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• Run Visual Studio with Administrator Rights using app.manifest [ExecutionLevel]

  - by srk

  I need to change the key in a registry in order to restrict the user from using Task Manager, since it is an Kiosk application. My code for changing the registry is working perfectly for Administrator account. But my application is going to be run in normal user account. When i tried to run my application in normal user account, i get the below error : DisableTaskManagerSystem.UnauthorizedAccessException: Access to the registry key 'HKey_Current_User\Software\Mictrosoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Policies\System' is denied. at Microsoft.win32.RegistryKey.win32Error(int32 errorcode, String str) So i need to run my application with all administrator privileges. For which i am using the below app.manifest. But some how i getting the same error. How to overcome this ? Code in app.manifest : <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes"?> <assembly xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1" manifestVersion="1.0"> <ms_asmv2:trustInfo xmlns:ms_asmv2="urn:schemas-microsoft- com:asm.v2"> <ms_asmv2:security> <ms_asmv2:requestedPrivileges> <ms_asmv2:requestedExecutionLevel level="requireAdministrator" uiAccess="true"> </ms_asmv2:requestedExecutionLevel> </ms_asmv2:requestedPrivileges> </ms_asmv2:security> </ms_asmv2:trustInfo> </assembly>

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• Using reflection to find all linq2sql tables and ensure they match the database

  - by Jake Stevenson

  I'm trying to use reflection to automatically test that all my linq2sql entities match the test database. I thought I'd do this by getting all the classes that inherit from DataContext from my assembly: var contexttypes = Assembly.GetAssembly(typeof (BaseRepository<,>)).GetTypes().Where( t => t.IsSubclassOf(typeof(DataContext))); foreach (var contexttype in contexttypes) { var context = Activator.CreateInstance(contexttype); var tableProperties = type.GetProperties().Where(t=> t.PropertyType.Name == typeof(ITable<>).Name); foreach (var propertyInfo in tableProperties) { var table = (propertyInfo.GetValue(context, null)); } } So far so good, this loops through each ITable< in each datacontext in the project. If I debug the code, "table" is properly instantiated, and if I expand the results view in the debugger I can see actual data. BUT, I can't figure out how to get my code to actually query that table. I'd really like to just be able to do table.FirstOrDefault() to get the top row out of each table and make sure the SQL fetch doesn't fail. But I cant cast that table to be anything I can query. Any suggestions on how I can make this queryable? Just the ability to call .Count() would be enough for me to ensure the entities don't have anything that doesn't match the table columns.

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• Auto increment with a Unit Of Work

  - by Derick

  Context I'm building a persistence layer to abstract different types of databases that I'll be needing. On the relational part I have mySQL, Oracle and PostgreSQL. Let's take the following simplified MySQL tables: CREATE TABLE Contact ( ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(30) ); CREATE TABLE Address ( ID varchar(15), CONTACT_ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(50) ); I use code to generate system specific alpha numeric unique ID's fitting 15 chars in this case. Thus, if I insert a Contact record with it's Addresses I have my generated Contact.ID and Address.CONTACT_IDs before committing. I've created a Unit of Work (amongst others) as per Martin Fowler's patterns to add transaction support. I'm using a key based Identity Map in the UoW to track the changed records in memory. It works like a charm for the scenario above, all pretty standard stuff so far. The question scenario comes in when I have a database that is not under my control and the ID fields are auto-increment (or in Oracle sequences). In this case I do not have the db generated Contact.ID beforehand, so when I create my Address I do not have a value for Address.CONTACT_ID. The transaction has not been started on the DB session since all is kept in the Identity Map in memory. Question: What is a good approach to address this? (Avoiding unnecessary db round trips) Some ideas: Retrieve the last ID: I can do a call to the database to retrieve the last Id like: SELECT Auto_increment FROM information_schema.tables WHERE table_name='Contact'; But this is MySQL specific and probably something similar can be done for the other databases. If do this then would need to do the 1st insert, get the ID and then update the children (Address.CONTACT_IDs) – all in the current transaction context.

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• ASP.NET MVC 2 user input to SQL 2008 Database problems

  - by Rob

  After my publish in VS2010 the entire website loads and pulls data from the database perfectly. I can even create new users through the site with the correct key code, given out to who needs access. I have two connection strings in my web.config file The first: <add xdt:Transform="SetAttributes" xdt:Locator="Match(name)" name="EveModelContainer" connectionString="metadata=res://*/Models.EdmModel.EveModel.csdl|res://*/Models.EdmModel.EveModel.ssdl|res://*/Models.EdmModel.EveModel.msl;provider=System.Data.SqlClient;provider connection string=&quot;Data Source=localhost;Initial Catalog=fleet;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=fleet;Password=****&quot;" providerName="System.Data.EntityClient" /> The second: <add xdt:Transform="SetAttributes" xdt:Locator="Match(name)" name="ApplicationServices" connectionString="Data Source=localhost;Initial Catalog=fleet;Persist Security Info=True;User ID=fleet;Password=****;MultipleActiveResultSets=True" /> The first one is the one that is needed to post data with the main application, EveModelContainer. Everything else is pulled using the standard ApplicationServices connection. Do you see anything wrong with my connectionstring? I'm at a complete loss here. The site works perfectly on my friends server and not on mine... Could it be a provider issue? And if I go to iis 7's manager console, and click .net users I get a pop up message saying the custom provider isn't a trusted provider do I want to allow it to run at a higher trust level. I'm at the point where I think its either my string or this trusted provider error... but I have no clue how to add to the trusted provider list... Thank you in advance!!!

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• Newbie: Render RGB to GTK widget -- howto?

  - by Billy Pilgrim

  Hi All, Big picture: I want to render an RGB image via GTK on a linux box. I'm a frustrated GTK newbie, so please forgive me. I assume that I should create a Drawable_area in which to render the image -- correct? Do I then have to create a graphics context attached to that area? How? my simple app (which doesn't even address the rgb issue yet is this: int main(int argc, char** argv) { GdkGC * gc = NULL; GtkWidget * window = NULL; GtkDrawingArea * dpage = NULL; GtkWidget * page = NULL; gtk_init( &argc, & argv ); window = gtk_window_new( GTK_WINDOW_TOPLEVEL ); page = gtk_drawing_area_new( ); dpage = GTK_DRAWING_AREA( page ); gtk_widget_set_size_request( page, PAGE_WIDTH, PAGE_HEIGHT ); gc = gdk_gc_new( GTK_DRAWABLE( dpage ) ); gtk_widget_show( window ); gtk_main(); return (EXIT_SUCCESS); } my dpage is apparently not a 'drawable' (though it is a drawing area). I am confused as to a) how do I get/create the graphics context which is required in subsequent function calls? b) am I close to a solution, or am I so completely *#&@& wrong that there is no hope c) a baby steps tutorial. (I started with hello world as my base, so I got that far). any and all help appreciated. bp

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• How to change CSS color values in real-time off a javascript slider?

  - by bflora

  I'm making a page where the user gets a javascript slider that goes from 0 to 100 and can use it to set the opacity of a div on the page. I want the opacity of that div to change in real-time as they work the slider. I've not done this before. What's the best approach? There cursor in the slider displays the slider's current value as you move it. It seems to be that I just need to find a way to display that value in any arbitrary other place on the page so I can display it in the style settings for the div. The .js file that generates the slider has a line that (I think) is setting the current value in the cursor: $(this).children(".ui-slider-handle", context).html(parseInt(settings[index]['default'])); TO get this changing number to display somewhere else at the same time, do I just need to add a div somewhere and then add a line like this? $("#newDivId").children(".ui-slider-handle", context).html(parseInt(settings[index]['default'])); That seems like it would give me the number showing up in a div. How then would I get it into a form I could put into the style settings for a div? If this was a php variable, I would do something like this, style="opacity:<?php print $value ?>;" What would be the .js equivalent?

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• AS3 ExternalInterface works in IE but not Firefox

  - by user567602

  Hi all, I am trying to execute an AS3 function from my javascript using the ExternalInterface. Seems to work fine in IE, but firefox is always returning javascript error method undefined. I have been Googling this for ages and eliminated the following possibilities: 1) Some people say you need to have an embed tag inside your object tag, so added one - no luck. 2) Many people say that you need to make sure that your flash is loaded before calling the javascript. Well my call is after pressing a link on the page. I am always using the flash application first and only pressing the link at the end. 3) Then I thought that maybe it is a security problem so added the following: try { ExternalInterface.addCallback("test", testing); trace("added callback"); } catch (error:SecurityError) { trace("Security Error:"+error.message); } catch (error:Error) { trace("Error:"+error.message); } But it prints out "added callback" :( Anyone else have any ideas what else could I possible try? I am running the latest Firefox and FlashPlayer 10. Regards, Olli

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• Paramiko ssh output stops at --more--

  - by Anesh

  The output stops printing at --more-- any idea how to get the end of the output >>> import paramiko >>> ssh = paramiko.SSHClient() >>> ssh.set_missing_host_key_policy(paramiko.AutoAddPolicy()) >>> conn=ssh.connect("ipaddress",username="user", password="pass") >>> channel = ssh.invoke_shell() >>> channel.send("en\n") 3 >>> channel.send("password\n") 9 >>> channel.send("show security local-user-list\n") 30 >>> results = '' >>> channel.send("\n") 1 >>> results += channel.recv(5000) >>> print results bluecoat>en Password: bluecoat#show security local-user-list Default List: local_user_database Append users loaded from file to default list: false local_user_database Lockout parameters: Max failed attempts: 60 Lockout duration: 3600 Reset interval: 7200 Users: Groups: admin_local Lockout parameters: Max failed attempts: 60 Lockout duration: 3600 Reset interval: 7200 Users: <username> Hashed Password: Enabled: true Groups: <username> Hashed Password: Enabled: true **--More--** As you can see above the output stops printing at --more-- any idea how to get the output to print till the end.

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• No GPS Update retrieved? Problem in Code?

  - by poeschlorn

  Hello mates, I've got a serious problem with my GPS on my Nexus One: I wrote a kind of hello world with GPS, but the Toast that should be displayed isn't :( I don't know what I'm doing wrong...maybe you could help me getting this work. Here's my code: package gps.test; import android.app.Activity; import android.content.Context; import android.location.Location; import android.location.LocationListener; import android.location.LocationManager; import android.os.Bundle; import android.widget.Toast; public class GPS extends Activity { private LocationManager lm; private LocationListener locationListener; /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); // ---use the LocationManager class to obtain GPS locations--- lm = (LocationManager) getSystemService(Context.LOCATION_SERVICE); locationListener = new MyLocationListener(); lm.requestLocationUpdates(LocationManager.GPS_PROVIDER, 100, 1, locationListener); } private class MyLocationListener implements LocationListener { @Override public void onLocationChanged(Location loc) { if (loc != null) { Toast.makeText( getBaseContext(), "Location changed : Lat: " + loc.getLatitude() + " Lng: " + loc.getLongitude(), Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); } } @Override public void onProviderDisabled(String provider) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override public void onProviderEnabled(String provider) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } @Override public void onStatusChanged(String provider, int status, Bundle extras) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } } } Theoretically there should be a new toast every 100 milliseconds, shouldn't it? Or at least, when I change my position by one meter!? I've no idea why it doesn't. I must admit I'm new to the topic, maybe I've missed something? It would be great if you could give me a hint :) nice greetings, poeschlorn

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• LINQ to SQL: Reusable expression for property?

  - by coenvdwel

  Pardon me for being unable to phrase the title more exact. Basically, I have three LINQ objects linked to tables. One is Product, the other is Company and the last is a mapping table Mapping to store what Company sells which products and by which ID this Company refers to this Product. I am now retrieving a list of products as follows: var options = new DataLoadOptions(); options.LoadWith<Product>(p => p.Mappings); context.LoadOptions = options; var products = ( from p in context.Products select new { ProductID = p.ProductID, //BackendProductID = p.BackendProductID, BackendProductID = (p.Mappings.Count == 0) ? "None" : (p.Mappings.Count > 1) ? "Multiple" : p.Mappings.First().BackendProductID, Description = p.Description } ).ToList(); This does a single query retrieving the information I want. But I want to be able to move the logic behind the BackendProductID into the LINQ object so I can use the commented line instead of the annoyingly nested ternary operator statements for neatness and re-usability. So I added the following property to the Product object: public string BackendProductID { get { if (Mappings.Count == 0) return "None"; if (Mappings.Count > 1) return "Multiple"; return Mappings.First().BackendProductID; } } The list is still the same, but it now does a query for every single Product to get it's BackendProductID. The code is neater and re-usable, but the performance now is terrible. What I need is some kind of Expression or Delegate but I couldn't get my head around writing one. It always ended up querying for every single product, still. Any help would be appreciated!

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• How can I serve static content with Glassfish embedded?

  - by Andy Fiedler

  I'm trying to setup Glassfish embedded with a WAR project that implements a REST API and then some static Javascript content that calls it. I got the WAR to deploy and the REST API is available with a context root of "/Users". How can I use Glassfish to serve static content with a context root of "/". So for example, if the user requests http://myserver.com/Users/some-REST-call it routes to the WAR application and http://myserver.com/somefile.js serves a static file from some directory? Here's my Main class file so far: public class Main{ public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { String port = System.getenv("PORT"); port = port != null ? port : "8080"; GlassFishProperties gfProps = new GlassFishProperties(); gfProps.setPort("http-listener", Integer.parseInt(port)); GlassFish glassfish = GlassFishRuntime.bootstrap().newGlassFish(gfProps); glassfish.start(); Deployer deployer = glassfish.getDeployer(); deployer.deploy(new File("target/Users-Rest.war")); } } Thanks a ton for your help!

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• Entity Framework - Many to Many Subquery

  - by Jorin

  I asked a question about this previously but my database structure has changed, and while it made other things simpler, now this part is more complicated. Here is the previous question. At the time, my EF Context had a UsersProjects object because there were other properties. Now that I've simplified that table, it is just the keys, so all my EF context knows about is Users and Projects and the M2M relationship between them. There is no more UsersProjects as far as EF knows. So my goal is to say "show me all the users who are working on projects with me." in SQL, this would go something like: SELECT * FROM Users INNER JOIN UsersProjects ON Users.ID=UsersProjects.UserID WHERE ProjectID IN (SELECT ProjectID FROM UsersProjects WHERE UserID=@UserID) and I started in EF with something like this: var myProjects = (from p in edmx.Projects where p.Users.Contains(edmx.Users.FirstOrDefault(u => u.Email == UserEmail)) orderby p.Name select p).ToList(); var associatedUsers = (from u in edmx.Users where myProjects.Contains(?????????) //where myProjects.Any(????????) select u); The trick is finding what to put in the ????????. Anyone help here?

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• Cookie blocked/not saved in IFRAME in Internet Explorer

  - by Piskvor

  I have two websites, let's say they're example.com and anotherexample.net. On anotherexample.net/page.html, I have an IFRAME SRC="http://example.com/someform.asp". That IFRAME displays a form for the user to fill out and submit to http://example.com/process.asp. When I open the form ("someform.asp") in its own browser window, all works well. However, when I load someform.asp as an IFRAME in IE 6 or IE 7, the cookies for example.com are not saved. In Firefox this problem doesn't appear. For testing purposes, I've created a similar setup on http://newmoon.wz.cz/test/page.php . example.com uses cookie-based sessions (and there's nothing I can do about that), so without cookies, process.asp won't execute. How do I force IE to save those cookies? Results of sniffing the HTTP traffic: on GET /someform.asp response, there's a valid per-session Set-Cookie header (e.g. Set-Cookie: ASPKSJIUIUGF=JKHJUHVGFYTTYFY), but on POST /process.asp request, there is no Cookie header at all. Edit3: some AJAX+serverside scripting is apparently capable to sidestep the problem, but that looks very much like a bug, plus it opens a whole new set of security holes. I don't want my applications to use a combination of bug+security hole just because it's easy. Edit: the P3P policy was the root cause, full explanation below.

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• How can i fetch the large image from url

  - by Kutbi

  i used below code to fetch the image from url.but its not working for large image.. i missing something to add for that type of image to fetch. imgView = (ImageView)findViewById(R.id.ImageView01); imgView.setImageBitmap(loadBitmap("http://www.360technosoft.com/mx4.jpg")); //imgView.setImageBitmap(loadBitmap("http://sugardaddydiaries.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/12/how_do_i_get_sugar_daddy.jpg")); //setImageDrawable("http://sugardaddydiaries.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/12/holding-money-copy.jpg"); //Drawable drawable = LoadImageFromWebOperations("http://www.androidpeople.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/03/android.png"); //imgView.setImageDrawable(drawable); /* try { ImageView i = (ImageView)findViewById(R.id.ImageView01); Bitmap bitmap = BitmapFactory.decodeStream((InputStream)new URL("http://sugardaddydiaries.com/wp-content/uploads/2010/12/holding-money-copy.jpg").getContent()); i.setImageBitmap(bitmap); } catch (MalformedURLException e) { System.out.println("hello"); } catch (IOException e) { System.out.println("hello"); }*/ } protected Drawable ImageOperations(Context context, String string, String string2) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub try { InputStream is = (InputStream) this.fetch(string); Drawable d = Drawable.createFromStream(is, "src"); return d; } catch (MalformedURLException e) { e.printStackTrace(); return null; } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); return null; } }

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• Validate a XDocument against schema without the ValidationEventHandler (for use in a HTTP handler)

  - by Vaibhav Garg

  Hi everyone, (I am new to Schema validation) Regarding the following method, System.Xml.Schema.Extensions.Validate( ByVal source As System.Xml.Linq.XDocument, ByVal schemas As System.Xml.Schema.XmlSchemaSet, ByVal validationEventHandler As System.Xml.Schema.ValidationEventHandler, ByVal addSchemaInfo As Boolean) I am using it as follows inside a IHttpHandler - Try Dim xsd As XmlReader = XmlReader.Create(context.Server.MapPath("~/App_Data/MySchema.xsd")) Dim schemas As New XmlSchemaSet() : schemas.Add("myNameSpace", xsd) : xsd.Close() myXDoxumentOdj.Validate(schemas, Function(s As Object, e As ValidationEventArgs) SchemaError(s, e, context), True) Catch ex1 As Threading.ThreadAbortException 'manage schema error' Return Catch ex As Exception 'manage other errors' End Try The handler- Function SchemaError(ByVal s As Object, ByVal e As ValidationEventArgs, ByVal c As HttpContext) As Object If c Is Nothing Then c = HttpContext.Current If c IsNot Nothing Then HttpContext.Current.Response.Write(e.Message) HttpContext.Current.Response.End() End If Return New Object() End Function This is working fine for me at present but looks very weak. I do get errors when I feed it bad XML. But i want to implement it in a more elegant way. This looks like it would break for large XML etc. Is there some way to validate without the handler so that I get the document validated in one go and then deal with errors? To me it looks Async such that the call to Validate() would pass and some non deterministic time later the handler would get called with the result/errors. Is that right? Thanks and sorry for any goofy mistakes :).

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• How to fix Java Image Fetcher error ?

  - by Frank

  My code looks like this : private static JFileChooser fc; if (fc==null) { fc=new JFileChooser(Image_Dir); fc.addChoosableFileFilter(new Image_Filter()); // Add a custom file filter and disable the default (Accept All) file filter. fc.setAcceptAllFileFilterUsed(false); fc.setAccessory(new Image_Preview(fc)); // Add the preview pane. } int returnVal=fc.showDialog(JFileChooser_For_Image.this,"Get Image"); // Show it. After I select an image from the panel, I got the following error message : Exception in thread "Image Fetcher 0" java.lang.UnsatisfiedLinkError: Native Library C:\Program Files (x86)\Java\jre6\bin\jpeg.dll already loaded in another classloader at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadLibrary0(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadLibrary(Unknown Source) at java.lang.Runtime.loadLibrary0(Unknown Source) at java.lang.System.loadLibrary(Unknown Source) at sun.security.action.LoadLibraryAction.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at sun.awt.image.JPEGImageDecoder.<clinit>(Unknown Source) at sun.awt.image.InputStreamImageSource.getDecoder(Unknown Source) at sun.awt.image.FileImageSource.getDecoder(Unknown Source) at sun.awt.image.InputStreamImageSource.doFetch(Unknown Source) at sun.awt.image.ImageFetcher.fetchloop(Unknown Source) at sun.awt.image.ImageFetcher.run(Unknown Source) When I run it from an executable Jar file, it works fine, but after I wrapped it into an exe file, I got the above error, why ? How to fix it ?

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• adding a token onto a webservice or wcf call

  - by duncanUK

  I have an httphandler which I am using to log the http soap request and response for each webservice that is called from my application as a comms log. i would like to inject a token ont he 1st call (possibly the 1st call to invoke the service that is being logged) and then be able to track all subsequent webservice calls run in the same context with this token so i can tie the subsequent calls back up to the original call. so for example. main webservice -> 2nd web service -> another web service [token] [token] [token] -> nth web service [token] I would like to inject the token on the first call to the main webservice (http handler checks if no token, add it), I would like to use the same http handler to intercept each call to the subsequent webservices and pass on the token if it exists already (the job of the httphandler is to log the in/out soap with the token to reference with. I have managed to inject the first token, but my problem is how do I add the token on the subsequent calls.. can I make it stick on the same context or session? My worry is that when we call a new webservice, we create a whole new proxy/http request which will not inhrit the token... or will it?! Ideally I would like it to persist on the http header as I am setting the token as a header at the moment? has anyone got any ideas or a better way of doing this? I would be most greatful for you comments!

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• WCF Multiple Service Configuration Issue

  - by Goober

  Scenario Ignoring that fact that some of the settings might be wrong and inconsistent. Why does the program fail to compile when I try and put these 2 separate configurations for WCF Services into the same APP.CONFIG file? One was writen by myself and another by a friend, yet I cannot get the application to compile. What have I missed? ERROR Type Initialization Exception CODE <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <!--START Service 1 CONFIGURATION--> <bindings> <netTcpBinding> <binding name="tcpServiceEndPoint" closeTimeout="00:01:00" openTimeout="00:01:00" receiveTimeout="00:10:00" sendTimeout="00:01:00" transactionFlow="false" transferMode="Buffered" transactionProtocol="OleTransactions" hostNameComparisonMode="StrongWildcard" listenBacklog="10" maxBufferPoolSize="524288" maxBufferSize="65536" maxConnections="10" maxReceivedMessageSize="65536"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="32" maxStringContentLength="8192" maxArrayLength="16384" maxBytesPerRead="4096" maxNameTableCharCount="16384" /> <reliableSession ordered="true" inactivityTimeout="00:05:00" enabled="true" /> <security mode="None"> <transport clientCredentialType="Windows" protectionLevel="EncryptAndSign" /> <message clientCredentialType="Windows" /> </security> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="" binding="netTcpBinding" bindingConfiguration="tcpServiceEndPoint" contract="ListenerService.IListenerService" name="tcpServiceEndPoint" /> </client> <!--END Service 1 CONFIGURATION-->

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• Visual Studio 2008 Unit test does not pick up code changes unless I build the entire solution

  - by Orion Edwards

  Here's the scenario: Change my code: Change my unit test for that code With the cursor inside the unit test class/method, invoke VS2008's "Run tests in current context" command The visual studio "Output" window indicates that the code dll and the test dll both successfully build (in that order) The problem is however, that the unit test does not use the latest version of the dll which it has just built. Instead, it uses the previously built dll (which doesn't have the updated code in it), so the test fails. When adding a new method, this results in a MethodNotImplementedException, and when adding a class, it results in a TypeLoadException, both because the unit test thinks the new code is there, and it isn't!. If I'm just updating an existing method, then the test just fails due to incorrect results. I can 'work around' the problem by doing this Change my code: Change my unit test for that code Invoke VS2008's 'Build Solution' command With the cursor inside the unit test class/method, invoke VS2008's "Run tests in current context" command The problem is that doing a full build solution (even though nothing has changed) takes upwards of 30 seconds, as I have approx 50 C# projects, and VS2008 is not smart enough to realize that only 2 of them need to be looked at. Having to wait 30 seconds just to change 1 line of code and re-run a unit test is abysmal. Is there anything I can do to fix this? None of my code is in the GAC or anything funny like that, it's just ordinary old dll's (buiding against .NET 3.5SP1 on a win7/64bit machine) Please help!

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• EXEC_BAD_ACCESS error comes in my applicatoin in iphone

  - by Jaimin

  when i print dictionary i got this error.. here my dictTf is mutabledictionay.. when i m in home page i selct few fields and click find. so new view comes with the result.. now i go back and again click find without changing anything.. now comes proper.. now at this moment when i go back it shows this in the dictionay and EXEC_BAD_ACCESS eror comes... Printing description of dictTf: The program being debugged was signaled while in a function called from GDB. GDB has restored the context to what it was before the call. To change this behavior use "set unwindonsignal off" Evaluation of the expression containing the function (CFShow) will be abandoned. The program being debugged was signaled while in a function called from GDB. GDB has restored the context to what it was before the call. To change this behavior use "set unwindonsignal off" Evaluation of the expression containing the function (CFShow) will be abandoned. (gdb)

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• Mysterious Flickering Visual Artifact

  - by Axis

  A flashing bar of red appears at the top of the EAGLView that I have added as a subview in my iPhone app. It flickers on and off (i.e., one frame it's there, the next frame it's not, the next frame it's there again). I have removed a lot of code from my app until I'm essentially left with the stock OpenGL-ES project and a few changes: The glview is not fullscreen; it's a subview. I enabled the depth buffer. I'm not even trying to draw anything. If the glview is fullscreen, or if I disable the depth buffer, then there is no flicker and it works fine. But needless to say, this is a 3D view and I'd like to be able to display it within a larger UIKit view. I'm not sure what code would be useful to post, but here's how I add the glview to my main view: appDelegate.glView.frame = CGRectMake(245, 65, 215, 215); [self.view addSubview:appDelegate.glView]; [appDelegate.glView startAnimation]; Here's my render function: - (void) render { [EAGLContext setCurrentContext:context]; glBindFramebufferOES(GL_FRAMEBUFFER_OES, defaultFramebuffer); glViewport(0, 0, backingWidth, backingHeight); glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT | GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT); glBindRenderbufferOES(GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES, colorRenderbuffer); [context presentRenderbuffer:GL_RENDERBUFFER_OES]; } It seems pretty obvious to me that the problem lies with the depth buffer somehow, but I'm not sure why. Also, it works fine in the simulator, but not on my iphone. I'm using iPhone OS 3.1. Any ideas on where to look for a problem?

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• InputManager ignores cut/copy/paste when initiated from menu

  - by Wallstreet Programmer

  I'm using the InputManager to check if changes to controls are done by user or code. This works fine, except when user uses the context menu for cut/copy/paste. If the user do ctrl+v in a textbox, InputManager correctly notices it. However, if the paste is done from the context menu of the textbox, the InputManager never fires the PreNotifyInput or PostNotifyInput events. Anyone knows why? Or how to detect that these user actions? Below is a working sample. The lower textblock never gets updated when user uses the cut/copy/paste menu in the above textbox since PreNotifyInput never fires. XAML: <Window x:Class="InputMgrDemo.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Height="300" Width="300"> <StackPanel> <TextBox TextChanged="TextBox_TextChanged" /> <TextBlock Name="_text" /> </StackPanel> </Window> Code behind: using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Controls; using System.Windows.Input; namespace InputMgrDemo { public partial class Window1 : Window { public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); InputManager.Current.PreNotifyInput += ((sender, e) => _userInput = true); InputManager.Current.PostNotifyInput += ((sender, args) => _userInput = false); } private void TextBox_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { if (_userInput) { _text.Text = (sender as TextBox).Text; } } private bool _userInput; } }

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• iPhone and iPad : Doing a "select * from something" query in a SQLite database

  - by Abramodj

  Hi folks, i'm trying to use the SQLite data base in my iPad app, and here's my function to make a query: - (void)executeQuery:(char*)query { NSString *file = [self getWritableDBPath]; NSFileManager *fileManager = [NSFileManager defaultManager]; BOOL success = [fileManager fileExistsAtPath:file]; // If its not a local copy set it to the bundle copy if(!success) { //file = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:DATABASE_TITLE ofType:@"db"]; [self createEditableCopyOfDatabaseIfNeeded]; } dataArray = NULL; dataArray = [NSMutableArray array]; sqlite3 *database = NULL; if (sqlite3_open([file UTF8String], &database) == SQLITE_OK) { sqlite3_exec(database, query, loadTimesCallback, dataArray, NULL); } sqlite3_close(database); [self logResults]; } if I call [self executeQuery:"select name from table1"]; everything is working fine. But if i call [self executeQuery:"select * from cars"]; the app crashes telling me that the NSMutableArray dataArray is not the right kind of variable where to set the query results. So, how can i do a "select * form table1" query, and store the results? Thanks! EDIT: Here's my loadTimesCallback method: static int loadTimesCallback(void *context, int count, char **values, char **columns) { NSMutableArray *times = (NSMutableArray *)context; for (int i=0; i < count; i++) { const char *nameCString = values[i]; [times addObject:[NSString stringWithUTF8String:nameCString]]; } return SQLITE_OK; }

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• Is it possible to replace values in a queryset before sending it to your template?

  - by Issy

  Hi Guys, Wondering if it's possible to change a value returned from a queryset before sending it off to the template. Say for example you have a bunch of records Date | Time | Description 10/05/2010 | 13:30 | Testing... etc... However, based on the day of the week the time may change. However this is static. For example on a monday the time is ALWAYS 15:00. Now you could add another table to configure special cases but to me it seems overkill, as this is a rule. How would you replace that value before sending it to the template? I thought about using the new if tags (if day=1), but this is more of business logic rather then presentation. Tested this in a custom template tag def render(self, context): result = self.model._default_manager.filter(from_date__lte=self.now).filter(to_date__gte=self.now) if self.day == 4: result = result.exclude(type__exact=2).order_by('time') else: result = result.order_by('type') result[0].time = '23:23:23' context[self.varname] = result return '' However it still displays the results from the DB, is this some how related to 'lazy' evaluation of templates? Thanks! Update Responding to comments below: It's not stored wrong in the DB, its stored Correctly However there is a small side case where the value needs to change. So for example I have a From Date & To date, my query checks if todays date is between those. Now with this they could setup a from date - to date for an entire year, and the special cases (like mondays as an example) is taken care off. However if you want to store in the DB you would have to capture several more records to cater for the side case. I.e you would be capturing the same information just to cater for that 1 day when the time changes. (And the time always changes on the same day, and is always the same)

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• Javascript document.open asynchronous?

  - by Alex Schneider

  So on my site there is a Javascript function that will load a new site from the server via XMLHttpRequest. After that it replaces the current page with the new one: var post = new XMLHttpRequest(); post.open('POST', data); post.onload = function() { var do = document.open("text/html", "replace"); do.write(post.responseText); do.close(); goOn(); } function goOn() { console.log($('img:visible')); } Some could assume that after do.close() the document has changed and is ready. But it is not, e.g. if i load very much/big data/responseText the function goOn() only logs an empty result. Obviously goOn() gets in that case called before the DOM is ready to be read! Unfortunately the is no "ready" event fired after write() finished.... How can i be sure it is finished? /EDIT: goOn() logs this to Chrome Console: [prevObject: p.fn.p.init[1], context: #document, selector: "img:visible"] context: #document length: 0 prevObject: p.fn.p.init[1] selector: "img:visible" __proto__: Object[0] But if i right after that type $('img:visible') into console manually it shows me all images....

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