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  • MVVM and Ribbon Command

    - by user312372
    I am trying to change the source property of the frame in Page1.xaml when the SampleCommand is excecuted. How do I acheive this in the View Model? Page1.xaml: <r:RibbonTab.Groups> <r:RibbonGroup GroupSizeDefinitions="{StaticResource RibbonLayout}"> <r:RibbonGroup.Command> <r:RibbonCommand LabelTitle="RibbonButton"/> </r:RibbonGroup.Command> <r:RibbonButton x:Name="RibbonButton1" Command="{Binding Path=SampleCommand}"/> </r:RibbonGroup> </r:RibbonTab.Groups> </r:RibbonTab> </r:Ribbon> <Border Name="PageBorder" Grid.Row="0" Grid.Column="1"> <Frame Name="pageFrame" Source="FirstPage.xaml" /> </Border> </DockPanel> c# Page1ViewModel.cs: RelayCommand _sampleCommand; public ICommand SampleCommand { get { // create command ?? return _sampleCommand } page1.xaml.cs : Page1ViewModel pageViewModel; this.DataContext = pageViewModel; // when pageloads

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  • documenting class properties

    - by intuited
    I'm writing a lightweight class whose properties are intended to be publicly accessible, and only sometimes overridden in specific instantiations. There's no provision in the Python language for creating docstrings for class properties, or any sort of properties, for that matter. What is the accepted way, should there be one, to document these properties? Currently I'm doing this sort of thing: class Albatross(object): """A bird with a flight speed exceeding that of an unladen swallow. Properties: """ flight_speed = 691 __doc__ += """ flight_speed (691) The maximum speed that such a bird can attain """ nesting_grounds = "Throatwarbler Man Grove" __doc__ += """ nesting_grounds ("Throatwarbler Man Grove") The locale where these birds congregate to reproduce. """ def __init__(**keyargs): """Initialize the Albatross from the keyword arguments.""" self.__dict__.update(keyargs) Although this style doesn't seem to be expressly forbidden in the docstring style guidelines, it's also not mentioned as an option. The advantage here is that it provides a way to document properties alongside their definitions, while still creating a presentable class docstring, and avoiding having to write comments that reiterate the information from the docstring. I'm still kind of annoyed that I have to actually write the properties twice; I'm considering using the string representations of the values in the docstring to at least avoid duplication of the default values. Is this a heinous breach of the ad hoc community conventions? Is it okay? Is there a better way? For example, it's possible to create a dictionary containing values and docstrings for the properties and then add the contents to the class __dict__ and docstring towards the end of the class declaration; this would alleviate the need to type the property names and values twice. I'm pretty new to python and still working out the details of coding style, so unrelated critiques are also welcome.

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  • Calling a datatrigger for a radio button inside a datagrid

    - by Farax
    I have a datagrid with one column having a radio button. I want to set the GroupName when a certain condition is reached. Below is the code <Custom:DataGrid.Columns> <!-- ONLY ENABLED WHEN THE ITEM TYPE IS SINGLESELECT OR SINGLESELECT WITH ADDIOTIONAL DATA--> <Custom:DataGridTemplateColumn CanUserResize="False" MinWidth="20" > <Custom:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <RadioButton IsChecked="{Binding IsChecked}" d:DesignWidth="16" d:DesignHeight="16" GroupName="SingleChoiceSelection" Template="{DynamicResource RadioButtonTemplate}" Background="{DynamicResource BackgroundNew}" BorderBrush="#FF7A7171" Foreground="#FF6C6C6C" Margin="0" /> </DataTemplate> </Custom:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </Custom:DataGridTemplateColumn> <Custom:DataGridTextColumn Header="Choices" Binding="{Binding ChoiceText}" CellStyle="{DynamicResource DataGridCellStyle2}" MinWidth="150" /> </Custom:DataGrid.Columns> </Custom:DataGrid> The ItemSource contains a property called isChecked and I want to change the foreground color when isChecked is changed to true. How do i do this with a datatrigger?

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  • assigning width to li

    - by badnaam
    I am using jquery ui tabs, which requires the tabs to be <li> elements, by default at least. I only need 2 tabs, but I am not able to size them so that they are both equal and take up 100% of available width of the ul. here is my code. <div id="intro_tabs" class="tabs"> <ul id="intro_nav"> <li> <h3><a href ="#tabs-1" class="null_link"><%= t('home.index.what_is_it') %></a></h3> </li> <li> <h3><a href ="#tabs-2" class="null_link"><%= t('home.index.how_works') %></a></h3> </li> </ul> <div id="tabs-1"> <%= simple_format t 'home.index.what_intro_details' %> </div> <div id="tabs-2"> <div id="intro_accordion"> <h3><a href="#">Users</a></h3> <div> <%= t 'home.index.how_intro_details_user' %> </div> <h3><a href="#">Merchants</a></h3> <div> <%= t 'home.index.how_intro_details_merchant' %> </div> </div> </div> </div> I have tried using css property width:50%, on both li's but it doesn't work. Thanks

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  • Creating a framework for ASP.NET web forms similar to Flex states.

    - by Shawn Simon
    I really enjoy the flex states framework. You define a few states for your control, and then can set child controls to only appear in certain states. Check out this code: <s:states> <s:State name="signin"/> <s:State name="register"/> </s:states> <mx:FormItem label="Last name:" includeIn="register" id="lastNameItem" alpha="0.0"> <s:TextInput id="lastName" width="220"/> </mx:FormItem> Now the last name form will only appear in the register screen. This would be really useful I think in .NET where you use the page for views like update / insert. I was considering extending the Page element to have a states property using extension methods, and adding the include in to controls. This way I could auto-hide controls based on the current view at render time. What is even cooler in Flex, is that you can use different handlers / properties based on the current state. <s:Button label="Sign in" label.register="Register" id="loginButton" enabled="true" click.signin="signin()" click.register="register()"/> I'm sure there's a way I could implement something similar to this as well. Do you think this is a good idea? Or does it just add a level of abstraction to framework that already has a poor separation of concerns?

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  • Can someone copyright an SQL query?

    - by Samutz
    I work for a school district. Every year we have to export a list of students from our student management system and send it to a company that handles our online exams. So to do this export, we had to hire someone who knew the inner workings of our student management system. He wrote an sql (Adaptive Sybase SQL Anywhere) query to export the students to a csv file like we needed. This was before I started working for the district, so for a while I assumed this was an actually application, until it came time for me to do the export myself. And every year he charges us $500 to update this query to export the students for the current year. So when I discovered it was only a query (.bat file and .sql file), my thought was "I can update this myself". All I have to do is change the years in the query (eg. 2009 to 2010). The query (.sql file) itself has this comment at the top: // This code was writtend by [the guy] // and is the property of [his company]...Copyright 2005,2006,2008,2009 // This code MAY NOT BE USED without the expressed written consent of // [his company]. (Yes, it really does says "writtend".) So now my boss is worried that we're violating the copyright. And that the guy is gonna find out that I updated the query myself because we haven't asked him to update it this year and take legal action. So back to the subject's question: Can he really copyright this query? And if so, is modifying it ourselves a copyright violation? In my mind, a single query isn't program code. It's more a command line command. But I don't know what it's considered legally.

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  • MVC.NET custom validator is not working

    - by IvanMushketyk
    I want to write a custom validator for MVC.NET framework that checks if entered date is in the future. To do it, I wrote the following class: [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Property, AllowMultiple = false, Inherited = true)] public sealed class InTheFutureAttribute : ValidationAttribute, IClientValidatable { private const string DefaultErrorMessage = "{0} should be date in the future"; public InTheFutureAttribute() : base(DefaultErrorMessage) { } public override string FormatErrorMessage(string name) { return string.Format(ErrorMessageString, name); } public override bool IsValid(object value) { DateTime time = (DateTime)value; if (time < DateTime.Now) { return false; } return true; } public IEnumerable<ModelClientValidationRule> GetClientValidationRules(ModelMetadata metadata, ControllerContext context) { var clientValidationRule = new ModelClientValidationRule() { ErrorMessage = FormatErrorMessage(metadata.GetDisplayName()), ValidationType = "wrongvalue" }; return new[] { clientValidationRule }; } } and added attribute to field that I want to check. On the View page I create input field in the following way: <div class="editor-label-search"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.checkIn) </div> <div class="editor-field-search-date"> @Html.EditorFor(model => model.checkIn) <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $('#checkIn').datepicker({ showOn: 'button', buttonImage: '/Content/images/calendar.gif', duration: 0, dateFormat: 'dd/mm/yy' }); }); </script> @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.checkIn) </div> When I submit the form for the controller that requires model with checked attribute code in my validator is called and it returns false, but instead of displaying an error it just call my controller's action and send invalid model to it. Am I doing something wrong? How can I fix it? Thank you in advance.

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  • Origin null is not allowed by Access-Control-Allow-Origin

    - by JIGGABITS
    I'm currently working with the SoundCloud API and would like to have a track embed when a button is clicked. I get two errors: XMLHttpRequest cannot load http://soundcloud.com/oembed.json?url=http%3A%2F%2Fapi.soundcloud.com%2Ftracks%2F48419073. Origin null is not allowed by Access-Control-Allow-Origin. AND Uncaught TypeError: Cannot read property 'html' of null Here is my code: <button onclick="getPopular()">+1</button> <div id="track"></div> <script src="http://connect.soundcloud.com/sdk.js" type="text/JavaScript"></script> <script type="text/JavaScript"> SC.initialize({ client_id: "**************", }); var getPopular = function() { SC.get("/tracks", {limit: 1}, function(tracks) { var track = tracks[0]; alert("Latest track: " + track.title); SC.oEmbed(track.uri, document.getElementById("track")); }); }; </script> I use an alert in my code to let me know that it is actually taking information from the SoundCloud API. I'm just not sure what else is preventing it from embedding. Thanks, ahead of time, or looking at my question. jiggabits

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  • setting up 301 redirects: dynamic urls to static urls

    - by MS
    We are currently using a template-based website and are hoping to move to a site with static urls. Our domain will stay the same. I understand that using 301 redirects in a .htaccess file is the preferred method -- and the one that has the highest chance of preserving our google rankings. I am still new at all this and am having a hard time figuring out the proper way to code it all. Over a hundred of our pages are indexed. They all have a similar URL but with different pageIDs: http://www.realestate-bigbear.com/Nav.aspx/Page=%2fPageManager%2fDefault.aspx%2fPageID%3d2020765 Some link out to provided content, ex. /RealEstateNews/Default.aspx Then there are many that flow from the main featured listings page: /ListNow/Default.aspx Down to all the specific properties.. where the PropertyId changes /ListNow/Property.aspx?PropertyID=2048098 would a simple set of codes work... like the following.... redirect 301 /Nav.aspx/Page=%2fPageManager%2fDefault.aspx%2fPageID%3d2020765 www.realestate.bigbear.com/SearchBigBearMLS.htm or do I need to do something entirely different?

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  • Virtual properties duplicated during serialization when XmlElement attribute used

    - by Laramie
    The Goal: XML serialize an object that contains a list of objects of that and its derived types. The resulting XML should not use the xsi:type attribute to describe the type, to wit the names of the serialized XML elements would be an assigned name specific to the derived type, not always that of the base class, which is the default behavior. The Attempt: After exploring IXmlSerializable and IXmlSerializable with eerie XmlSchemaProvider methods and voodoo reflection to return specialized schemas and an XmlQualifiedName over the course of days, I found I was able to use the simple [XmlElement] attribute to accomplish the goal... almost. The Problem: Overridden properties appear twice when serializing. The exception reads "The XML element 'overriddenProperty' from namespace '' is already present in the current scope. Use XML attributes to specify another XML name or namespace for the element." I attempted using a *Specified property (see code), but it didn't work. Sample Code: Class Declaration using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Xml.Serialization; [XmlInclude(typeof(DerivedClass))] public class BaseClass { public BaseClass() { } [XmlAttribute("virt")] public virtual string Virtual { get; set; } [XmlIgnore] public bool VirtualSpecified { get { return (this is BaseClass); } set { } } [XmlElement(ElementName = "B", Type = typeof(BaseClass), IsNullable = false)] [XmlElement(ElementName = "D", Type = typeof(DerivedClass), IsNullable = false)] public List<BaseClass> Children { get; set; } } public class DerivedClass : BaseClass { public DerivedClass() { } [XmlAttribute("virt")] public override string Virtual { get { return "always return spackle"; } set { } } } Driver: BaseClass baseClass = new BaseClass() { Children = new List<BaseClass>() }; BaseClass baseClass2 = new BaseClass(){}; DerivedClass derivedClass1 = new DerivedClass() { Children = new List<BaseClass>() }; DerivedClass derivedClass2 = new DerivedClass() { Children = new List<BaseClass>() }; baseClass.Children.Add(derivedClass1); baseClass.Children.Add(derivedClass2); derivedClass1.Children.Add(baseClass2); I've been wrestling with this on and off for weeks and can't find the answer anywhere.

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  • calll html button onclick event from asp server side login authenticate event

    - by CraigJSte
    Need to programmatically click an html button from a login event (code behind? the html button sends variables to Flash using method: no response - with no postback and uses ExternalInterface API via javascript. Going from SWF ASPX is great, but need to send User.Identity to SWF from ASPX via javascript after authenticate with login event which am having impossible time getting to work... (calling HTML event from Login button) tried scripting in javascript to login event with no luck, possibly because postback clears SWF variables - so perhaps keeping separate (login then html send) would work... Here is my relevant code: function sendToActionScript(value) { swfobject.getObjectById("Property").sendToActionScript(value); } </script> <object ..// SWF File embedded> </object <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:Login id="login1" OnAuthenticate="login1_Authenticate"/> </form> <form id="form" onsubmit="return false;"> <input type="text" name="input" id="input" value="" runat="server" /> <button id="btnInput" runat="server" causesvalidation="false" visible="true" style="width: 51px" onclick="sendToActionScript(this.form.input.value);" >Send</button><br /> </form> // CODE BEHIND protected void Login1_Authenticate(object sender, AuthenticateEventArgs e) { // do something to get User Id and Role //bind the string (user or role) to input.value //then call the HTML button onclick event to send it to SWF file. //which I could put in separate function and call from Login_Authenticate } Can anyone help me I am out of ideas. Craig

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  • PHP OOP: Providing Domain Entities with "Identity"

    - by sunwukung
    Bit of an abstract problem here. I'm experimenting with the Domain Model pattern, and barring my other tussles with dependencies - I need some advice on generating Identity for use in an Identity Map. In most examples for the Data Mapper pattern I've seen (including the one outlined in this book: http://apress.com/book/view/9781590599099) - the user appears to manually set the identity for a given Domain Object using a setter: $UserMapper = new UserMapper; //returns a fully formed user object from record sets $User = $UserMapper->find(1); //returns an empty object with appropriate properties for completion $UserBlank = $UserMapper->get(); $UserBlank->setId(); $UserBlank->setOtherProperties(); Now, I don't know if I'm reading the examples wrong - but in the first $User object, the $id property is retrieved from the data store (I'm assuming $id represents a row id). In the latter case, however, how can you set the $id for an object if it has not yet acquired one from the data store? The problem is generating a valid "identity" for the object so that it can be maintained via an Identity Map - so generating an arbitrary integer doesn't solve it. My current thinking is to nominate different fields for identity (i.e. email) and demanding their presence in generating blank Domain Objects. Alternatively, demanding all objects be fully formed, and using all properties as their identity...hardly efficient. (Or alternatively, dump the Domain Model concept and return to DBAL/DAO/Transaction Scripts...which is seeming increasingly elegant compared to the ORM implementations I've seen...)

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  • clean html a string by element id using php

    - by user327140
    Hi, as you can see by the subject am looking for a tool for cleaning up a HTML string in php using a HTML id property, example: According to the following PHP string I wish to clean the HTML erasing the black11 $test = ' <div id="block1"> <div id="block11">Hello1 <span>more html here...</span></div> <div id="block12">Hello2 <span>more html here...</span></div> </div> <div id="block2"></div> '; Will became $test = ' <div id="block1"> <div id="block12">Hello2 <span>more html here...</span></div> </div> <div id="block2"></div> '; I already tried the tool from htmlpurifier.org and can't get the desirable result. Only thing I achieved was removing elements by tag; erasing id; erasing class. Is there any simple way to achieve this using purifier or other? Thanks in advance,

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  • How to set QNetworkReply properties to get correct NCBI pages?

    - by Claire Huang
    I try to get this following url using the downloadURL function: http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/nuccore/27884304 But the data is not as what we can see through the browser. Now I know it's because that I need to give the correct information such as browser, how can I know what kind of information I need to set, and how can I set it? (By setHeader function??) In VC++, we can use CInternetSession and CHttpConnection Object to get the correct information without setting any other detail information, is there any similar way in Qt or other cross-platform C++ network lib?? (Yes, I need the the cross-platform property.) QNetworkReply::NetworkError downloadURL(const QUrl &url, QByteArray &data) { QNetworkAccessManager manager; QNetworkRequest request(url); request.setHeader(QNetworkRequest::ContentTypeHeader ,"Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.0; en-US; rv:1.9.1.7) Gecko/20091221 Firefox/3.5.7 (.NET CLR 3.5.30729)"); QNetworkReply *reply = manager.get(request); QEventLoop loop; QObject::connect(reply, SIGNAL(finished()), &loop, SLOT(quit())); loop.exec(); QVariant statusCodeV = reply->attribute(QNetworkRequest::RedirectionTargetAttribute); QUrl redirectTo = statusCodeV.toUrl(); if (!redirectTo.isEmpty()) { if (redirectTo.host().isEmpty()) { const QByteArray newaddr = ("http://"+url.host()+redirectTo.encodedPath()).toAscii(); redirectTo.setEncodedUrl(newaddr); redirectTo.setHost(url.host()); } return (downloadURL(redirectTo, data)); } if (reply->error() != QNetworkReply::NoError) { return reply->error(); } data = reply->readAll(); delete reply; return QNetworkReply::NoError; }

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  • Why can't the 'NonSerialized' attribute be used at the class level? How to prevent serialization of

    - by ck
    I have a data object that is deep-cloned using a binary serialization. This data object supports property changed events, for example, PriceChanged. Let's say I attached a handler to PriceChanged. When the code attempts to serialize PriceChanged, it throws an exception that the handler isn't marked as serializable. My alternatives: I can't easily remove all handlers from the event before serialization I don't want to mark the handler as serializable because I'd have to recursively mark all the handlers dependencies as well. I don't want to mark PriceChanged as NonSerialized - there are tens of events like this that could potentially have handlers. Ideally, I'd like .NET to just stop going down the object graph at that point and make that a 'leaf'. So why can't I just mark the handler class as 'NonSerialized'? -- I finally worked around this problem by making the handler implement ISerializable and doing nothing in the serialize constructor/ GetDataObject method. But, the handler still is serialized, just with all its dependencies set to null - so I had to account for that as well. Is there a better way to prevent serialization of an entire class?

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  • In what order does DOJO handles ajax requests?

    - by mm2887
    Hi, Using a form in a dialog box I am using Dojo in jsp to save the form in my database. After that request is completed using dojo.xhrPost() I am sending in another request to update a dropdown box that should include the added form object that was just saved, but for some reason the request to update the dropdown is executed before saving the form in the database even though the form save is called first. Using Firebug I can see that the getLocations() request is completed before the sendForm() request. This is the code: Add Team sendForm("ajaxResult1", "addTeamForm"); dijit.byId("addTeamDialog").hide(); getLocations("locationsTeam"); </script> function sendForm(target, form){ var targetNode = dojo.byId(target); var xhrArgs = { form: form, url: "ajax", handleAs: "text", load: function(data) { targetNode.innerHTML = data; }, error: function(error) { targetNode.innerHTML = "An unexpected error occurred: " + error; } } //Call the asynchronous xhrGet var deferred = dojo.xhrPost(xhrArgs); } function getLocations(id) { var targetNode = dojo.byId(id); var xhrArgs = { url: "ajax", handleAs: "text", content: { location: "yes" }, load: function(data) { targetNode.innerHTML = data; }, error: function(error) { targetNode.innerHTML = "An unexpected error occurred: " + error; } } //Call the asynchronous xhrGet var deferred = dojo.xhrGet(xhrArgs); } Why is this happening? Is there way to make the first request complete first before the second executes? To reduce the possibilities of why this is happening I tried setting the cache property in xhrGet to false but the result is still the same. Please help!

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  • tinymce and jquery

    - by tirso
    hi to all I am using tinymce and simple modal (jquery plugin). Initially, it was not worked (meaning I cannot type in the textarea) for the second or more opening modal dialog unless I refreshed the page. Now I changed my code and now I could type but the problem persist is the submit button doesn't work anymore. I tried to trace in firebug and I found some errors like this Thanks in advance Permission denied to get property XULElement.accessibleType [Break on this error] var tinymce={majorVersion:"3",minorVersi...hanged();return true}return false})})(); here is the revised code $(document).ready(function() { $('.basic').click(function (e) { e.preventDefault(); $('#basic-modal-content').modal({onShow: function (dialog) { tinyMCE.init({ // General options mode : "textareas", theme : "advanced", setup : function (ed) { ed.onKeyPress.add( function (ed, evt) { var y = tinyMCE.get('test').getContent(); $('#rem_char').html(100 - y.length); if (y.length == 100){ //ed.getWin().document.body.innerHTML = y.substring(0,100); alert("Your element has exceeded the 100 character limit. If you add anymore text it may be truncated when saved.") return; } } ); }, plugins : "safari,pagebreak,style,layer,table,save,advhr,advimage,advlink,emotions,iespell,inlinepopups,insertdatetime,preview,media,searchreplace,print,contextmenu,paste,directionality,fullscreen,noneditable,visualchars,nonbreaking,xhtmlxtras,template,wordcount", // Theme options theme_advanced_buttons1 : "bold,italic,underline,strikethrough,|,justifyleft,justifycenter,justifyright,justifyfull", theme_advanced_buttons2 : "fontselect,fontsizeselect,bullist,numlist,forecolor,backcolor", theme_advanced_buttons3 : "", theme_advanced_toolbar_location : "top", theme_advanced_toolbar_align : "left", dialog_type : "modal" }); return false; }}); }); $('.close').click(function (e) { e.preventDefault(); $.modal.close(); }); });

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  • Obtaining touch location for a uiscrollview touch

    - by LOSnively
    I have a uiscrollview as an element of a uiscrollviewcontroller, along with other view objects. The image scrolls and zooms as expected, when the scrollView is the top subview. However, I also need to get the screen location of the touch, in particular when there is no scroll action. (I understand the location may change during a scroll, but that's not important.) I haven't found a way to do that. In the scrollviewcontroller implementation I have customized all of the standard methods that should do this: "touchesShouldBegin...", "touchesBegan:...", "touchesEnded:...", and so on. As far as I can tell, none of these are being called during a touch event when the scrollView is the top subview. I've tried setting the delayContentTouches property to both YES and NO, and that doesn't seem to make a difference. As an alternative, I've tried putting a UIView as the top subview and then tried passing the touches to the now underlying scrollView. In this configuration, the standard methods are called and I can get the touch location, but I haven't found a mechanism for the touches to be passed to the scrollView so scrolling occurs. Doing something like sending the touch messages to the specific scrollView, or to "super" or just sending them to nextResponder doesn't do it. It seems I can make the scroll work or find the location of the touch but not both, depending on what the "top" subview is. I suspect this is trivial, but after two weeks of struggling, it's time to eat my embarrassment for not being able to do this seemingly simplest of things. I've read all of the related questions here on stackoverflow, tried most if not all of the suggestions, and so far, nothing has worked. I've looked through the various links and references suggested by the answers, including Apple's documentation, but none have pointed out the gap in my understanding. Any ideas would be appreciated.

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  • Execute sybase stored proc from hibernate

    - by Padmanabh
    I am having issues with executing a simple sybase stored proc from hibernate. The procedure takes some input and returns one record. I tried with the following tag in hibernate mappings file and java code. <hibernate-mapping> <sql-query name="sybaseproc" callable="true"> <return class="Myentity"> <return-property name="next" column="next"/> </return> { ? = call nextnum(?,?) } </sql-query> </hibernate-mapping> java code is as follows Query q = session.getNamedQuery("sybaseproc"); q.setString(0,"test"); q.setInteger(1,new Integer(10)); Myentity entity = (Myentity) q.uniqueResult(); When I run my test. I get a error saying "Errors in Named Query sybaseproc" and the test does not run. Any help is appreciated. Thanks Padmanabh

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  • FLEX: the custom component is still a Null Object when I invoke its method

    - by Patrick
    Hi, I've created a custom component in Flex, and I've created it from the main application with actionscript. Successively I invoke its "setName" method to pass a String. I get the following run-time error (occurring only if I use the setName method): TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. I guess I get it because I'm calling to newUser.setName method from main application before the component is completely created. How can I ask actionscript to "wait" until when the component is created to call the method ? Should I create an event listener in the main application waiting for it ? I would prefer to avoid it if possible. Here is the code: Main app ... newUser = new userComp(); //newUser.setName("name"); Component: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:VBox xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" width="100" height="200" > <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ public function setName(name:String):void { username.text = name; } public function setTags(Tags:String):void { } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:HBox id="tagsPopup" visible="false"> <mx:LinkButton label="Tag1" /> <mx:LinkButton label="Tag2" /> <mx:LinkButton label="Tag3" /> </mx:HBox> <mx:Image source="@Embed(source='../icons/userIcon.png')"/> <mx:Label id="username" text="Nickname" visible="false"/> </mx:VBox> thanks

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  • Java and dynamic variables

    - by Arvanem
    Hi folks, I am wondering whether it is possible to make dynamic variables in Java. In other words, variables that change depending on my instructions. FYI, I am making a trading program. A given merchant will have an array of items for sale for various prices. The dynamism I am calling for comes in because each category of items for sale has its own properties. For example, a book item has two properties: int pages, and boolean hardCover. In contrast, a bookmark item has one property, String pattern. Here are skeleton snippets of code so you can see what I am trying to do: public class Merchants extends /* certain parent class */ { // only 10 items for sale to begin with Stock[] itemsForSale = new Stock[10]; // Array holding Merchants public static Merchants[] merchantsArray = new Merchants[maxArrayLength]; // method to fill array of stock goes here } and public class Stock { int stockPrice; int stockQuantity; String stockType; // e.g. book and bookmark // Dynamic variables here, but they should only be invoked depending on stockType int pages; boolean hardCover; String pattern; }

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  • How to use <c:out value=...> taglib

    - by artaxerxe
    I have the class A: package a; public class A { private int x = 9; public int getX() { return x; } } and the ajsp.jsp file: <%@ page language="java" contentType="text/html; charset=UTF-8" pageEncoding="UTF-8"%> <%@ taglib prefix="c" uri="http://java.sun.com/jstl/core" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> </head> <body> <jsp:useBean id = "a" class = "a.A" /> <c:out value = "${a.x}" /> </body> </html> when i run it, it gives an error : org.apache.jasper.JasperException: /ajsp.jsp(11,0) PWC6236: According to TLD or attribute directive in tag file, attribute value does not accept any expressions if instead of <c:out value = "${a.x}" /> i use <jsp:getProperty property="x" name="a"/> it goes perfect. So, what is the problem? Thank advance.

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  • Why is PackageInfo.requestedPermissions always null?

    - by Luke
    I'm trying to enumerate all the permissions used by all the installed packages, however when I check the requestedPermissions property for each of my installed packages it is always null. The following is the code that does this: private HashMap<String, List<String>> buildMasterList() { HashMap<String, List<String>> result = new HashMap<String, List<String>>(); List<PackageInfo> packages = getPackageManager().getInstalledPackages(PackageManager.GET_PERMISSIONS); for (int i = 0; i < packages.size(); i++) { String[] packagePermissions = packages.get(i).requestedPermissions; Log.d("AppList", packages.get(i).packageName); if (packagePermissions != null) { for (int j = 0; j < packagePermissions.length; j++) { if (!result.containsKey(packagePermissions[j])) { result.put(packagePermissions[j], new ArrayList<String>()); } result.get(packagePermissions[j]).add(packages.get(i).packageName); } } else { Log.d("AppList", packages.get(i).packageName + ": no permissions"); } } return result; } Edit: Oops! I just needed to pass the PackageManager.GET_PERMISSIONS flag to getInstalledPackages(). Updated the code snippet.

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  • ClassCastException When Calling an EJB Remotely that Exists on Same Server

    - by aaronvargas
    I have 2 ejbs. Ejb-A that calls Ejb-B. They are not in the same Ear. For portability Ejb-B may or may not exist on the same server. (There is an external property file that has the provider URLs of Ejb-B. I have no control over this.) Example Code: in Ejb-A EjbBDelegate delegateB = EjbBDelegateHelper.getRemoteDelegate(); // lookup from list of URLs from props... BookOfMagic bom = delegateB.getSomethingInteresting(); Use Cases/Outcomes: When Ejb-B DOES NOT EXIST on the same server as Ejb-A, everything works correctly. (it round-robbins through the URLs) When Ejb-B DOES EXIST on the same server, and Ejb-A happens to call Ejb-B on the same server, everything works correctly. When Ejb-B DOES EXIST on the same server, and Ejb-A calls Ejb-B on a different server, I get: javax.ejb.EJBException: nested exception is: java.lang.ClassCastException: $Proxy126 java.lang.ClassCastException: $Proxy126 I'm using Weblogic 10.0, Java 5, EJB3 Basically, if Ejb-B Exists on the server, it must be called ONLY on that server. Which leads me to believe that the class is getting loaded by a local classloader (on deployment?), then when called remotely, a different classloader is loading it. (causing the Exception) But it should work, as it should be Serialized into the destination classloader... What am I doing wrong?? Also, when reproducing this locally, Ejb-A would favor the Ejb-B on the same server, so it was difficult to reproduce. But this wasn't the case on other machines. NOTE: This all worked correctly for EJB2

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  • How can I test for an empty Breeze predicate?

    - by Megan
    I'm using Breeze to filter data requested on the client. My code looks a little like this: Client - Creating Filter Predicate var predicates = []; var criteriaPredicate = null; $.each(selectedFilterCriteria(), function (index, item) { criteriaPredicate = (index == 0) ? breeze.Predicate.create('criteriaId', breeze.FilterQueryOp.Equals, item) : criteriaPredicate.or('criteriaId', breeze.FilterQueryOp.Equals, item); if (breeze.Predicate.isPredicate(criteriaPredicate)) { predicates.push(criteriaPredicate); } // Repeat for X Filter Criteria var filter = breeze.Predicate.and(predicates); return context.getAll(filter, data); Client - Context Query function getAll(predicate, dataObservable) { var query = breeze.EntityQuery.from('Data'); if (breeze.Predicate.isPredicate(predicate)) { query = query.where(predicate); } return manager.executeQuery(query).then(success).fail(failure); } Issue I'm having an issue with the request because, if there are no filters set, I apply an "empty" predicate (due to the var filter = breeze.Predicate.and([]) line) resulting in a request like http://mysite/api/app/Data?$filter=. The request is an invalid OData query since the value of the $filter argument cannot be empty. Is there a good way for me to check for an empty predicate? I know I can refactor my client code to not use a predicate unless there is at least one filterable item, but I thought I would check first to see if I overlooked some property or method on the Breeze Predicate.

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