a secret? I thought C++0x was designed so such duplication would not be required.

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  • Aggregate path counts using HierarchyID

    - by austincav
    Business problem - understand process fallout using analytics data. Here is what we have done so far: Build a dictionary table with every possible process step Find each process "start" Find the last step for each start Join dictionary table to last step to find path to final step In the final report output we end up with a list of paths for each start to each final step: User Fallout Step HierarchyID.ToString() A 1/1/1 B 1/1/1/1/1 C 1/1/1/1 D 1/1/1 E 1/1 What this means is that five users (A-E) started the process. Assume only User B finished, the other four did not. Since this is a simple example (without branching) we want the output to look as follows: Step Unique Users 1 5 2 5 3 4 4 2 5 1 The easiest solution I could think of is to take each hierarchyID.ToString(), parse that out into a set of subpaths, JOIN back to the dictionary table, and output using GROUP BY. Given the volume of data, I'd like to use the built-in HierarchyID functions, e.g. IsAncestorOf. Any ideas or thoughts how I could write this? Maybe a recursive CTE?

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  • getSharedPreferences not working for me with concerns to ListPreferences and Integers

    - by ideagent
    I'm stuck at a point where I'm trying to get my project to read a preference value (from a ListPreference listing) and then use that value in a basic mathematical subtraction instance. The problem is that the "seek" preference is not being seen by my Java code, and yet the default value is (I've tried the default value with 3000 and now 0). Am i missing something, is there a bug here, known or unknown? Java code chunk where the issues manifests itself: public static final String PREF_FILE_NAME = "preferences"; seekback.setOnClickListener(new Button.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View view) { try { SharedPreferences preferences = getSharedPreferences(PREF_FILE_NAME, MODE_PRIVATE); Integer storedPreference = preferences.getInt("seek", 0); (mediaPlayer.getCurrentPosition()-storedPreference); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } }); Here are some other code bits for my project: From preferences file: <ListPreference android:entries="@array/seconds" android:entryValues="@array/seconds_values" android:summary="sets the seek interval for the seekback and seekforward buttons" android:title="Seek Interval" android:defaultValue="5000" android:key="@string/seek" From strings file: seek From an array file: Five seconds Fifteen seconds Thirty seconds Sixty seconds 5000 15000 30000 60000 let me know if you need to see more code to figure this one out Thanks in advance for any help that can be offered. I've worked over this issue now for a few hours and I'm burnt, a second pair of eyes on it would be very much appreciated. Arg, not sure how to get the code and plain text to format nicely here, even tried the options, like Code Sample, no luck AndroidCoder

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  • How to find out where a thread lock happend?

    - by SchlaWiener
    One of our company's Windows Forms application had a strange problem for several month. The app worked very reliable for most of our customers but on some PC's (mostly with a wireless lan connection) the app sometimes just didn't respond anymore. (You click on the UI and windows ask you to wait or kill the app). I wasn't able to track down the problem for a long time but now I figured out what happend. The app had this line of code // don't blame me for this. Wasn't my code :D Control.CheckForIllegalCrossThreadCalls = false and used some background threads to modify the controls. No I found a way to reproduce the application stopping responding bug on my dev machine and tracked it down to a line where I actually used Invoke() to run a task in the main thread. Me.Invoke(MyDelegate, arg1, arg2) Obviously there was a thread lock somewhere. After removing the Control.CheckForIllegalCrossThreadCalls = false statement and refactoring the whole programm to use Invoke() if modifying a control from a background thread, the problem is (hopefully) gone. However, I am wondering if there is a way to find such bugs without debugging every line of code (Even if I break into debugger after the app stops responding I can't tell what happend last, because the IDE didn't jump to the Invoke() statement) In other words: If my apps hangs how can I figure out which line of code has been executed last? Maybe even on the customers PC. I know VS2010 offers some backwards debugging feature, maybe that would be a solution, but currently I am using VS2008.

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  • convert an int to list of individual digitals more faster?

    - by user478514
    All, I want define an int(987654321) <= [9, 8, 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1] convertor, if the length of int number < 9, for example 10 the list will be [0,0,0,0,0,0,0,1,0] , and if the length 9, for example 9987654321 , the list will be [9, 9, 8, 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1] >>> i 987654321 >>> l [9, 8, 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1] >>> z = [0]*(len(unit) - len(str(l))) >>> z.extend(l) >>> l = z >>> unit [100000000, 10000000, 1000000, 100000, 10000, 1000, 100, 10, 1] >>> sum([x*y for x,y in zip(l, unit)]) 987654321 >>> int("".join([str(x) for x in l])) 987654321 >>> l1 = [int(x) for x in str(i)] >>> z = [0]*(len(unit) - len(str(l1))) >>> z.extend(l1) >>> l1 = z >>> l1 [9, 8, 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1] >>> a = [i//x for x in unit] >>> b = [a[x] - a[x-1]*10 for x in range(9)] >>> if len(b) = len(a): b[0] = a[0] # fix the a[-1] issue >>> b [9, 8, 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1] I tested above solutions but found those may not faster/simple enough than I want and may have a length related bug inside, anyone may share me a better solution for this kinds convertion? Thanks!

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  • ASP.NET MVC Dropdownlist retain the selected value in the browser after post

    - by MLabib
    I build a drop down list in my aspx page as following <%= Html.DropDownList("SelectedRole", new SelectList((IEnumerable)Model.roles, "RoleId", "RoleName", Model.SelectedRole), "")%> it works fine for first Get and the first default value is selected; then I select item from the drop down list and submit the form. the controller bind the values correctly, public ActionResult About([Bind] Roles r) { //r.SelectedRole = the selected value in the page. //Roles r = new Roles(); r.roles = new List<Role>(); r.roles.Add(new Role(1, "one")); r.roles.Add(new Role(2, "two")); r.roles.Add(new Role(3, "three")); r.roles.Add(new Role(4, "four")); r.SelectedRole = null; return View(r) } Then I nullify the selected item and return my view, but still the previous selected Item is selected (although I did nullify it) Any Idea if I am doing something wrong or it is a bug in MVC? I am using ASP.NET MVC 1 Thanks

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  • webpart context.session is null

    - by tbischel
    I've been using the session array to store a state variable for my webpart... so I have a property like this: public INode RootNode { get { return this.Context.Session["RootNode"] as INode; } set { this.Context.Session["RootNode"] = value as object; } } This usually works fine. I've discovered that sometimes, the context.session variable will be null. I'd like to know what are the conditions that cause the session to be null in the first place, and whats the best way to persist my object when this happens? Can I just assign a new HttpSessionState object to the context, or does that screw things up? Edit: Ok, so its not just the session that is null... the whole context is screwed up. When the webpart enters the init, the context is fine... but when it reaches the dropbox selectedindexchange postback event (the dropbox contains node id's to use to set the rootnode variable), the context contains mostly null properties. also, it only seems to happen when certain id's are selected. This looks more like some kind of weird bug on my end than a problem with my understanding of the session.

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  • jQuery slideDown() Makes Everything in Wrapper Shift

    - by Ben
    Hello everyone, I am currently creating a simple menu where there are several names of services and a user can click on one and jQuery will show it's corresponding paragraph describing it below it. My jQuery code is fine and does exactly what I want, however, I have one bug I have yet to iron out. Whenever I click one of these headings and it's description displays, everything in the wrapper for the page shifts to the left about 7 pixels in Firefox, it does the same thing is Google Chrome however I have not measured the amout but I am sure it is irrelevant. Anyways, I am using the slideToggle() command to show the hidden parragraph. I assume this is occuring because when the slideDown occurs it is somehow changing the width of everything and the "margin: 0 auto;" setting for the wrapper rule in my css is compensating for this change. Does anyone have any way I can remedy this problem? I have tried several other fixes I've found around the internet but to no avail. Here is what my code looks like, I put it on jsFiddle to make it easier to view: http://jsfiddle.net/vcH7m/ Feel free to edit it there if you like, or post what needs to be fixed here. Whatever is more convenient. Thank you very much for the help!

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  • Can't serve HTML5 video through PHP on Safari/Mac (5.0)

    - by JKS
    I'm encountering a strange bug in Safari where, when I serve MP4 video through PHP (to obfuscate the file beneath the document root with a token-based authentication system), Safari for some reason fires the <video>'s onerror event, and the video never loads (I can't get any useful information out of the event object sent to onerror — everything is undefined). When I access the PHP script directly (i.e., the video is not embedded in a page), the video controls appear momentarily before flashing to a QuickTime question mark. When I access the MP4 file directly, it works as expected. What's bizarre is that the embedded video works perfectly in the latest version of Chrome for Mac. Here are the headers when accessed through PHP: Connection:Keep-Alive Content-Disposition:inline; filename="test.mp4" Content-Length:5558749 Content-Type:video/mp4 Date:Tue, 22 Jun 2010 01:24:25 GMT Keep-Alive:timeout=10, max=29 Server:Apache/2.2.15 (CentOS) mod_ssl/2.2.15 0.9.8l DAV/2 mod_auth_passthrough/2.1 FrontPage/5.0.2.2635 X-Powered-By:PHP/5.2.13 And here are the headers when test.mp4 is accessed directly: Accept-Ranges:bytes Connection:Keep-Alive Content-Length:5558749 Content-Type:video/mp4 Date:Tue, 22 Jun 2010 01:26:45 GMT Etag:"1c04757-54d1dd-489944c5a6400" Keep-Alive:timeout=10, max=30 Last-Modified:Tue, 22 Jun 2010 01:25:36 GMT Server:Apache/2.2.15 (CentOS) mod_ssl/2.2.15 0.9.8l DAV/2 mod_auth_passthrough/2.1 FrontPage/5.0.2.2635 The only differing headers are: Accept-Ranges (which I don't think is necessary), Etag, Last-Modified, Content-Disposition, and X-Powered-By. Not only can Chrome handle the PHP-served video fine, but when I use the same script to load the MP4 through a Flash player, it also works fine. I just can't figure out what Safari is choking on. EDIT: Also, when I change the content disposition to "attachment", Safari will download the MP4 file just fine.

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  • MySQL query puzzle - finding what WOULD have been the most recent date

    - by Hank
    I've looked all over and haven't yet found an intelligent way to handle this, though I feel sure one is possible: One table of historical data has quarterly information: CREATE TABLE Quarterly ( unique_ID INT UNSIGNED NOT NULL, date_posted DATE NOT NULL, datasource TINYINT UNSIGNED NOT NULL, data FLOAT NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY (unique_ID)); Another table of historical data (which is very large) contains daily information: CREATE TABLE Daily ( unique_ID INT UNSIGNED NOT NULL, date_posted DATE NOT NULL, datasource TINYINT UNSIGNED NOT NULL, data FLOAT NOT NULL, qtr_ID INT UNSIGNED, PRIMARY KEY (unique_ID)); The qtr_ID field is not part of the feed of daily data that populated the database - instead, I need to retroactively populate the qtr_ID field in the Daily table with the Quarterly.unique_ID row ID, using what would have been the most recent quarterly data on that Daily.date_posted for that data source. For example, if the quarterly data is 101 2009-03-31 1 4.5 102 2009-06-30 1 4.4 103 2009-03-31 2 7.6 104 2009-06-30 2 7.7 105 2009-09-30 1 4.7 and the daily data is 1001 2009-07-14 1 3.5 ?? 1002 2009-07-15 1 3.4 && 1003 2009-07-14 2 2.3 ^^ then we would want the ?? qtr_ID field to be assigned '102' as the most recent quarter for that data source on that date, and && would also be '102', and ^^ would be '104'. The challenges include that both tables (particularly the daily table) are actually very large, they can't be normalized to get rid of the repetitive dates or otherwise optimized, and for certain daily entries there is no preceding quarterly entry. I have tried a variety of joins, using datediff (where the challenge is finding the minimum value of datediff greater than zero), and other attempts but nothing is working for me - usually my syntax is breaking somewhere. Any ideas welcome - I'll execute any basic ideas or concepts and report back.

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  • Telerik chart not loading correctly in new window (ajax issue?)

    - by Phillip Schmidt
    I have a page which contains user controls with Telerik Charts (grids also, but they work fine). From this page, the user can click on a button to be redirected to a "Printer-Friendly Version" type page, which opens a new window via javascript and goes through a slightly different view (for formatting and stuff), but the telerik code is all the same. The problem is, my Chart displays just fine in the original window, but the new window displays basically an empty chart with no data. This bug is only present in IE, and only applies to Charts. Grids work fine, for whatever reason. I'm thinking this is due to differences in script caching between browsers -- correct me if I'm wrong, I'm semi-new to client-directed web development. Anyway I read somewhere that Telerik has issues with loading data and/or js files when loaded via ajax, so maybe that's the problem? If so, how could I get around this? And if not, any ideas on what could be causing this issue? It's causing me a great deal of frustration, since a print preview page seems like it should be the easiest of jobs. Edit: The charts are being rendered as html (if somebody can explain how to render them as images, that would be awesome). And dev tools shows basically the same thing between chrome and IE. Whenever my web service goes back up ill WinMerge them and look for any peculiarities/differences between them. In the mean time, though, the "render as an image" concept sounds promising. That way I could just save the image from the first page, and insert it right into the print preview page, right?. And since it's a print-preview page, it's not going to need to be interactive or anything, so that'd work out nicely. Another (important) Edit: These are probably the culprit... And here is a little more detail on that: And here is a side-by-side of it working(in chrome) and not working (in IE):

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  • How do you tell that your unit tests are correct?

    - by Jacob Adams
    I've only done minor unit testing at various points in my career. Whenever I start diving into it again, it always troubles me how to prove that my tests are correct. How can I tell that there isn't a bug in my unit test? Usually I end up running the app, proving it works, then using the unit test as a sort of regression test. What is the recommended approach and/or what is the approach you take to this problem? Edit: I also realize that you could write small, granular unit tests that would be easy to understand. However, if you assume that small, granular code is flawless and bulletproof, you could just write small, granular programs and not need unit testing. Edit2: For the arguments "unit testing is for making sure your changes don't break anything" and "this will only happen if the test has the exact same flaw as the code", what if the test overfits? It's possible to pass both good and bad code with a bad test. My main question is what good is unit testing since if your tests can be flawed you can't really improve your confidence in your code, can't really prove your refactoring worked, and can't really prove that you met the specification?

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