Search Results

Search found 26908 results on 1077 pages for 'asynchronous wcf call'.

Page 394/1077 | < Previous Page | 390 391 392 393 394 395 396 397 398 399 400 401  | Next Page >

• installing paramiko

  - by fixxxer

  This may sound like a repeated question on SF, but I could not find a clear answer to it, yet.So. I installed Paramiko 1.7 with "setup.py install" command and while running the demo.py program, I got this error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\Documents and Settings\fixavier\Desktop\paramiko-1.7\demos\demo.py", line 33, in <module> import paramiko File "C:\Python26\lib\site-packages\paramiko\__init__.py", line 69, in <module> from transport import randpool, SecurityOptions, Transport File "C:\Python26\lib\site-packages\paramiko\transport.py", line 32, in <module> from paramiko import util File "C:\Python26\lib\site-packages\paramiko\util.py", line 31, in <module> from paramiko.common import * File "C:\Python26\lib\site-packages\paramiko\common.py", line 99, in <module> from Crypto.Util.randpool import PersistentRandomPool, RandomPool ImportError: No module named Crypto.Util.randpool I'm getting this error even after installing PyCrypto 2.1. On running test.py(which comes with the installation), I got the following error - Traceback (most recent call last): File "C:\Documents and Settings\fixavier\Desktop\pycrypto-2.0.1\pycrypto-2.0.1\test.py", line 18, in <module> from Crypto.Util import test File "C:\Documents and Settings\fixavier\Desktop\pycrypto-2.0.1\pycrypto-2.0.1\build/lib.win32-2.6\Crypto\Util\test.py", line 17, in <module> import testdata File "C:\Documents and Settings\fixavier\Desktop\pycrypto-2.0.1\pycrypto-2.0.1\test\testdata.py", line 450, in <module> from Crypto.Cipher import AES ImportError: cannot import name AES I don't have the confidence to go ahead and install AES after all this, for all I know I may get another ImportError! Please advice.Is it the way of installation thats problematic?

  Read the article

• Query Optimizing Request

  - by mithilatw

  I am very sorry if this question is structured in not a very helpful manner or the question itself is not a very good one! I need to update a MSSQL table call component every 10 minutes based on information from another table call materials_progress I have nearly 60000 records in component and more than 10000 records in materials_progress I wrote an update query to do the job, but it takes longer than 4 minutes to complete execution! Here is the query : UPDATE component SET stage_id = CASE WHEN t.required_quantity <= t.total_received THEN 27 WHEN t.total_ordered < t.total_received THEN 18 ELSE 18 END FROM ( SELECT mp.job_id, mp.line_no, mp.component, l.quantity AS line_quantity, CASE WHEN mp.component_name_id = 2 THEN l.quantity*2 ELSE l.quantity END AS required_quantity, SUM(ordered) AS total_ordered, SUM(received) AS total_received , c.component_id FROM line l LEFT JOIN component c ON c.line_id = l.line_id LEFT JOIN materials_progress mp ON l.job_id = mp.job_id AND l.line_no = mp.line_no AND c.component_name_id = mp.component_name_id WHERE mp.job_id IS NOT NULL AND (mp.cancelled IS NULL OR mp.cancelled = 0) AND (mp.manual_override IS NULL OR mp.manual_override = 0) AND c.stage_id = 18 GROUP BY mp.job_id, mp.line_no, mp.component, l.quantity, mp.component_name_id, component_id ) AS t WHERE component.component_id = t.component_id I am not going to explain the scenario as it too complex.. could somebody please please tell me what makes this query this much expensive and a way to get around it? Thank you very very much in advance!!!

  Read the article

• Google App Engine on Google Apps Domain

  - by Bob Ralian

  I'm having trouble getting my domain pointed to my website hosted with google app engine. Here's the background... take care to separate the concepts of "google apps" (domain hosting, email, etc.) and "google app engine" (website framework). I have a domain that's using Google Apps for Your Domain, let's call it company.com. So my login for my google apps account is [email protected]. I have a different domain that is aliased back to my google apps account, let's call it mycompany.com. It's been successfully aliased and registered with my primary google apps account using the cname method, and has updated mx records. We have a ton of domains, and I only want to use one "google apps" account to maintain them all. Now I have a website I've built using google app engine, and the url is effectively mycompany.appspot.com. I want to get mycompany.com to point to my website that currently resides at mycompany.appspot.com. There's a spot in the google app engine dashboard under application settings where you can add a domain. So I click there and enter mycompany.com and I get an error message saying that domain is not using google apps. If I back up to the page I submitted, there's a note saying I need to register the domain with google apps. So I click the link to do that and enter mycompany.com and I get an error message saying the domain has been registered and is in the process of ownership verification. But that process is already finished. So... what do I do? Does google app engine not support a domain that is only aliased to a primary google apps account? Does mycompany.com need to have its own primary google apps account?

  Read the article

• Delete array of size 1

  - by Arne

  This is possibly a candidate for a one-line answer. I would like know it anyway.. I am writing a simple circular buffer and for some reasons that are not important for the question I need to implement it using an array of doubles. In fact I have not investiated other ways to do it, but since an array is required anyway I have not spent much time on looking for alternatives. template<typename T> class CircularBuffer { public: CircularBuffer(unsigned int size); ~CircularBuffer(); void Resize(unsigned int new_size); ... private: T* buffer; unsigned int buffer_size; }; Since I need to have the buffer dynamically sized the buffer_size is neither const nor a template parameter. Now the question: During construction and in function Resize(int) I only require the size to be at least one, although a buffer of size one is effectively no longer a buffer. Of course using a simple double instead would be more appropriate but anyway. Now when deleting the internal buffer in the destructor - or in function resize for that matter - I need to delete the allocated memory. Question is, how? First candidate is of course delete[] buffer; but then again, if I have allocated a buffer of size one, that is if the pointer was aquired with buffer = new T[0], is it still appropriate to call delete[] on the pointer or do I need to call delete buffer; (without brackets) ? Thanks, Arne

  Read the article

• Sending Email from Lotus Notes using Excel and having Attachment & HTML body

  - by Anthony

  Right I'm trying to send an Email form an excel spreadsheet though lotus notes, it has an attachment and the body needs to be in HTML. I've got some code that from all I've read should allow me to do this however it doesn't. Without the HTML body the attachment will send, when I impliment a HTML body the Email still sends but the attachment dissapears, I've tried rearanging the order of the code cutting out bits that might not be needed but all is invain. (You need to reference Lotus Domino Objects to run this code. strEmail is the email addresses strAttach is the string location of the attachment strSubject is the subject text strBody is the body text ) Sub Send_Lotus_Email(strEmail, strAttach, strSubject, strBody) Dim noSession As Object, noDatabase As Object, noDocument As Object Dim obAttachment As Object, EmbedObject As Object Const EMBED_ATTACHMENT As Long = 1454 Set noSession = CreateObject("Notes.NotesSession") Set noDatabase = noSession.GETDATABASE("", "") 'If Lotus Notes is not open then open the mail-part of it. If noDatabase.IsOpen = False Then noDatabase.OPENMAIL 'Create the e-mail and the attachment. Set noDocument = noDatabase.CreateDocument Set obAttachment = noDocument.CreateRichTextItem("strAttach") Set EmbedObject = obAttachment.EmbedObject(EMBED_ATTACHMENT, "", strAttach) 'Add values to the created e-mail main properties. With noDocument .Form = "Memo" .SendTo = strEmail '.Body = strBody ' Where to send the body if HTML body isn't used. .Subject = strSubject .SaveMessageOnSend = True End With noSession.ConvertMIME = False Set Body = noDocument.CreateMIMEEntity("Body") ' MIMEEntity to support HTML Set stream = noSession.CreateStream Call stream.WriteText(strBody) ' Write the body text to the stream Call Body.SetContentFromText(stream, "text/html;charset=iso-8859-1", ENC_IDENTITY_8BIT) noSession.ConvertMIME = True 'Send the e-mail. With noDocument .PostedDate = Now() .Send 0, strEmail End With 'Release objects from the memory. Set EmbedObject = Nothing Set obAttachment = Nothing Set noDocument = Nothing Set noDatabase = Nothing Set noSession = Nothing End Sub If somone could point me in the right direction I'd be greatly appreciated. Edit: I've done a little more investigating and I've found an oddity, if i look at the sent folder the emails all have the paperclip icon of having an attachment even though when you go into the email even in the sent the HTML ones don't show an attachment.

  Read the article

• Google App Engine: JDO does the job, JPA does not

  - by Phuong Nguyen de ManCity fan

  I have setup a project using both Jdo and Jpa. I used Jpa Annotation to Declare my Entity. Then I setup my testCases based on LocalTestHelper (from Google App Engine Documentation). When I run the test, a call to makePersistent of Jdo:PersistenceManager is perfectly OK; a call to persist of Jpa:EntityManager raised an error: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: Type ("org.seamoo.persistence.jpa.model.ExampleModel") is not that of an entity but needs to be for this operation at org.datanucleus.jpa.EntityManagerImpl.assertEntity(EntityManagerImpl.java:888) at org.datanucleus.jpa.EntityManagerImpl.persist(EntityManagerImpl.java:385) Caused by: org.datanucleus.exceptions.NoPersistenceInformationException: The class "org.seamoo.persistence.jpa.model.ExampleModel" is required to be persistable yet no Meta-Data/Annotations can be found for this class. Please check that the Meta-Data/annotations is defined in a valid file location. at org.datanucleus.ObjectManagerImpl.assertClassPersistable(ObjectManagerImpl.java:3894) at org.datanucleus.jpa.EntityManagerImpl.assertEntity(EntityManagerImpl.java:884) ... 27 more How can it be the case? Below is the link to the source code of the maven projects that reproduce that problem: http://seamoo.com/jpa-bug-reproduce.tar.gz Execute the maven test goal over the parent pom you will notice that 3/4 tests from org.seamoo.persistence.jdo.JdoGenericDAOImplTest passed, while all tests from org.seamoo.persistence.jpa.JpaGenericDAOImplTest failed.

  Read the article

• Rails Autocompletion Issue - Rails 1.2.3 to 2.3.5

  - by Grant Sayer

  I have an issue with rails Autocompletion from some code that i've inherited from an old Rails 1.2.3 project that I'm porting to Rails 2.3.5. The issue revolves around javascript execution within the auto_complete helper :after_update_element. The scenario is: A user is presented with a popup form with a number of fields. In the first field as they enter text the auto_complete AJAX call occurs, returning a result, plus a series of other HTML data wrapped in <divs> so that the after_update_element call can iterate over the other data and fill in the remaining fields. The issue lies with the extraction of the other fields which works on IE, fails on Firefox. Here is the code: <%= text_field_with_auto_complete :item, :product_code, {:value => ""}, {:size => 40, :class => "input-text", :tabindex => 6, :select => 'code', :with => "element.name + '=' + escape(element.value) + '&supplier_id=' + $('item_supplier_id').value", :after_update_element => "function (ele, value) { $('item_supplier_id').value = Utilities.extract_value(value, 'supplier_id'); $('item_supplied_size').value = Utilities.extract_value(value, 'size')}"}%> Now the function Utilities is designed to grab the fields from the string of values and looks like: // // Extract a particular set of data from the autocomplete actions // Utilities.extract_value = function (value, className) { var result; var elements = document.getElementsByClassName(className, value); if (elements && elements.length == 1) { result = elements[0].innerHTML.unescapeHTML(); } return result; }; In Firefox the value of result is undefined

  Read the article

• Objective-C object release and allocation timing

  - by ryanjm.mp

  The code for this question is too long to be of any use. But I'm pretty sure my problem has to do with releasing a class. I have a helper class, ConnectionHelper.h/.m, that handles a NSURLConnection for me. Basically, I give it the URL I want and it returns the data (it happens to do a quick json parse on it too). It has a delegate which I set to the calling class (in this case: DownloadViewController). When it finishes the download, it calls [delegate didFinishParseOf:objectName withDictionary:dictionary];. Then in DownloadViewController I release ConnectionHelper and alloc a new one in order to download the next object. My problem is, I do this once, and then it creates the connection for the second one, and then my program just crashes. After this call: [[NSHTTPCookieStorage sharedHTTPCookieStorage] setCookieAcceptPolicy:NSHTTPCookieAcceptPolicyNever]; NSURLConnection *theConnection=[[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self]; Then I don't think any of the following methods are called: - (NSCachedURLResponse *)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection willCacheResponse:(NSCachedURLResponse *)cachedResponse - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveResponse:(NSURLResponse *)response - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveData:(NSData *)data - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didFailWithError:(NSError *)error - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveAuthenticationChallenge:(NSURLAuthenticationChallenge *)challenge So am I right in that I'm not releasing something? When I release it the first time, the dealloc function isn't being called. Is there a way I can "force" it to deallocate? Do I need to force it to? I didn't think it would matter since I allocating a new ConnectionHelper for the new call. How else would they overlap / conflict with each other? Thank you.

  Read the article

• .NET Remoting memory leak?

  - by PrimeTSS

  I have a Remoting Class as a Singleton <configuration> <system.runtime.remoting> <application> <service> <wellknown mode="Singleton" type="PTSSLinkClasses.PTSSLinkClientDesktopRemotable, PTSSLinkClasses" objectUri="PTSSLinkDesktop" /> </service> <channels> <channel ref="http" port="8901"/> </channels> </application> </system.runtime.remoting> </configuration> Its created within a "server" Service. Another client service consumes this remote object. The client is calling the remote object every .5 second using a timer (polling) (for testing) If the server service is stopped, so the remote object is not available, memory useage for the client service keeps increasing...... I have overwritten InitialLifetimeService to return a null public override Object InitializeLifetimeService() { return null; } If a remote object is not available does .net queue all the call requests to this object??? untill all the memory is consumed? How can I dected if the remote object is not available and stop trying to call the remote method?

  Read the article

• Com server build using Python on 64-bit Windows 7 machine

  - by Vijayendra Bapte

  Original post is here: http://mail.python.org/pipermail/python-win32/2010-December/011011.html I am using: OS: 64 bit Windows 7 Professional Python: python-2.7.1.amd64 Python win32 extensions: pywin32-214.win-amd64-py2.7 Py2exe: py2exe-0.6.9.win64-py2.7.amd64 I am trying to build icon overlay for Windows. It has worked fine on 32 bit Windows but not working on 64 bit Windows 7. Here are the Python modules I have created for testing: test_icon_overlay.py: ( http://mail.python.org/pipermail/python-win32/attachments/20101229/bb8c78a4/attachment-0002.obj ) com server created in Python for icon overlay which adds check mark overlay icon(C:\icons\test.ico) on "C:\icons" folder setup_VI.py: ( http://mail.python.org/pipermail/python-win32/attachments/20101229/bb8c78a4/attachment-0003.obj ) setup file which creates test_icon_overlay.dll for distribution. icons.zip: ( http://mail.python.org/pipermail/python-win32/attachments/20101229/bb8c78a4/attachment-0001.zip ) for testing you should extract icons.zip inside C:\ Icon overlay appears on C:\icons folder when I execute python test_icon_overlay.py on Windows command prompt and restarts explorer.exe. But its not working with the dll file created using setup_VI.py I have created dll file using python setup_VI.py py2exe and then tried to register it using regsvr32 test_icon_overlay.dll. Registration fails with windows error message Error 0x80040201 while registering shell extension. Then I turned on logger in Python27/Lib/site-packages/py2exe/boot_com_servers.py and here is the traceback which I am getting in comerror.txt on regsvr32 test_icon_overlay.dll PATH is ['C:\\root\\avalon\\module\\sync\\python\\src\\dist\\library.zip'] Traceback (most recent call last): File "boot_com_servers.py", line 37, in <module> pywintypes.error: (126, 'GetModuleFileName', 'The specified module could not be found.') Traceback (most recent call last): File "<string>", line 1, in <module> NameError: name 'DllRegisterServer' is not defined Looks like there might be a problem with win32api.GetModuleFileName(sys.frozendllhandle) or with the dll build on 64-bit Windows 7. Also, I saw that installation of pywin32-214.win-amd64-py2.7 on 64-bit Windows 7 finish with the error message: Snapshot close failed in file object destructor: sys.excepthook is missing lost sys.stderr Is there anything which I am doing wrong? Any help on this is highly appreciated.

  Read the article

• ASPX FormsAuthentication.RedirectFromLoginPage function is not working anymore

  - by Mike Webb

  Here is my issue. I have an ASPX web site and I have code in there to redirect from the login page with the call to "FormsAuthentication.RedirectFromLoginPage(username, false);" This sends the user from the root website folder to 'website/Admin/'. I have a 'default.aspx' page in 'website/Admin/' and the call to redirect works on a previous version of the website we have running currently, but the one that I am updating on a separate test server is not working. It gives me the error "Directory Listing Denied. This Virtual Directory does not allow contents to be listed." I have this in the config file: <authorization> <allow users="*" /> </authorization> under the "authentication" option and... <location path="Admin"> <system.web> <authorization> <deny users="?" /> </authorization> </system.web> </location> for the location of Admin. Also, there is no difference in the code between the web.config, Login.aspx, or the default.aspx files on the current server and the one on the test server, so I am confused as to why the redirect will not work on both. It even works in the Visual Studio server environment, for which the code is also identical. Any suggestions and help is appreciated.

  Read the article

• incorporate simple vimeo video request with jquery carousel

  - by Andrew Welch

  Hi, I did a tutorial for a jquery carousel that scrolls a ul. At the moment the ul is hardcoded, but I want to use a simple call to vimeo api to bring in the videos for a certain user into the carousel. I have uploaded my code here: http://www.welchcreative.co.uk/wp-content/infinitecarouselvimeo.zip My problem is that I don't know where I should put the code for the simple vimeo call, because at the moment, I think that the problem is that the vimeo videos load after the jquery stuff because it uses window.onload rather than document ready and I can't seem to work out how to put the two and two together. Ideally, 1. the code loads the vimeo videos first and puts them in a ul wiht the correct classes. 2. the carousel code then acts on the list above. in that order. I hope that isn't too vague. It's a pretty simple idea. I'm new to javascript and jquery. Thanks Andy

  Read the article

• Using complex data types from Java in Axis webservice

  - by Manuel Ferreria

  I am currently developing a Java app which handles a SOAP webservice. The problem lies after I parse the WSDL [the Parser object from Apache Axis does it for me], and I create the call. When I try to invoke it, I have to pass a Object[] to assign the parameters [taken from the Action of the WSDL]. A normal action is easy, but when I have custom datatypes, I can't get it to fill it out for me. I try to pass Object[]{ new Object { }}, but it assigns the first field instead. I can't pass it already processed, because it changes the '< ' to '--lt --gt', and the server doesn't recognize it'. This is a fragment of the WSDL. <s:element name="FERecuperaQTYRequest"> <s:complexType> <s:sequence> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1" name="argAuth" type="tns:FEAuthRequest" /> </s:sequence> </s:complexType> </s:element> <s:complexType name="FEAuthRequest"> <s:sequence> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1" name="Token" type="s:string" /> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1" name="Sign" type="s:string" /> <s:element minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1" name="cuit" type="s:long" /> </s:sequence> </s:complexType> And this is the troublesome Java Fragment QTY = (String) call.invoke ( new Object[]{ new Object[]{ tokenConexion.getToken (), tokenConexion.getSign (), tokenConexion.getCUIT () } });

  Read the article

• Java/Spring: Why won't Spring use the validator object I have configured?

  - by GMK

  I'm writing a web app with Java & Spring 2.5.6 and using annotations for bean validation. I can get the basic annotation validation working fine, and Spring will even call a custom Validator declared with @Validator on the target bean. But it always instantiates a brand new Validator object to do it. This is bad because the new validator has none of the injected dependencies it needs to run, and so it throws a null pointer exception on validate. I need one of two things and I don't know how to do either. Convince Spring to use the validator I have already configured. Convince Spring to honor the @Autowired annotations when it creates the new validator. The validator has the @Component annotation, like this. @Component public class AccessCodeBeanValidator implements Validator { @Autowired private MessageSource messageSource; Spring finds the validator in the component scan, injects the autowired dependencies, but then ignores it and creates a new one at validation time. The only thing that I can do at the moment is add a validator reference into the controller for each validator object and use that ref directly, instead of relying on the bean validation framework to call the validator for me. It looks like this. // first validate via the annotations on the bean beanValidator.validate(accessCodeBean, result); // then validate using the specific validator class acbValidator.validate(accessCodeBean, result); if (result.hasErrors()) { If anyone knows how to convince spring to use the existing validator, instead of creating a new one, or how to make it do the autowiring when it creates a new one, I'd love to know.

  Read the article

• Load external script dynamic, and access it, so I can trigger its domready function

  - by Didier

  I am trying to load the Zopim chat client. Normally it is included with a document write action. This causes it to be loaded before the domReady function is triggered, as it needs this to start itself. I want to load it later, and this works by using prototype (framework determined by Magento) to create a new script element and attaching it to the head. The script is loaded perfectly, but the domReady doesn't fire, so the script is never started. The script is a nameless class, by this I mean that all its functions are encapsulated in {} UPDATE: Sorry, I got it wrong, it is as self invoking function, the same syntax as the first answer suggest. (function C(){ })(); This function call when run sets up listening events for the domReady event under various browsers and then waits. When the domready event fires, it calls a function (that is within the self-invoked function) that starts everything. What I need, is a way to access this function somehow. END UPDATE Within that is a function named C. How can I call this function directly? Or put another way, how can I start an external javascript file that depends on domready going off, when that event doesn't happen? Can I load an external javascript file into a variable, so I can name the class? Can I access the nameless class {} somehow maybe via the script tag? Is there a way to alter the external file/javascript so I can have it look for another event, one that I can trigger? About the only solution I can think of at the moment is to create a iframe and load the script in that.

  Read the article

• Matlab crashes on library initialize when called from Java

  - by David Sauter

  Hello everyone. The setup I have is I'm using a Java application to call native C-code with JNI, which in turn starts up the MATLAB runtime and calls functions on it (I know there are other solutions to call MATLAB methods from Java). The problem is that the MATLAB engine crashes at some point during the initialization and I don't know what's causing it exactly. The crash causes my jvm to terminate, I assume it's some kind of memory corruption. The C++ code calling MATLAB functions that is actually crashing is JNIEXPORT void JNICALL some_jni_vodoo_initializeLibrary(JNIEnv* env, jclass thisClass) { try { if (!mclInitializeApplication(NULL, 0)) { THROW_EXCEPTION(env, "Could not initialize the application properly."); return; } if (!<library>Initialize()) { THROW_EXCEPTION(env, "Could not initialize the library."); return; } } ... The function <library>Initialize() crashes here, the Java error log reads Stack Trace: [0] jmi.dll:0x793f4175(0x7934cdca, 1, 0x7937e67c "à;.y`[email protected] in C:\BUILD_ARE..", 0x792d6a32) [1] jvm.dll:0x792df9a5(0xc0000005, 0x79356791, 0x4961b400 "Ð\8y", 0x6d8b29de) [2] jvm.dll:0x792e0431(0x8b515008, 0x70f0e8ce, 0x8b5ffffa, 0xc25d5ec6) ------------------------------------------------------------------------ Fatal Java Exception detected at Fri Apr 30 11:08:08 2010 ------------------------------------------------------------------------ Configuration: MATLAB Version: 7.8.0.347 (R2009a) MATLAB License: unknown Operating System: Microsoft Windows Vista Window System: Version 6.0 (Build 6002: Service Pack 2) Processor ID: x86 Family 6 Model 10 Stepping 5, GenuineIntel Virtual Machine: Java is not enabled Default Encoding: windows-1252 Java is not enabled I really have no idea what could be wrong. Is there not enough memory from the jvm? I guess the problem is somehow related to Java, since calling the JNI functions from a simple test C++ program works fine... Thanks

  Read the article

• Nested multithread operations tracing

  - by Sinix

  I've a code alike void ExecuteTraced(Action a, string message) { TraceOpStart(message); a(); TraceOpEnd(message); } The callback (a) could call ExecuteTraced again, and, in some cases, asynchronously (via ThreadPool, BeginInvoke, PLINQ etc, so I've no ability to explicitly mark operation scope). I want to trace all operation nested (even if they perform asynchronously). So, I need the ability to get last traced operation inside logical call context (there may be a lot of concurrent threads, so it's impossible to use lastTraced static field). There're CallContext.LogicalGetData and CallContext.LogicalSetData, but unfortunately, LogicalCallContext propagates changes back to the parent context as EndInvoke() called. Even worse, this may occure at any moment if EndInvoke() was called async. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/883486/endinvoke-changes-current-callcontext-why Also, there is Trace.CorrelationManager, but it based on CallContext and have all the same troubles. There's a workaround: use the CallContext.HostContext property which does not propagates back as async operation ended. Also, it does'nt clone, so the value should be immutable - not a problem. Though, it's used by HttpContext and so, workaround is not usable in Asp.Net apps. The only way I see is to wrap HostContext (if not mine) or entire LogicalCallContext into dynamic and dispatch all calls beside last traced operation. Help, please!

  Read the article

• IoC - Dynamic Composition of object instances

  - by Joshua Starner

  Is there a way using IoC, MEF [Imports], or another DI solution to compose dependencies on the fly at object creation time instead of during composition time? Here's my current thought. If you have an instance of an object that raises events, but you are not creating the object once and saving it in memory, you have to register the event handlers every time the object is created. As far as I can tell, most IoC containers require you to register all of the classes used in composition and call Compose() to make it hook up all the dependencies. I think this may be horrible design (I'm dealing with a legacy system here) to do this due to the overhead of object creation, dependency injection, etc... but I was wondering if it was possible using one of the emergent IoC technologies. Maybe I have some terminology mixed up, but my goal is to avoid writing a framework to "hook up all the events" on an instance of an object, and use something like MEF to [Export] handlers (dependencies) that adhere to a very specific interface and [ImportMany] them into an object instance so my exports get called if the assemblies are there when the application starts. So maybe all of the objects could still be composed when the application starts, but I want the system to find and call all of them as the object is created and destroyed.

  Read the article

• cells order changes in UITableView after reloadSections: method

  - by user304895

  I'm having a problem using a grouped UITableView, and after 3 days of searching, I didn't found the solution... Actually, I have a Grouped table, composed of two sections : The first section contains a UISegmentedControl with three buttons : button0, button1 and button2. When clicking on the button0, I want to show two cells in the second section, with embedded UITextField in each cell. When clicking on the button1, I want to show one cell in the second section with an embedded UITextField. When clicking on the button2, I have to show the camera in ModalView (I think it will be ok). I've also put placeholders in each UITextField. Each time a button is clicked, I call a pickOne: method in order to update my view. In this method, I construct a NSIndexSet with NSRange of (1, 1), and then I call the reloadSections: method from the UITableViewController with NSIndexSet as a parameter. When the view appears for the first time, everything is ok, but when I click many times on the buttons, the order of the cells changes (cells containing the two textFields for the button0), and the new placeHolders are written over the old ones. Even more, sometimes when I click on the button0, it shows me only the second cell... Do you have any idea ? or need some code ? Thank you :)

  Read the article

• Is it possible to handle User Defined Exception using JAX WS Dispatch API ?

  - by snowflake

  Hello, I'm performing dynamic webservices call using following code snippet: JAXBContext jc = getJAXBContext(requestClass, responseClass, jaxbContextExtraClasses); Dispatch<Object> dispatch = service.createDispatch(portQName, jc, Service.Mode.PAYLOAD); Object requestValue = getRequestValue(requestClass, pOrderedParameters); JAXBElement<?> request = new JAXBElement(new QName(serviceQNameStr, pOperationName), requestValue.getClass(), null, requestValue); Object tmpResponse = dispatch.invoke(request); Invocation works perfectly, except if I add a user defined exception on the service (a basic UserException extends java.lang.Exception). First I get: javax.xml.bind.UnmarshalException: unexpected element (uri:"http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/", local:"Fault"). Expected elements are <{http://my.namespace/}myMethod,<{http://my.namespace/}myResponse Then I added the UserException_Exception JAX-WS generated type to my JAXB Context, and then get: Caused by: com.sun.xml.bind.v2.runtime.IllegalAnnotationsException: 1 counts of IllegalAnnotationExceptions java.lang.StackTraceElement does not have a no-arg default constructor. this problem is related to the following location: at java.lang.StackTraceElement at public java.lang.StackTraceElement[] java.lang.Throwable.getStackTrace() at java.lang.Throwable at java.lang.Exception Only solution available I found are: dispatch directly a Soap message and handle Soap fault directly (this is the way Jboss JAX-WS implementation performs a standard JAX-WS call using services interfaces). This is not an available solution for me, I want to use a high level implementation (the more I get close to Soap message the less dynamic my code can be) usage of JAXBRIContext.ANNOTATION_READER, which is implementation specific and not an available solution for me, in order to annotate annotates java.lang.Exception as @XmlTransient The service with a user defined exception performs well using the JAX-WS generated standard client stubs and using a tool such Soap UI. Problem occurs in deserialization of the message when I have no user defined exception artifact in the JAXB context, and during invocation when I add those non JAXB compatible artifacts in the JAXB context. I'm usign Jboss WS webservice stack within Jboss 4.2.3.GA Any elegant solution to this problem is welcomed !

  Read the article

• Windows Series Phone 7 "Cloud"

  - by user275561

  I have been reading up on "Cloud computing" on here and still not getting it. Basically I want to develop for the WP7 http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff402531%28v=VS.92%29.aspx#AppPlat_Overview_Arch Now it mentions everything as being in the "Cloud". Is any server just a cloud? If i have a WCF service or wsdl on my server. Can I consider myself that "Cloud"? Or is there something that a server emits that checks whether or not it is a cloud?

  Read the article

• Python interface to PayPal - urllib.urlencode non-ASCII characters failing

  - by krys

  I am trying to implement PayPal IPN functionality. The basic protocol is as such: The client is redirected from my site to PayPal's site to complete payment. He logs into his account, authorizes payment. PayPal calls a page on my server passing in details as POST. Details include a person's name, address, and payment info etc. I need to call a URL on PayPal's site internally from my processing page passing back all the params that were passed in abovem and an additional one called 'cmd' with a value of '_notify-validate'. When I try to urllib.urlencode the params which PayPal has sent to me, I get a: While calling send_response_to_paypal. Traceback (most recent call last): File "<snip>/account/paypal/views.py", line 108, in process_paypal_ipn verify_result = send_response_to_paypal(params) File "<snip>/account/paypal/views.py", line 41, in send_response_to_paypal params = urllib.urlencode(params) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/urllib.py", line 1261, in urlencode v = quote_plus(str(v)) UnicodeEncodeError: 'ascii' codec can't encode character u'\ufffd' in position 9: ordinal not in range(128) I understand that urlencode does ASCII encoding, and in certain cases, a user's contact info can contain non-ASCII characters. This is understandable. My question is, how do I encode non-ASCII characters for POSTing to a URL using urllib2.urlopen(req) (or other method) Details: I read the params in PayPal's original request as follows (the GET is for testing): def read_ipn_params(request): if request.POST: params= request.POST.copy() if "ipn_auth" in request.GET: params["ipn_auth"]=request.GET["ipn_auth"] return params else: return request.GET.copy() The code I use for sending back the request to PayPal from the processing page is: def send_response_to_paypal(params): params['cmd']='_notify-validate' params = urllib.urlencode(params) req = urllib2.Request(PAYPAL_API_WEBSITE, params) req.add_header("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded") response = urllib2.urlopen(req) status = response.read() if not status == "VERIFIED": logging.warn("PayPal cannot verify IPN responses: " + status) return False return True Obviously, the problem only arises if someone's name or address or other field used for the PayPal payment does not fall into the ASCII range.

  Read the article

• pushViewController Not Displaying UIView/Nib with tabbar and nav bar

  - by james

  I'm relatively new to objective c but not programming and am stuck with my iphone app. I created a nav based app with both a navbar and a tab bar controller. I set the tab bar as the root controller. I'm able to switch between each tab without any issues to various UIViews and UITableViews. My issue is that in one of my UITableViews that I call from the TabBarController, didSelectRowAtIndexPath function is suppose to display a new UIView. The below code does not give any errors and runs fine but does not show the new Nib. if(newViewController == nil) { NSLog(@"yes nil"); BookViewController *aNewViewController = [[BookViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"BookOptionView" bundle:nil]; self.newViewController = aNewViewController; [aNewViewController release]; } BookAppDelegate *delegate = (BookAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; [delegate.appNavBar pushViewController:newViewController animated:YES]; Now when I do the below, it works fine but it gets rid of the nav and tab which I'm assuming because its a modal call instead of pushing the view controller. BookViewController *screen = [[BookViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"BookOptionView" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; screen.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleCoverVertical; [self presentModalViewController:screen animated:YES]; [screen release]; Any ideas why I can't get the View Controller to push correctly? In my application delegate file, I declared an AppNavBarController object (inherit from UINavigationController) called appNavBar. Any help would be appreciated!

  Read the article

• Get id when inserting new row using TableAdapter.Update on a file based database

  - by phq

  I have a database table with one field, called ID, being an auto increment integer. Using a TableAdapter I can read and modify existing rows as well as create new ones. However if I try to modify a newly inserted row I get an DBConcurrencyException: OleDbConnection conn = new OleDbConnection(@"Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=Shift.mdb;Persist Security Info=True"); ShiftDataSetTableAdapters.ShiftTableAdapter shiftTA = new ShiftDataSetTableAdapters.ShiftTableAdapter(); shiftTA.Connection = conn; ShiftDataSet.ShiftDataTable table = new ShiftDataSet.ShiftDataTable(); ShiftDataSet.ShiftRow row = table.NewShiftRow(); row.Name = "life"; table.Rows.Add(row); shiftTA.Update(row); // row.ID == -1 row.Name = "answer"; // <-- all fine up to here shiftTA.Update(row); // DBConcurrencyException: 0 rows affected Separate question, is there any static type of the NewShiftRow() method I can use so that I don't have to create table everytime I want to insert a new row. I guess the problem in the code comes from row.ID that is still -1 after the first Update() call. The Insert is successful and in the database the row has a valid value of ID. How can I get that ID so that I can continue with the second Update call? Update: IT looks like this could have been done automatically using this setting. However according to the answer on msdn social, OLEDB drivers do not support this feature. Not sure where to go from here, use something else than oledb? Update: Tried SQLCompact but discovered that it had the same limitation, it does not support multiple statements. Final question: is there any simple(single file based) database that would allow you to get the values of a inserted row.

  Read the article

• J2ME web service client

  - by Wasim

  Hi all , I started to use the Netbeans 6.8 web service client wizard . I created a web service (.Net web service) witch return an object Data. The Data class , contains fileds with many types : int , string , double , Person object and array of Person object. I created the J2ME client code through the wizard and every thing seems ok . I see in the Netbeans project the service and the stub . When I try to call my web service method , say Data GetData() ; Then I have a problem with parsing the returned data from the web service and the client data object . As follows : After finishing to call the web service method , in the stub code : public Data helloWorld() throws java.rmi.RemoteException { Object inputObject[] = new Object[] { }; Operation op = Operation.newInstance( _qname_operation_HelloWorld, _type_HelloWorld, _type_HelloWorldResponse ); _prepOperation( op ); op.setProperty( Operation.SOAPACTION_URI_PROPERTY, "http://tempuri.org/HelloWorld" ); Object resultObj; try { resultObj = op.invoke( inputObject ); } catch( JAXRPCException e ) { Throwable cause = e.getLinkedCause(); if( cause instanceof java.rmi.RemoteException ) { throw (java.rmi.RemoteException) cause; } throw e; } return Data_fromObject((Object[])resultObj); } private static Data Data_fromObject( Object obj[] ) { if(obj == null) return null; Data result = new Data(); result.setIntData(((Integer )obj[0]).intValue()); result.setStringData((String )obj[1]); result.setDoubleData(((Double )obj[2]).doubleValue()); return result; } I debug the code and in Run time resultObj has one element witc is an array of the Data object , so in parsing the values in the Data_fromObject method it expect many cells like we see in the code obj[0] , obj[1] , obj [2] but in realtime it has obj[0][0] , obj[0][1] , obj[0][2] What can be the problem , how can check the code generation issue ? Is it a problem with the web service side. Please help. Thanks in advance...

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 390 391 392 393 394 395 396 397 398 399 400 401  | Next Page >