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  • How to lazy process an xml documentwith hexpat?

    - by Florian
    In my search for a haskell library that can process large (300-1000mb) xml files i came across hexpat. There is an example in the Haskell Wiki that claims to -- Process document before handling error, so we get lazy processing. For testing purposes i have redirected the output to /dev/null and throw a 300mb file at it. Memory consumption kept rising until i had to kill the process. Now i removed the error handling from the process function: process :: String -> IO () process filename = do inputText <- L.readFile filename let (xml, mErr) = parse defaultParseOptions inputText :: (UNode String, Maybe XMLParseError) hFile <- openFile "/dev/null" WriteMode L.hPutStr hFile $ format xml hClose hFile return () As a result the function now uses constant memory. Why does the error handling result in massive memory consumption? As far as i understand xml and mErr are two seperate unevaluated thunks after the call to parse. Does format xml evaluate xml and build the evaluation tree of 'mErr'? If yes is there a way to handle the error while using constant memory? http://www.haskell.org/haskellwiki/Hexpat/

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  • What happens when a computer program runs?

    - by gaijinco
    I know the general theory but I can't fit in the details. I know that a program resides in the secondary memory of a computer. Once the program begins execution it is entirely copied to the RAM. Then the processor retrive a few instructions (it depends on the size of the bus) at a time, puts them in registers and executes them. I also know that a computer program uses two kinds of memory: stack and heap, which are also part of the primary memory of the computer. The stack is used for non-dynamic memory, and the heap for dynamic memory (for example, everything related to the new operator in C++) What I can't understand is how those two things connect. At what point is the stack used for the execution of the instructions? Instructions go from the RAM, to the stack, to the registers?

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  • Use a jquery UI slider to control the resizing of a youtube video.

    - by HV
    Hi, I have a resizable div with the video width and height 100% of the div. I can resize it using the corners but I want to control this with a ui slider and maintain the "aspectRatio: 16/9" that .resizable() provides. This is what I have so far <script> $(function(){ var slide_int = null; function update_slider(){ var offset = $('.ui-slider-handle').offset(); var value = $('#slider-range-max').slider('option', 'value'); $('#Youtube').width(+value); } $('#slider-range-max').slider({ step: 5, min: 200, max: 950, start: function(event, ui){ $('#amount').empty(); slide_int = setInterval(update_slider, 5); }, slide: function(event, ui){ setTimeout(update_slider, 5); }, stop: function(event, ui){ clearInterval(slide_int); slide_int = null; } $('#Youtube') .resizable({aspectRatio: 16/9});}); The Slider <div id="slider-range-max"></div> Div <div id="Youtube"> <object width="100%" height="100%"> <param name="movie" value="http://www.youtube.com/v/JC7aWY5chyI&hl=en_US&fs=1&"> </param> <param name="allowFullScreen" value="true"> </param> <param name="allowscriptaccess" value="always"> </param> <embed src="http://www.youtube.com/v/JC7aWY5chyI&hl=en_US&fs=1&" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" allowscriptaccess="always" allowfullscreen="true" width="100%" height="100%"></embed> </object> </div> Thanks

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  • bitfield mask calculation macro

    - by Aidan Cully
    We have a set of C macros, here, for using the preprocessor to do bitfield operations, and we run into warnings when attempting to use these macros in visual studio. The problem can be demonstrated very easily: #define BITFIELD_WIDTHMASK(Width) \ ((Width) >= 32 ? ~0x0ul : (1ul << (Width)) - 1) unsigned long foo(void) { return BITFIELD_WIDTHMASK(32); } Compiling this with MSVC yields the warning: test.c(12) : warning C4293: '<<' : shift count negative or too big, undefined behavior This isn't a behavior problem - the << operator won't be used in this case, and that should be detected at compile time. But does anyone have any suggestions about how to rewrite the macro to avoid the warning? Or, failing that, how to redesign the macro interface for this? Thanks in advance

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  • Get the first and last posts in a thread

    - by Grampa
    I am trying to code a forum website and I want to display a list of threads. Each thread should be accompanied by info about the first post (the "head" of the thread) as well as the last. My current database structure is the following: threads table: id - int, PK, not NULL, auto-increment name - varchar(255) posts table: id - int, PK, not NULL, auto-increment thread_id - FK for threads The tables have other fields as well, but they are not relevant for the query. I am interested in querying threads and somehow JOINing with posts so that I obtain both the first and last post for each thread in a single query (with no subqueries). So far I am able to do it using multiple queries, and I have defined the first post as being: SELECT * FROM threads t LEFT JOIN posts p ON t.id = p.thread_id ORDER BY p.id LIMIT 0, 1 The last post is pretty much the same except for ORDER BY id DESC. Now, I could select multiple threads with their first or last posts, by doing: SELECT * FROM threads t LEFT JOIN posts p ON t.id = p.thread_id ORDER BY p.id GROUP BY t.id But of course I can't get both at once, since I would need to sort both ASC and DESC at the same time. What is the solution here? Is it even possible to use a single query? Is there any way I could change the structure of my tables to facilitate this? If this is not doable, then what tips could you give me to improve the query performance in this particular situation?

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  • Swing modal dialog refuses to close - sometimes!

    - by Zarkonnen
    // This is supposed to show a modal dialog and then hide it again. In practice, // this works about 75% of the time, and the other 25% of the time, the dialog // stays visible. // This is on Ubuntu 10.10, running: // OpenJDK Runtime Environment (IcedTea6 1.9) (6b20-1.9-0ubuntu1) // This always prints // setVisible(true) about to happen // setVisible(false) about to happen // setVisible(false) has just happened // even when the dialog stays visible. package modalproblemdemo; import java.awt.Frame; import javax.swing.JDialog; import javax.swing.SwingUtilities; public class Main { public static void main(String[] args) { final Dialogs d = new Dialogs(); new Thread() { @Override public void run() { d.show(); d.hide(); } }.start(); } static class Dialogs { final JDialog dialog; public Dialogs() { dialog = new JDialog((Frame) null, "Hello World", /*modal*/ true); dialog.setSize(400, 200); } public void show() { SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { dialog.setLocationRelativeTo(null); System.out.println("setVisible(true) about to happen"); dialog.setVisible(true); }}); } public void hide() { SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { System.out.println("setVisible(false) about to happen"); dialog.setVisible(false); System.out.println("setVisible(false) has just happened"); }}); } } }

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  • Is the C++ compiler optimizer allowed to break my destructor ability to be called multiple times?

    - by sharptooth
    We once had an interview with a very experienced C++ developer who couldn't answer the following question: is it necessary to call the base class destructor from the derived class destructor in C++? Obviously the answer is no, C++ will call the base class destructor automagically anyway. But what if we attempt to do the call? As I see it the result will depend on whether the base class destructor can be called twice without invoking erroneous behavior. For example in this case: class BaseSafe { public: ~BaseSafe() { } private: int data; }; class DerivedSafe { public: ~DerivedSafe() { BaseSafe::~BaseSafe(); } }; everything will be fine - the BaseSafe destructor can be called twice safely and the program will run allright. But in this case: class BaseUnsafe { public: BaseUnsafe() { buffer = new char[100]; } ~BaseUnsafe () { delete[] buffer; } private: char* buffer; }; class DerivedUnsafe { public: ~DerivedUnsafe () { BaseUnsafe::~BaseUnsafe(); } }; the explicic call will run fine, but then the implicit (automagic) call to the destructor will trigger double-delete and undefined behavior. Looks like it is easy to avoid the UB in the second case. Just set buffer to null pointer after delete[]. But will this help? I mean the destructor is expected to only be run once on a fully constructed object, so the optimizer could decide that setting buffer to null pointer makes no sense and eliminate that code exposing the program to double-delete. Is the compiler allowed to do that?

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  • How to Detect Trusted Connection in Crystal Reports using VB.NET?

    - by Michael
    I have some Crystal Reports connecting to a Sql Server db that I would like to detect whether the connection is trusted or whether I need to supply the log on info (reports are not supplied by me so I can't control the connect method). If I just blindly supply login credentials, it won't connect if it is a trusted connection. The following does not work: oRpt = oCR.OpenReport("C:\MyReport.rpt") if oRpt.Database.Tables(1).ConnectionProperties.Item("Integrated Security") = True then 'trusted connection else 'supply login credentials end if It gives the following error: Operator '=' is not defined for type 'IConnectionProperty' and type 'Boolean'. I cannot find how create a construct in vb.net for IConnectionProperty. I can't find any documents from Crystal that explain it. I am using Crystal Reports XI - Developer

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  • C# - Calling ToString() on a Reference Type

    - by nfplee
    Given two object arrays I need to compare the differences between the two (when converted to a string). I've reduced the code to the following and the problem still exists: public void Compare(object[] array1, object[] array2) { for (var i = 0; i < array1.Length; i++) { var value1 = GetStringValue(array1[i]); var value2 = GetStringValue(array2[i]); } } public string GetStringValue(object value) { return value != null && value.ToString() != string.Empty ? value.ToString() : ""; } The code executes fine no matter what object arrays I throw at it. However if one of the items in the array is a reference type then somehow the reference is updated. This causes issues later. It appears that this happens when calling ToString() against the object reference. I have updated the GetStringValue method to the following (which makes sure the object is either a value type or string) and the problem goes away. public string GetStringValue(object value) { return value != null && (value.GetType().IsValueType || value is string) && value.ToString() != string.Empty ? value.ToString() : ""; } However this is just a temporary hack as I'd like to be able to override the ToString() method on my reference types and compare them as well. I'd appreciate it if someone could explain why this is happening and offer a potential solution. Thanks

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  • Do something else if ReadWriteSlimlock is held

    - by user43838
    Hi everyone, I have implemented ReaderWriterLockSlim, Now i don't want it to wait at the lock. I want to do something else if the lock is held. I considered using is isWriterLockHeld but it does not makes much sense to me, Since if two threads come in at the same time and enter the if statement at the same time one will still be waiting at the lock here is my code. ReaderWriterLockSlim rw = GetLoadingLock(parameters); rw = GetLoadingLock(parameters); try { rw.EnterWriteLock(); item = this.retrieveCacheItem(parameters.ToString(), false); if (item != null) { parameters.DataCameFromCache = true; // if the data was found in the cache, return it immediately return item.data; } else { try { object loaditem = null; itemsLoading[parameters.ToString()] = true; loaditem = this.retrieveDataFromStore(parameters); return loaditem; } finally { itemsLoading.Remove(parameters.ToString()); } } } finally { rw.ExitWriteLock(); } Can anyone please guide me in the right direction with this. Thanks

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  • MySQL Update query with left join and group by

    - by Rob
    I am trying to create an update query and making little progress in getting the right syntax. The following query is working: SELECT t.Index1, t.Index2, COUNT( m.EventType ) FROM Table t LEFT JOIN MEvents m ON (m.Index1 = t.Index1 AND m.Index2 = t.Index2 AND (m.EventType = 'A' OR m.EventType = 'B') ) WHERE (t.SpecialEventCount IS NULL) GROUP BY t.Index1, t.Index2 It creates a list of triplets Index1,Index2,EventCounts. It only does this for case where t.SpecialEventCount is NULL. The update query I am trying to write should set this SpecialEventCount to that count, i.e. COUNT(m.EventType) in the query above. This number could be 0 or any positive number (hence the left join). Index1 and Index2 together are unique in Table t and they are used to identify events in MEvent. How do I have to modify the select query to become an update query? I.e. something like UPDATE Table SET SpecialEventCount=COUNT(m.EventType)..... but I am confused what to put where and have failed with numerous different guesses.

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  • How can I use a compound condition in a join in Linq?

    - by Gary McGill
    Let's say I have a Customer table which has a PrimaryContactId field and a SecondaryContactId field. Both of these are foreign keys that reference the Contact table. For any given customer, either one or two contacts may be stored. In other words, PrimaryContactId can never be NULL, but SecondaryContactId can be NULL. If I drop my Customer and Contact tables onto the "Linq to SQL Classes" design surface, the class builder will spot the two FK relationships from the Customer table to the Contact table, and so the generated Customer class will have a Contact field and a Contact1 field (which I can rename to PrimaryContact and SecondaryContact to avoid confusion). Now suppose that I want to get details of all the contacts for a given set of customers. If there was always exactly one contact then I could write something like: from customer in customers join contact in contacts on customer.PrimaryContactId equals contact.id select ... ...which would be translated into something like: SELECT ... FROM Customer INNER JOIN Contact ON Customer.FirstSalesPersonId = Contact.id But, because I want to join on both the contact fields, I want the SQL to look something like: SELECT ... FROM Customer INNER JOIN Contact ON Customer.FirstSalesPersonId = Contact.id OR Customer.SecondSalesPersonId = Contact.id How can I write a Linq expression to do that?

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  • Java: any problems/negative sides of keeping SoftReference to ArrayList in HttpSession?

    - by westla7
    My code is doing the following (just as an example, and the reason that I specify package path to java.lang.ref.SoftReference is to note that it's not my own implementaiton :-): ... List<String> someData = new ArrayList<String>(); someData.add("Value1"); someData.add("Value2"); ... java.lang.ref.SoftReference softRef = new SoftReference(someData); ... HttpSession session = request.getSession(true); session.setAttribute("mySoftRefData", softRef); ... and later: ... java.lang.ref.SoftReference softRef = session.getAttribute("mySoftRefData"); if (softRef != null && softRef.get() != null) { List<String> someData = (List<String>)softRef.get(); // do something with it. } ... Any disadvantages? Which I do not see? Thank you!

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  • Not getting key value from Identity column back after inserting new row with SubSonic ActiveRecord

    - by mikedevenney
    I'm sure I'm missing the obvious answer here, but could use a hand. I'm new to SubSonic and using version 3. I've got myself to the point of being able to query and insert, but I'm stuck with how I would get the value of the identity column back after my insert. I saw another post that mentioned Linq Templates. I'm not using those (at least I don't think I am...?) TIA ... UPDATE ... So I've been debugging through my code watching how the SubSonic code works and I found where the indentity column is being ignored. I use int as the datatype for my ID columns in the database and set them as identity. Since int is a non-nullable data type in c# the logical test in the Add method (public void Add(IDataProvider provider)) that checks if there is a value in the key column by doing a (key==null) could be the issue. The code that gets the new value for the identity field is in the 'true path', since an int can't be null and I use ints as my identity column data types this test will never pass. The ID field for my object has a 0 in it that I didn't put there. I assume it's set during the initialization of the object. Am I off base here? Is the answer to change my data types in the database? Another question (more a curiosity). I noticed that some of the properties in the generated classes are declared with a ? after the datatype. I'm not familiar with this declaration construct... what gives? There are some declared as an int (non key fields) and others that are declared as int? (key fields). Does this have something to do with how they're treated at initialization? Any help is appreciated! --BUMP--

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  • jQuery basics - selector

    - by rkrauter
    I feel dumb.. Why is my "header" div not being selected? It's background color is not being changed. I am learning about the + operator so I am not looking for a different selector. E + F an F element immediately preceded by an E element $("#divA + div").css("background-color", "red"); Html <div id="divA"> <div> Header</div> Lorem Ipsum is simply dummy text of the printing and typesetting industry. </div> Thanks!

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  • Passing models between controllers in MVC4

    - by wtfsven
    I'm in the middle of my first foray into web development with MVC4, and I've run into a problem that I just know is one of the core issues in web development in general, but can't seem to wrap my mind around it. So I have two models: Employee and Company. Employee has a Company, therefore /Employee/Create contains a field that is either a dropdown list for selecting an existing Company, or an ActionLink to /Company/Create if none exists. But here's the issue: If a user has to create a Company, I need to preserve the existing Employee model across both Views--over to /Company/Create, then back to /Employee/Create. So my first approach was to pass the Employee model to /Company/Create with a @Html.ActionLink("Add...", "Create", "Organization", Model , null), but then when I get to Company's Create(Employee emp), all of emp's values are null. The second problem is that if I try to come back to /Employee/Create, I'd be passing back an Employee, which would resolve to the POST Action. Basically, the whole idea is to save the state of the /Employee/Create page, jump over to /Company/Create to create a Company record, then back to /Employee/Create to finish creating the Employee. I know there is a well understood solution to this because , but I can't seem to phase it well enough to get a good Google result out of it. I've though about using Session, but it seems like doing so would be a bit of a kludge. I'd really like an elegant solution to this.

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  • Battery drains even with app off screen, could it be Location Services doing it?

    - by John Jorsett
    I run my app, which uses GPS and Bluetooth, then hit the back button so it goes off screen. I verified via LogCat that the app's onDestroy was called. OnDestroy removes the location listeners and shuts down my app's Bluetooth service. I look at the phone 8 hours later and half the battery charge has been consumed, and my app was responsible according the phone's Battery Use screen. If I use the phone's Settings menu to Force Stop the app, this doesn't occur. So my question is: do I need to do something more than remove the listeners to stop Location Services from consuming power? That's the only thing I can think of that would be draining the battery to that degree when the app is supposedly dormant. Here's my onStart() where I turn on the location-related stuff and Bluetooth: @Override public void onStart() { super.onStart(); if(D_GEN) Log.d(TAG, "MainActivity onStart, adding location listeners"); // If BT is not on, request that it be enabled. // setupBluetooth() will then be called during onActivityResult if (!mBluetoothAdapter.isEnabled()) { Intent enableIntent = new Intent(BluetoothAdapter.ACTION_REQUEST_ENABLE); startActivityForResult(enableIntent, REQUEST_ENABLE_BT); // Otherwise, setup the Bluetooth session } else { if (mBluetoothService == null) setupBluetooth(); } // Define listeners that respond to location updates mLocationManager = (LocationManager) this.getSystemService(Context.LOCATION_SERVICE); mLocationManager.requestLocationUpdates(LocationManager.GPS_PROVIDER, GPS_UPDATE_INTERVAL, 0, this); mLocationManager.addGpsStatusListener(this); mLocationManager.addNmeaListener(this); } And here's my onDestroy() where I remove them: public void onDestroy() { super.onDestroy(); if(D_GEN) Log.d(TAG, "MainActivity onDestroy, removing update listeners"); // Remove the location updates if(mLocationManager != null) { mLocationManager.removeUpdates(this); mLocationManager.removeGpsStatusListener(this); mLocationManager.removeNmeaListener(this); } if(D_GEN) Log.d(TAG, "MainActivity onDestroy, finished removing update listeners"); if(D_GEN) Log.d(TAG, "MainActivity onDestroy, stopping Bluetooth"); stopBluetooth(); if(D_GEN) Log.d(TAG, "MainActivity onDestroy finished"); }

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  • Creating a process in ASP.NET MVC controller

    - by GRKamath
    I have a requirement to run an application through my MVC controller. To get the installation path I used following link (I used answer provided by Fredrik Mörk). It worked and I could able to run the exe through a process. The problem occurred when I deployed this solution on IIS where it did not create the process as it was creating in local dev environment. Can anybody tell me how to create a windows process through a solution which is hosted on IIS ? private string GetPathForExe(string fileName) { private const string keyBase = @"SOFTWARE\Wow6432Node\MyApplication"; RegistryKey localMachine = Registry.LocalMachine; RegistryKey fileKey = localMachine.OpenSubKey(string.Format(@"{0}\{1}", keyBase, fileName)); object result = null; if (fileKey != null) { result = fileKey.GetValue("InstallPath"); } fileKey.Close(); return (string)result; } public void StartMyApplication() { Process[] pname = Process.GetProcessesByName("MyApplication"); if (pname.Length == 0) { string appDirectory = GetPathForExe("MyApplication"); Directory.SetCurrentDirectory(appDirectory); ProcessStartInfo procStartInfo = new ProcessStartInfo("MyApplication.exe"); procStartInfo.WindowStyle = ProcessWindowStyle.Hidden; Process proc = new Process(); proc.StartInfo = procStartInfo; proc.Start(); } }

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  • Purpose of boost::checked_delete

    - by Channel72
    I don't understand the purpose of boost::checked_delete. The documentation says: The C++ Standard allows, in 5.3.5/5, pointers to incomplete class types to be deleted with a delete-expression. When the class has a non-trivial destructor, or a class-specific operator delete, the behavior is undefined. Some compilers issue a warning when an incomplete type is deleted, but unfortunately, not all do, and programmers sometimes ignore or disable warnings. The supplied function and class templates can be used to prevent these problems, as they require a complete type, and cause a compilation error otherwise. So the C++ standard allows you to delete incomplete types, which causes undefined behavior if the type has a non-trivial destructor. What? How can an incomplete type have any destructor at all? Isn't an incomplete type just a prototype?

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  • How to call a bool function...

    - by Gerri
    Hello, I did not see anything that address my particular code problem. I have a bool function in a class; the bool function is named: bool Triplet::operator ==(const Triplet& operand)const And I am trying to call it in Main but having problems just getting the call right. Apparently if I leave out any thing in the wording it gives an error that I have too few aruguments and if I try to use the entire wording of the function, I get the error that I need a semi-colon, but I already have a semi-colon at the end of the call, so I know that something else is wrong and I simply cannot figure out what is wrong! Any help would be appreciated! Thanks in advance.

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  • Merge n files using a C program

    - by Amal
    I am writing a download Accelerator. So I download a file from the webserver into n parts. Now I want to merge the files into 1 single file. So I use the following code. And the file names are in the correct order. But the output file I am getting is different from the original download file. Can you tell me where could the error be ?C int cbd_merge_files(const char** filenames, int n, const char* final_filename) { FILE* fp = fopen(final_filename, "wb"); if (fp == NULL) return 1; char buffer[4097]; for (int i = 0; i < n; ++i) { const char* fname = filenames[i]; FILE* fp_read = fopen(fname, "rb"); if (fp_read == NULL) return 1; int n; while ((n = fread(buffer, sizeof(char), 4096, fp_read))) { int k = fwrite(buffer, sizeof(char), n, fp); if (!k) return 1; } fclose(fp_read); } fclose(fp); return 0; }

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  • Memory Leakage using datatables

    - by Vix
    Hi, I have situation in which i'm compelled to retrieve 30,000 records each to 2 datatables.I need to do some manipulations and insert into records into the SQL server in Manipulate(dt1,dt2) function.I have to do this in 15 times as you can see in the for loop.Now I want to know what would be the effective way in terms of memory usage.I've used the first approach.Please suggest me the best approach. (1) for (int i = 0; i < 15; i++) { DataTable dt1 = GetInfo(i); DataTable dt2 = GetData(i); Manipulate(dt1,dt2); } (OR) (2) DataTable dt1 = new DataTable(); DataTable dt2 = new DataTable(); for (int i = 0; i < 15; i++) { dt1=null; dt2=null; dt1 = GetInfo(); dt2 = GetData(); Manipulate(dt1, dt2); } Thanks, Vix.

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  • Multiple Exception Handling in one if statement [closed]

    - by JA3N
    I am having trouble with throwing and catching exceptions. Here is the code for assignSeat(), assignSeat is called in a try block in another class. void assignSeat(String passengerName, int x, int y) throws SeatOccupiedException, InvalidPassengerNameException { Seat tSeat = airplane.getSeat(x,y); if (tSeat!=null) { if (passengerName.isEmpty() || !passengerName.matches("[a-zA-Z]+")) { throw new InvalidPassengerNameException(); } //excluded else if else if (foundPassenger(passengerName)) { airplane.seatList.get(airplane.seatNumber(passengerName)).unOccupy(); tSeat.occupy(); for (int i = 0; i<passengers.size();i++) if (passengers.get(i).getName().equals(passengerName)) passengers.get(i).changeSeat(tSeat.getSeatName()); } else if (!tSeat.occupied) { tSeat.occupy(); addPassenger(passengerName, tSeat.getSeatName()); } else if (tSeat.occupied) { throw new SeatOccupiedException(); } } and here is the code that calls assignSeat() and is in another class (I won't copy the whole class to make it look clearer) if (afComp.currentAF != null) { try { afComp.currentAF.assignSeat(nameField.getText(), x, y); //<-Problem here, "Unhandled exception type SeatOccupiedException" } catch (SeatOccupiedException exception) //<-Problem here, "Unreachable catch block, This exception is never thrown from the try statement body" { } catch(InvalidPassengerNameException exception) //<-No problems. { } } Whats wrong with the try block? why won't it throw the SeatOccupiedException? Exception classes: SeatOccupied: package a2; public class SeatOccupiedException extends Exception { public SeatOccupiedException(){} } InvalidPassengerName: package a2; public class InvalidPassengerNameException extends Exception { public InvalidPassengerNameException() {} } Every class I have is in package a2 imports for class that calls assignSeat package a2; import java.awt.event.ActionEvent; import java.awt.event.ActionListener; import java.awt.event.MouseListener; import java.awt.event.MouseMotionListener; import java.awt.event.MouseEvent; import java.awt.BorderLayout; import javax.swing.*; import javax.swing.event.*; imports for class that has assignSeat package a2; import java.util.ArrayList;

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  • On Memory Allocation and C++

    - by Arpan
    And I quote from MSDN http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa366533(VS.85).aspx: The malloc function has the disadvantage of being run-time dependent. The new operator has the disadvantage of being compiler dependent and language dependent. Now the questions folks: a) What do we mean that malloc is run-time dependent? What kind of dynamic memory allocation functions can be independent of run-time? This statement sounds real strange. b) new is language dependent? Of course it should be right? Are HeapAlloc, LocalAlloc etc language independent? c) From a pure performance perspective are the MSVC provided routines preferable? Arpan

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  • Two entities with @ManyToOne joins the same table

    - by Ivan Yatskevich
    I have the following entities Student @Entity public class Student implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; //getter and setter for id } Teacher @Entity public class Teacher implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; //getter and setter for id } Task @Entity public class Task implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) private Long id; @ManyToOne(optional = false) @JoinTable(name = "student_task", inverseJoinColumns = { @JoinColumn(name = "student_id") }) private Student author; @ManyToOne(optional = false) @JoinTable(name = "student_task", inverseJoinColumns = { @JoinColumn(name = "teacher_id") }) private Teacher curator; //getters and setters } Consider that author and curator are already stored in DB and both are in the attached state. I'm trying to persist my Task: Task task = new Task(); task.setAuthor(author); task.setCurator(curator); entityManager.persist(task); Hibernate executes the following SQL: insert into student_task (teacher_id, id) values (?, ?) which, of course, leads to null value in column "student_id" violates not-null constraint Can anyone explain this issue and possible ways to resolve it?

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