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• How to use python to create a GUI application which have cool animation/effects under Linux (like 3D

  - by sgon00

  Hi, I am not sure if my question title makes sense to you or not. I am seeing many cool applications which have cool animations/effects. I would like to learn how to use python to create this kind of GUI applications under Linux. "cool animation/effects" like 3D wall in Cooliris which is written in flash and compiz effects with opengl. I also heard of some python GUI library like wxPython and pyQT. Since I am completely new to python GUI programming, can anyone suggest me where to start and what I should learn to achieve and create such application? maybe learn pyQT with openGL feature? pyopengl binding? I have no clue on where to start. thank you very much for your time and suggestion. By the way, in case if someone need to know which kind of application I am going to create, well, just any kind of applications. maybe photo explorer with 3D wall, maybe IM client, maybe facebook client etc...

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• Converting Python Script to Vb.NET - Involves Post and Input XML String

  - by Jason Shoulders

  I'm trying to convert a Python Script to Vb.Net. The Python Script appears to accept some XML input data and then takes it to a web URL and does a "POST". I tried some VB.NET code to do it, but I think my approach is off because I got an error back "BadXmlDataErr" plus I can't really format my input XML very well - I'm only doing string and value. The input XML is richer than that. Here is an example of what the XML input data looks like in the Python script: <obj is="MyOrg:realCommand_v1/" > <int name="priority" val="1" /> <real name="value" val="9.5" /> <str name="user" val="MyUserName" /> <reltime name="overrideTime" val="PT60S"/> </obj> Here's the Vb.net code I attempted to convert that: Dim reqparm As New Specialized.NameValueCollection reqparm.Add("priority", "1") reqparm.Add("value", "9.5") reqparm.Add("user", "MyUserName") reqparm.Add("overrideTime", "PT60S") Using client As New Net.WebClient Dim sTheUrl As String = "[My URL]" Dim responsebytes = client.UploadValues(sTheUrl, "POST", MyReqparm) Dim responsebody = (New System.Text.UTF8Encoding).GetString(responsebytes) End Using I feel like I should be doing something else. Can anyone point me to the right direction?

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• Address family not supported by protocol exception

  - by srg

  I'm trying to send a couple of values from an android application to a web service which I've setup. I'm using Http Post to send them but when I run the application I get the error- request time failed java.net.SocketException: Address family not supported by protocol. I get this while debugging with both the emulator as well as a device connected by wifi. I've already added the internet permission using: <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET" /> This is the code i'm using to send the values void insertData(String name, String number) throws Exception { String url = "http://192.168.0.12:8000/testapp/default/call/run/insertdbdata/"; HttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpPost post = new HttpPost(url); try { List<NameValuePair> params = new ArrayList<NameValuePair>(2); params.add(new BasicNameValuePair("a", name)); params.add(new BasicNameValuePair("b", number)); post.setEntity(new UrlEncodedFormEntity(params)); HttpResponse response = client.execute(post); }catch(Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); } Also I know that my web service work fine because when I send the values from an html page it works fine - <form name="form1" action="http://192.168.0.12:8000/testapp/default/call/run/insertdbdata/" method="post"> <input type="text" name="a"/> <input type="text" name="b"/> <input type="submit"/> I've seen questions of similar problems but haven't really found a solution. Thanks

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• PEAR mail not sending to .eu email addresses

  - by andy-score

  I have a PEAR mailing script that is used to send newsletters from a clients website. I've used the same code before to produce another newsletter system and it has worked well and been used to send emails to various addresses, however our latest client has email addresses ending .eu and this seems to cause a problem. When the newsletter is sent from the site to the various subscribers, including gmail, hotmail, yahoo and our own company emails, the emails are received correctly by all but the clients email addresses, the ones ending in .eu. As there is nothing different between their mailing system and our own, which is run from the same hosting company, I have to conclude that it is something to do with the domain name. The emails are being sent to the addresses from the system, as I have a log file storing the email addresses when the mail out function is called, but the newsletter never appears in the inbox. I have created a new email account for the domain and that too isn't receiving the emails. It's not going into a spam folder as the webmail system marks spam by adding SPAM into the subject. I've tried to log if there are any errors using the following foreach($subscribers as $recipient) { $send_newsletter = $mail->send($recipient, $headers, $body); // LOG INFO $message = $recipient; if($send_newsletter) { $message .= ' SENT'; } elseif(PEAR::isError($send_newsletter)) { $message .= ' ERROR: '.$send_newsletter->getMessage(); } $message .= ' | '; fwrite($log_file,$message); } However this simple returns SENT for all recipients, so in theory there isn't anything wrong with the mailing function. I don't know a great deal about PEAR or the mailing function so I may be missing something important, but I'd have thought seeing the last thing to happen is sending the email out, and that seems to work, then it should reach the clients inbox. Is this something to do with the PEAR mailing function not liking .eu addresses or is it more likely to be something wrong in my code or with their domain? Any help is greatly appreciated as the client and myself are getting both confused and frustrated by the whole thing. Cheers

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• How to use JQuery Validate to create a popup with all form error when the submit button is clicked?

  - by Larry

  I am using the JQuery Validation plugin for client side form validation. In addition to the colorful styling on invalid form fields, my client requires that a popup message be shown. I only want to show this message when the submit button is click because it would drive the user crazy otherwise. I tried the following code, but errorList is always empty. Anyone know the correct way to do something similar. function popupFormErrors(formId) { var validator = $(formId).validate(); var message = ''; for (var i = 0; i < validator.errorList.length - 1; i++) { message += validator.errorList[i].message + '\n'; } if (message.length > 0) { alert(message); } } $('#btn-form-submit').click(function(){ $('#form-register').submit(); popupFormErrors('#btn-form-submit'); return false; }); $('#form-register').validate({ errorPlacement: function(error, element) {/* no room on page */}, highlight: function(element) { $(element).addClass('invalid-input'); }, unhighlight: function(element) { $(element).removeClass('invalid-input'); }, ... }); Update From the info in the accepted answer I came up with this. var submitClicked = false; $('#btn-form-submit').click(function() { submitClicked = true; $('#form-register').submit(); return false; }); $('#form-register').validate({ errorPlacement: function(error, element) {/* no room on page */}, highlight: function(element) { $(element).addClass('invalid-input'); }, unhighlight: function(element) { $(element).removeClass('invalid-input'); }, showErrors: function(errorsObj) { this.defaultShowErrors(); if (submitClicked) { submitClicked = false; ... create popup from errorsObj... } } ... });

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• SoapClient throws Wrong version

  - by sivansethu

  When i sending below request, i am getting 'Wrong Version" exception. <OTA_HotelGetMsgRQ xmlns="http://www.opentravel.org/OTA/2003/05" TimeStamp="2001-12-17T09:30:47.0Z" Version="4" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" > <Messages> <Message HotelCode="123" HotelName="Test Hotel" ChainCode="321" ReasonForRequest="Reservation Retrieval" RequestCode="Optional" ChainName="Test Chain" MessageType="All" StartSeqNmbr="1" EndSeqNmbr="10" /> </Messages> </OTA_HotelGetMsgRQ> above request is converted into zend code $client = new zend_soap_client(null, array( 'location' => 'http://url...', 'Uri' =>"http://www.opentravel.org/OTA/2003/05" ) ); $request = array( array('Messages'=> array ('Message' => array ( 'HotelCode' => '123', 'HotelName' => 'Test Hotel', 'ChainCode' => '321', 'ReasonForRequest' => 'Reservation Retrieval', 'RequestCode' => 'Optional', 'ChainName' => 'Test Chain', 'MessageType' => 'All', 'StartSeqNmbr' => '1', 'EndSeqNmbr' => '10' ) ) ) ); $result = $client->OTA_HotelGetMsgRQ ($request); Above line throws exception 'Wrong Version'. Anyone help me how to solve this

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• How to save timers with connection to OrderId?

  - by Adrian Serafin

  Hi! I have a system where clients can make orders. After making order they have 60 minutes to pay fot it before it will be deleted. On the server side when order is made i create timer and set elapsed time to 60 minutes System.Timer.Timers timer = new System.Timers.Timer(1000*60*60); timer.AutoReset = false; timer.Elapsed += HandleElapsed; timer.Start(); Because I want to be able to dispose timer if client decides to pay and I want to be able to cancel order if he doesn't I keep two Dictionaries: Dictionary<int, Timer> _orderTimer; Dictionary<Timer, int> _timerOrder; Then when client pay's I can access Timer by orderId with O(1) thanks to _orderTimer dictionary and when time elapsed I can access order with O(1) thanks to _timerOrder dictionary. My question is: Is it good aproach? Assuming that max number of rows I have to keep in dictionary in one moment will be 50000? Maybe it would be better to derive from Timer class, add property called OrderId, keep it all in List and search for order/timer using linq? Or maybe you I should do this in different way?

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• Why Android for enterprise applications?

  - by mcabral

  Recently one of our clients is considering the posibility of picking up an old WinMobile 5.0 project. Several features are to be added to the point it will be a major version update. The client is worried about the mobile market, and thinks there's a chance all the effort put in this development will have to be thrown away in a couple of year due to the dinamics of the mobile market and the deprecation of mobile devices. So, the client is not sure whether he should continue with Windows Mobile (changing from WM 5.0 to 6.X) or starting from scratch with another technology. From our part we have been studing the mobile market, looking for clues for which will be the winning horse. The safe move seems to continue with WM just because re writing an entire application from scratch involves more risks and delays. On the other hand WM seems to be losing market and the ghost of an exit on their part is growing stronger everyday. But what can be say about Android? Everyone is talking about it and is growing at full speed but what avantagies will it bring to the table? Why should we start a fresh applicaction on this technology? So the question remains the same.. is Andriod mature enough for an enterprise application? Will you recomend it to one of your clients? Will you port/rewrite a WM application to Andriod? What's the trade-off? EDIT: Addressing commentaries. The app is entirely built with C# and Compact Framework. The app is for logistics/management.

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• What if you used the wrong language?

  - by HS

  A reply to another question made me remember a project from some years ago when it turned out that Java was not the right tool to use. I typically only learn a new language when I have a problem that it solves better than the ones I already know. [...] Then I write whatever program I wanted to learn that language for in the first place. [...] By the time I've gotten my target program written, I've usually got a decent handle on the language, not to mention any other features it has, and I've got other ideas to use it for. I did just that back then with Java, because the client thought it to be the right language to use (platform independent) and initial evaluation confirmed that. However, much later in the project there were some issue (can't really remember all the details by now). So, the project that started as a nice learning experience turned into a nightmare toward the end. I was at the brink of switching over to my trusted C++ and doing a complete rewrite. The client was not so much of a problem to convince back then, but my supervisor was strongly opposed because of all the work that already went into the Java version. In hindsight, he was right and the project was complete more or less with the intended features kind of working, but it was the project that I am least proud of by now. Long story short: what do you think, when is it too much and the switch to another technology is worthwhile? I personally would estimate the point of no return to be around 50% of the planned effort, but really want to know, if anyone has real experience with such a switch. And to answer the inevitable question: I do not really care, if the technology switched to is proven or another new thing. The latter would basically need more initial scrutiny based on the past experiences in the problematic project.

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• Is there such a thing as IMAP for podcasts?

  - by Gerrit

  Is there such a thing as IMAP for podcasts? I own a desktop, laptop, iPod, smartphone and a web-client all downloading StackOverflow Podcasts. (among others) They all tell me which episodes are available and which are already played. Everything is a horrible mess, ofcourse. My iPod is somewhat in sync with my desktop, but everything else is a random jungle. The same problem with e-mail is solved by IMAP. Every device gets content and meta-information from one server, and stays in sync with it. Per device, I can set preferences (do or do not download the complete archive including junkmail). Can we implement the IMAP approach for podcasts? Or is there a better metaphore/standard to solve this problem? How will the adoption-strategy look like? (by the way: except for the Windows smartphone, I own a full Apple-stack of products. Even then, I run into this problem) UPDATE The RSS-to-Imap link to sourceforge looks promesting, but very alpha/experimental. UPDATE 2 The one thing RSS is missing is the command/method/parameter/attribute to delete/unread items. RSS can only add, not remove. If RSS(N+1) (3?) could add a value for unread="true|false", it would be solved. If I cache all my RSS-feeds on my own server, and add the attribute myself, I only would have to convince iTunes and every other client to respect that.

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• 'WebException' error on back button even when calling 'void' async method

  - by BlazingFrog

  I have a windows phone app that allows the user to interact with it. Each interaction will always result in an async WCF call. In addition to that, some interactions will result in opening the browser, maps, email, etc... The problem is that, when hitting the back button, I sometime get the following error "An error (WebException) occurred while transmitting data over the HTTP channel." with the following stack trace: at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelUtilities.ProcessGetResponseWebException(WebException webException, HttpWebRequest request, HttpAbortReason abortReason) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelAsyncRequest.CompleteGetResponse(IAsyncResult result) at System.ServiceModel.Channels.HttpChannelFactory.HttpRequestChannel.HttpChannelAsyncRequest.OnGetResponse(IAsyncResult result) at System.Net.Browser.ClientHttpWebRequest.<>c__DisplayClassa.<InvokeGetResponseCallback>b__8(Object state2) at System.Threading.ThreadPool.WorkItem.WaitCallback_Context(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ThreadPool.WorkItem.doWork(Object o) at System.Threading.Timer.ring() My understanding is that it's happening because my app opened another app (browser, maps, etc) before it had the time to execute the EndMyAsyncMethod(System.IAsyncResult result). Fair enough... What's really annoying is that it seems it should get fixed by cloning the server-side method, only making it void with the following operation contract [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true)] but I'm still getting the error. What's worse is that the exception is thrown in a system-generated part of the code and, thus, cannot be manually caught causing the app to just crash. I simply don't understand the need to execute an Endxxx method when it's explicitely marked as OneWay and void. EDIT I did find a similar issue here. It does seem that it is related to the message getting to the service (not the client callback). My next question is: if I'm now calling a method marked AsyncPattern and OneWay, what exactly should I be waiting for on the client to be sure the message was transmitted successfully? This is new service definition: [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true, AsyncPattern = true)] IAsyncResult BeginCacheQueryWithoutCallback(string param1, QueryInfoDataContract queryInfo, AsyncCallback cb, Object s); void EndCacheQueryWithoutCallback(IAsyncResult r); And the implementation: public IAsyncResult BeginCacheQueryWithoutCallback(string param1, QueryInfoDataContract queryInfo, AsyncCallback cb, Object s) { // do some stuff return new CompletedAsyncResult<string>(""); } public void EndCacheQueryWithoutCallback(IAsyncResult r) { }

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• javascript: waiting for an iframe page to load before writing to it (but not from the page that's tr

  - by Bill Dawes

  Apologies if this has been answered elsewhere, but I haven't been able to find it referenced. (Probably because nobody else would want to do such a daft thing, I admit). So, I have a page with three iframes in it. An event on one triggers a javascript function which loads new pages into the other two iframes; ['topright'] and ['bottomright']. However, javascript in the page that is being loaded into iframe 'topright' then needs to send information to elements in the 'bottomright' iframe. window.frames['bottomright'].document.subform.ID_client = client; etc But this will only work if the page has fully loaded into the bottomright frame. So what would be the most efficient way for that code in the 'topright' iframe to check and ensure that that form element in the bottomright frame is actually available to write to, before it does write to it? Bearing in mind that the page load has NOT been triggered from the topright frame, so I can't simply use an onLoad function. (I know this probably sounds like a hideously tortuous route for getting data from one page to another, but that's another story. The client is always right, etc...:-))

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• HttpUtility.HtmlEncode doesn't encode everything

  - by Anthony

  I am interacting with a web server using a desktop client program in C# and .Net 3.5. I am using Fiddler to see what traffic the web browser sends, and emulate that. Sadly this server is old, and is a bit confused about the notions of charsets and utf-8. Mostly it uses Latin-1. When I enter data into the Web browser containing "special" chars, like "O p ? 8 ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ?" fiddler show me that they are being transmitted as follows from browser to server: "&#9800; &#9801; &#9802; &#9803; &#9804; &#9805; &#9806; &#9807; &#9808; &#9809; &#9810; &#9811; " But for my client, HttpUtility.HtmlEncode does not convert these characters, it leaves them as is. What do I need to call to convert "?" to &#9800; and so on?

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• Null reference exceptions in .net

  - by Carlo

  Hello, we're having this big problem with our application. It's a rather large application with several modules, and thousands and thousands lines of code. A lot of parts of the application are designed to exist only with a reference to another object, for example a Person object can never exists without a House object, so if you at any point in the app say: bool check = App.Person.House == null; check should always be false (by design), so, to keep using that example, while creating modules, testing, debugging, App.Person.House is never null, but once we shipped the application to our client, they started getting a bunch of NullReferenceException with the objects that by design, should never have a null reference. They tell us the bug, we try to reproduce it here, but 90% of the times we can't, because here it works fine. The app is being developed with C# and WPF, and by design, it only runs on Windows XP SP 3, and the .net framework v3.5, so we KNOW the user has the same operative system, service pack, and .net framework version as we do here, but they still get this weird NullReferenceExceptions that we can't reproduce. So, I'm just wondering if anyone has seen this before and how you fixed it, we have the app running here at least 8 hours a day in 5 different computers, and we never see those exceptions, this only happens to the client for some reason. ANY thought, any clue, any solution that could get us closer to fixing this problem will be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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• Assign Multiple Custom User Roles to a Custom Post Type

  - by OUHSD Webmaster

  Okay here's the situation.... I'm working on a my business website. There will be a work/portfolio area. "Work" is a custom post type. "Designer" is a custom user role. "Client" is a custom user role. In creating a new "Work" post I would like to be able to select both a "designer" and "Client" to assign to the piece of work, as I would assign an author to a regular ol' post. I tried the method from this answer but it did not work for me. ) I placed it in my functions.php file. ` add_filter('wp_dropdown_users', 'test'); function test($output) { global $post; //Doing it only for the custom post type if($post->post_type == 'work') { $users = get_users(array('role'=>'designer')); //We're forming a new select with our values, you can add an option //with value 1, and text as 'admin' if you want the admin to be listed as well, //optionally you can use a simple string replace trick to insert your options, //if you don't want to override the defaults $output .= "<select id='post_author_override' name='post_author_override' class=''>"; foreach($users as $user) { $output .= "<option value='".$user->id."'>".$user->user_login."</option>"; } $output .= "</select>"; } return $output; } ` Any help would be extremely appreciated!

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• relative url in wcf service binding

  - by Jeremy

  I have a silverlight control which has a reference to a silverlight enabled wcf service. When I add a reference to the service in my silverlight control, it adds the following to my clientconfig file: <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="BasicHttpBinding_DataAccess" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <security mode="None" /> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost:3097/MyApp/DataAccess.svc" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="BasicHttpBinding_DataAccess" contract="svcMyService.DataAccess" name="BasicHttpBinding_DataAccess" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> How do I specify a relative url in the endpoint address instead of the absolute url? I want it to work no matter where I deploy the web app to without having to edit the clientconfig file, because the silverlight component and the web app will always be deployed together. I thought I'd be able to specify just "DataAccess.svc" but it doesn't seem to like that.

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• Clickonce redirect

  - by David Hagan

  Is it possible to deploy an application (using an existing clickonce deployment URL, such that users update to that version) which changes the deployment URL of the deployed application? The scenario is that I have a deployed client (A), which is stable and has been in use for over a year, and a new client (B), which is in development and will be used. However, B and A have different UIDs so that they can both be deployed on the same system together. At some point in the future, I'd like to automatically migrate users who have been using A to B, but I'd hope that Clickonce is well-designed enough to not upgrade A to B if I place B's install files in A's install directory (because it should be checking those UIDs). I know that a C# application that's been deployed through clickonce has some access to its own deployment method, and I'm wondering whether I'm able to change the upgrade-location. I'm hoping to do this quietly without much involvement of the user (and I understand that quiet redirects are heavily frowned upon, for good reasons) and am wondering whether anyone has any experience of trying to modify an installed clickonce's deployment/upgrade information with an update.

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• AppFabric caching's local cache isnt working for us... What are we doing wrong?

  - by Olly

  We are using appfabric as the 2ndlevel cache for an NHibernate asp.net application comprising a customer facing website and an admin website. They are both connected to the same cache so when admin updates something, the customer facing site is updated. It seems to be working OK - we have a CacheCLuster on a seperate server and all is well but we want to enable localcache to get better performance, however, it dosnt seem to be working. We have enabled it like this... bool UseLocalCache = int LocalCacheObjectCount = int.MaxValue; TimeSpan LocalCacheDefaultTimeout = TimeSpan.FromMinutes(3); DataCacheLocalCacheInvalidationPolicy LocalCacheInvalidationPolicy = DataCacheLocalCacheInvalidationPolicy.TimeoutBased; if (UseLocalCache) { configuration.LocalCacheProperties = new DataCacheLocalCacheProperties( LocalCacheObjectCount, LocalCacheDefaultTimeout, LocalCacheInvalidationPolicy ); // configuration.NotificationProperties = new DataCacheNotificationProperties(500, TimeSpan.FromSeconds(300)); } Initially we tried using a timeout invalidation policy (3mins) and our app felt like it was running faster. HOWEVER, we noticed that if we changed something in the admin site, it was immediatley updated in the live site. As we are using timeouts not notifications, this demonstrates that the local cache isnt being queried (or is, but is always missing). The cache.GetType().Name returns "LocalCache" - so the factory has made a local cache. Running "Get-Cache-Statistics MyCache" in PS on my dev environment (asp.net app running local from vs2008, cache cluster running on a seperate w2k8 machine) show a handful of Request Counts. However, on the Production environment, the Request Count increases dramaticaly. We tried following the method here to se the cache cliebt-server traffic... http://blogs.msdn.com/b/appfabriccat/archive/2010/09/20/appfabric-cache-peeking-into-client-amp-server-wcf-communication.aspx but the log file had nothing but the initial header in it - i.e no loggin either. I cant find anything in SO or Google. Have we done something wrong? Have we got a screwy install of AppFabric - we installed it via WebPlatform Installer - I think? (note: the IIS box running ASp.net isnt in yhe cluster - it is just the client). Any insights greatfully received!

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• Does QThread::sleep() require the event loop to be running?

  - by suszterpatt

  I have a simple client-server program written in Qt, where processes communicate using MPI. The basic design I'm trying to implement is the following: The first process (the "server") launches a GUI (derived from QMainWindow), which listens for messages from the clients (using repeat fire QTimers and asynchronous MPI receive calls), updates the GUI depending on what messages it receives, and sends a reply to every message. Every other process (the "clients") runs in an infinite loop, and all they are intended to do is send a message to the server process, receive the reply, go to sleep for a while, then wake up and repeat. Every process instantiates a single object derived from QThread, and calls its start() method. The run() method of these classes all look like this: from foo.cpp: void Foo::run() { while (true) { // Send message to the first process // Wait for a reply // Do uninteresting stuff with the reply sleep(3); // also tried QThread::sleep(3) } } In the client's code, there is no call to exec() anywhere, so no event loop should start. The problem is that the clients never wake up from sleeping (if I surround the sleep() call with two writes to a log file, only the first one is executed, control never reaches the second). Is this because I didn't start the event loop? And if so, what is the simplest way to achieve the desired functionality?

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• Do I need to implement an XMPP server?

  - by WTFITS

  (newbie alert) I need to program a multiparty communication service for a course project, and I am considering XMPP for it. The service needs following messaging semantics: 1) server will provide a method of registering and unregistering an address such as [email protected]/SomeResource. (for now I will do it manually). 2) server will provide a method of forwarding incoming messages from, say, [email protected]/SomeResource to [email protected]/someOtherResource, assuming that the latter is registered, and a method for removing this forwarding. (for now I will do it manually). 3) anonymous clients can send messages to, say, [email protected]/someresource (one way traffic only). If there is any forwarding setup, the message will be forwarded. Finally if the address is [email protected]/someresource is registered, the message will be stored for later delivery (or immediate if a retrieving client is online - see below). If no forwarding and unregistered, message will be silently dropped. 4) clients can connect and retrieve messages from a registered address. Exact method of authenticating clients (e.g., passwords?) is yet to be determined. Eventually, I want to add support for clients to connect from a web browser so they can register/unregister and set/remove forwarding themselves. Thus, the server will have to do some non-standard switching. Will I need to implement an XMPP server for this? I guess some (or all?) of this can also be done using a XMPP client bot

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• Who's setting TCP window size down to 0, Indy or Windows?

  - by François

  We have an application server which have been observed sending headers with TCP window size 0 at times when the network had congestion (at a client's site). We would like to know if it is Indy or the underlying Windows layer that is responsible for adjusting the TCP window size down from the nominal 64K in adaptation to the available throughput. And we would be able to act upon it becoming 0 (nothing gets send, users wait = no good). So, any info, link, pointer to Indy code are welcome... Disclaimer: I'm not a network specialist. Please keep the answer understandable for the average me ;-) Note: it's Indy9/D2007 on Windows Server 2003 SP2. More gory details: The TCP zero window cases happen on the middle tier talking to the DB server. It happens at the same moments when end users complain of slowdowns in the client application (that's what triggered the network investigation). 2 major Network issues causing bottlenecks have been identified. The TCP zero window happened when there was network congestion, but may or may not be caused by it. We want to know when that happen and have a way to do something (logging at least) in our code. So where to hook (in Indy?) to know when that condition occurs?

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• Efficiently sending protocol buffer messages with http on an android platform

  - by Ben Griffiths

  I'm trying to send messages generated by Google Protocol Buffer code via a simple HTTP scheme to a server. What I have currently have implemented is here (forgive the obvious incompletion...): HttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(); String url = "http://192.168.1.69:8888/sdroidmarshal"; HttpPost postRequest = new HttpPost(url); String proto = offers.build().toString(); List<NameValuePair> nameValuePairs = new ArrayList<NameValuePair>(1); nameValuePairs.add(new BasicNameValuePair("sdroidmsg", proto)); postRequest.setEntity(new UrlEncodedFormEntity(nameValuePairs)); try { ResponseHandler<String> responseHandler = new BasicResponseHandler(); String responseBody = client.execute(postRequest, responseHandler); } catch (Throwable t) { } I'm not that experienced with communications over the internet and no more so with HTTP - while I do understand the basics... So my question, before I blindly develop the rest of the application around this, is whether or not this is particularly efficient? I ideally would like to keep messages small and I assume toString() adds some unnecessary formatting.

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• Java - Problem in deploying Web Application

  - by Yatendra Goel

  I have built a Java Web Application and packed it in a .war file and tested it on my local tomcat server and it is running fine. But when I deployed it on my client's server, it is showing an error. According to the remote server (my client's server), it is not finding a tld file packed in a jar file which I had placed in WEB-INF/lib directory. But when I checked the WEB-INF/lib directory for the jar file, i found that it was there. The contents of META-INF/MANIFEST.MF is as follows: Manifest-Version: 1.0 Class-Path: I think that there is no need to explicitly mention the classpath of WEB-INF/lib directory as it is in the classpath of any web application by default. Then, why the server can't find the jar file in the lib directory when I deployed it on a remote server and why it is working when I deployed the same application on my local server. I posted a question for this at http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2441254/struts-1-struts-taglib-jar-is-not-being-found-by-my-web-application but found that the problem is unusual as nobody could answer it. So my questions are as follows: Q1. Is WEB-INF/lib still remains on the classpath if I leave the classpath entry blank as shown above in the MANIFEST.MF file or I should delete the classpath entry completely from the file or I should explicitly enter Class-Path: /WEB-INF/lib as the classpath entry? Q2. I have JSP pages, Servlets and some helper classes in the web application. Jsp pages are located at the root. Servlets and helper classes are located in WEB-INF/classes folder. So Is there any problem if my helper classes are located in the WEB-INF/classes folder? Note: Please note that this question is not same as my previous question. It is a follow-up question of my previous question. Both the servers (local and remote) are tomcat servers.

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• JAX-RS --- How to return JSON and HTTP Status code together?

  - by masato-san

  I'm writing REST web app (Netbean6.9, JAX-RS, Toplink-essential) and trying to return JSON and Http status code. I have code ready and working just to return JSON when HTTP GET Method is called from client. Code snippet @Path("get/id") @GET @Produces("application/json") public M_?? getMachineToUpdate(@PathParam("id") String id) { //some code to return JSON . . return myJson But I also want to return HTTP status code (500, 200, 204 etc) along with returning JSON. I tried using HttpServletResponse object, response.sendError("error message", 500); But this made browser to think it's real 500 so output web page was regular Http 500 error page. What I want to is just to return status code so that my Javascript on client side can handle some logic depending on what HTTP status code is returned. (maybe just to display the error code and message on html page.) Is it possible to do so? or should HTTP status code not be used for such thing?

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• Need Help finding an appropriate task asignment algoritm for a collage project involving coordinatin

  - by Trif Mircea

  Hello. I am a long time lurker here and have found over time many answers regarding jquery and web development topics so I decided to ask a question of my own. This time I have to create a c++ project for collage which should help manage the workflow of a company providing all kinds of services through in the field teams. The ideas I have so far are: client-server application; the server is a dispatcher where all the orders from clients get and the clients are mobile devices (PDAs) each team in the field having one a order from a client is a task. Each task is made up of a series of subtasks. You have a database with estimations on how long a task should take to complete you also know what tasks or subtasks each team on the field can perform based on what kind of specialists made up the team (not going to complicate the problem by adding needed materials, it is considered that if a member of a team can perform a subtask he has the stuff needed) Now knowing these factors, what would a good task assignment algorithm be? The criteria is: how many tasks can a team do, how many tasks they have in the queue, it could also be location, how far away are they from the place but I don't think I can implement that.. It needs to be efficient and also to adapt quickly is the human dispatcher manually assigns a task. Any help or leads would be really appreciated. Also I'm not 100% sure in the idea so if you have another way you would go about creating such an application please share, even if it just a quick outline. I have to write a theoretical part too so even if the ideas are far more complex that what i outlined that would be ok ; I'd write those and implement what I can.

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