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  • How do you reenable a validation control w/o it simultaneously performing an immediate validation?

    - by Velika2
    When I called this function to enable a validator from client javascript: `ValidatorEnable(document.getElementById('<%=valPassportOtherText.ClientID%>'), true); //enable` validation control the required validation control immediately performed it validation, found the value in the associated text box blank and set focus to the textbox (because SetFocusOnError was set to true). As a result, the side effect was that focus was shifted to the control that was associated with the Validation control, i teh example, txtSpecifyOccupation. <asp:TextBox ID="txtSpecifyOccupation" runat="server" AutoCompleteType="Disabled" CssClass="DefaultTextBox DefaultWidth" MaxLength="24" Rows="2"></asp:TextBox> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="valSpecifyOccupation" runat="server" ControlToValidate="txtSpecifyOccupation" ErrorMessage="1.14b Please specify your &lt;b&gt;Occupation&lt;/b&gt;" SetFocusOnError="True">&nbsp;Required</asp:RequiredFieldValidator> Perhaps there is a way to enable the (required) validator without having it simultaneously perform the validation (at least until the user has tabbed off of it?) I'd like validation of the txtSpecifyOccupation textbox to occur only on a Page submit or when the user has tabbed of the required txtSpecifyoccupation textbox. How can I achieve this?

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  • Choosing the right web service

    - by Ratan Sharma
    My website currently working in ASP.NET 1.1 Old Process In our database we have huge amount of data stored for a decoding purpose. We have to update this huge set of data table each week(Data is supplied from a vendor). In our website (in asp.net 1.1) we query our database to decode information. New process Now instead of storing data in our database and query them, we want to replace this through the web service, AS now the vendor is supplying us a DLL, which will give us the decoded information. Information on the DLL provided by the vendor The DLL provided, can only be added in 4.0 sites. SO that also impleies that i can not directly add the dll to my 1.1 site. This DLL is exposing certain methods, we simply have to add the DLL refernce in our web service and call the method and fetch the needed information. Thus we will not have to store those information in our database. So which type of web service I should go for (asmx OR WCF) that will use the DLLs provided by vendor to fetch the decoded information ?? Flexibility i am looking for in the web service are: It can be consumed from asp.net 1.1 site directly and also using jQuery ajax. It can be consumed from other web services running on the server. It can be consumed from some windows services running from the server. NOTE : Moreover we have a plan to migrate our website from asp.net 1.1 to 4.0 version in future.So it should be that much supportive for future upgrade.

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  • Violation of PRIMARY KEY constraint 'PK_

    - by abhi
    hi am trying to write a code in which i need to perform a update but on primary keys how do i achieve it i have written the following code: kindly look at it let me know where m wrong Protected Sub rgKMSLoc_UpdateCommand(ByVal source As Object, ByVal e As Telerik.Web.UI.GridCommandEventArgs) Handles rgKMSLoc.UpdateCommand Try KAYAReqConn.Open() If TypeOf e.Item Is GridEditableItem Then Dim strItemID As String = CType(e.Item.FindControl("hdnID"), HiddenField).Value Dim strrcmbLocation As String = CType(e.Item.FindControl("rcmbLocation"), RadComboBox).SelectedValue Dim strKubeLocation As String = CType(e.Item.FindControl("txtKubeLocation"), TextBox).Text Dim strCSVCode As String = CType(e.Item.FindControl("txtCSVCode"), TextBox).Text SQLCmd = New SqlCommand("SELECT * FROM MstKMSLocKubeLocMapping WHERE LocationID= '" & rcmbLocation.SelectedValue & "'", KAYAReqConn) Dim dr As SqlDataReader dr = SQLCmd.ExecuteReader If dr.HasRows Then lblMsgWarning.Text = "<font color=red>""User ID Already Exists" Exit Sub End If dr.Close() SQLCmd = New SqlCommand("UPDATE MstKMSLocKubeLocMapping SET LocationID=@Location,KubeLocation=@KubeLocation,CSVCode=@CSVCode WHERE LocationID = '" & strItemID & "'", KAYAReqConn) SQLCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Location", Replace(strrcmbLocation, "'", "''")) SQLCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@KubeLocation", Replace(strKubeLocation, "'", "''")) SQLCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@CSVCode", Replace(strCSVCode, "'", "''")) SQLCmd.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Status", "A") SQLCmd.ExecuteNonQuery() lblMessageUpdate.Text = "<font color=blue>""Record Updated SuccessFully" SQLCmd.Dispose() rgKMSLoc.Rebind() End If Catch ex As Exception Response.Write(ex.ToString) Finally KAYAReqConn.Close() End Try End Sub this is my designer page' Location: ' / ' DataSourceID="dsrcmbLocation" DataTextField="Location" DataValueField="LocationID" Height="150px" Kube Location: ' Class="forTextBox" MaxLength="4" onkeypress="return filterInput(2,event);" CSV Code: ' Class="forTextBox" MaxLength="4" onkeypress="return filterInput(2,event);" <tr class="tableRow"> <td colspan="2" align="center" class="tableCell"> <asp:ImageButton ID="btnUpdate" runat="server" CommandName="Update" CausesValidation="true" ValidationGroup="Update" ImageUrl="~/Images/update.gif"></asp:ImageButton> <asp:ImageButton ID="btnCancel" runat="server" CausesValidation="false" CommandName="Cancel" ImageUrl="~/Images/No.gif"></asp:ImageButton> </td> </tr> </table> </FormTemplate> </EditFormSettings> Locationid is my primary key

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  • razor websites not working and all dlls are present

    - by Michael Tot Korsgaard
    I've uploaded a .cshtml website to a surftown server, and I got some problems running the code. But I have a problem with it running the Razor code. This is how the page renders:(Default.cshtml) I've already checked for internal communication problems. And this is my result: But then why isn't it working, and how can I fix it? I've heard that it can be a problem with views but how whould I fix this if that's the case? My websites folder tree: (And some files too) App_Code App_Data packages Microsoft.AspNet.Razor.2.0.20710.0 Microsoft.Asp.Net.WebPages.2.0.20710.0 Microsoft.Asp.Net.WebPages.Administration.2.0.20710.0 Microsoft.Asp.Net.WebPages.Data.2.0.20710.0 Microsoft.Asp.Net.WebPages.WebData.2.0.20710.0 Microsoft.Web.Infrastructure.1.0.0.0 NuGet.Core.1.6.2 bin packages jQuery.2.0.3 Content Scripts Tools Microsoft.AspNet.Mvc.4.0.30506.0 lib net40 Microsoft.AspNet.Razor.2.0.30506.0 lib net40 Microsoft.AspNet.WebPages.2.0.30506.0 lib net40 Pages Chapters Read.cshtml Edit Move Chapter.cshtml Entry.cshtml Entries EnterEntry.cshtml EnterNote.cshtml Login Login.cshtml Search Result.cshtml Scripts Addons TinyMCE Styles CSS Views _Layout.cshtml Default.cshtml My web.config file looks like this: <?xml version="1.0"?> <configuration> <system.web> <compilation debug="true" targetFramework="4.0"> <buildProviders> <add extension=".cshtml" type="System.Web.WebPages.Razor.RazorBuildProvider, System.Web.WebPages.Razor"/> </buildProviders> <assemblies> <add assembly="System.Web.Mvc, Version=4.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35"/> </assemblies> </compilation> </system.web> <connectionStrings> <add connectionString="database connection" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient"/> </connectionStrings> </configuration> EDIT: Is it a problem that all my files are .cshtml?

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  • 2 Mutually exclusive RadioButton "Lists"

    - by user72603
    I think this has to be THE most frustrating thing I've ever done in web forms. Yet one would think it would be the easiest of all things in the world to do. That is this: I need 2 separate lists of radiobuttons on my .aspx page. One set allows a customer to select an option. The other set does also but for a different purpose. But only one set can have a selected radiobutton. Ok I've tried this using 2 asp.net Radiobuttonlists controls on the same page. Got around the nasty bug with GroupName (asp.net assigns the control's uniqueID which prevents the groupname from ever working because now, 2 radiobuttonlists can't have the same groupname for all their radiobuttons because each radiobuttonlist has a different uniqueID thus the bug assigns the unique ID as the name attribute when the buttons are rendered. since the name sets are different, they are not mutually exclusive). Anyway, so I created that custom RadioButtonListcontrol and fixed that groupname problem. But when ended up happening is when I went to put 2 instances of my new custom radiobuttonlist control on my .aspx page, all was swell until I noticed that every time I checked for radiobuttonlist1.SelectedValue or radiobuttonlist2.SelectedValue (did not matter which I was checking) the value always spit back string.empty and i was not able to figure out why (see http://forums.asp.net/t/1401117.aspx). Ok onto the third try tonight and into the break of dawn (no sleep). I tried to instead just scrap trying to use 2 custom radiobuttonlists altogether because of that string.empty issue and try to spit out 2 sets of radiobuttonlists via using 2 asp.net repeaters and a standard input HTML tag inside. Got that working. Ok but the 2 lists still are not mutually exclusive. I can select a value in the first set of radiobuttons from repeater1 and same goes for repeater2. I cannot for the life of me get the "sets" to be mutually exclusive sets of radiobuttons.

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  • User Control not loading based on location

    - by mwright
    I have an ASP.net MVC solution that uses nested master pages to load content. On the first Master page I load a header, then have the Content Placeholder, and then load a footer. This master page is referenced by another master page which adds some additional information based on the user being logged in or not. When I load a page that references these master pages, the header loads, but the footer does not. If I move the footer up above the Content Place Holder it loads into the page. Any ideas why this might be the case? The code for the master page that contains the footer is as follows: <%@ Master Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewMasterPage" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head runat="server"> <title> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="TitleContent" runat="server" /> </title> </head> <body> <div class="header"> <% Html.RenderPartial("Header"); %> </div> <div> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="MainContent" runat="server"> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </div> <div class="footer"> <% Html.RenderPartial("Footer"); %> </div> </body> </html>

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  • Change button's enabled property via checkbox

    - by Ivan Stoyanov
    I tried this javascript but it doesn't work - here I need to change the button's enabled property to true when the checkbox is checked and to false when it isn't. This is my code. <tr> <td colspan="2" align="center"> <asp:CheckBox ID="cbAcceptAgreement" runat="server" OnClientClick="acceptAgreement(this)" /> <asp:Label ID="lblUserAgreement" runat="server" Text="I accept the " /> <asp:HyperLink ID="hlUserAgreement" runat="server" Text="User Agreement" NavigateUrl="Help/UserAgreement.aspx" /> </td> </tr> <tr> <td colspan="2" align="center"> <asp:Button ID="btnRegister" runat="server" Text="Register" /> </td> </tr> <script type="text/javascript"> function acceptAgreement(Obj) { document.getElementById('<%=btnRegister.ClientID%>').disabled = !obj.checked; } </script> Can you help me solve this problem?

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  • How do you reenable a validation control w/o it simultaneously perform an immediate validation?

    - by Velika2
    When I called this function to enable a validator from client javascript: `ValidatorEnable(document.getElementById('<%=valPassportOtherText.ClientID%>'), true); //enable` validation control the required validation control immediately performed it validation, found the value in the associated text box blank and set focus to the textbox (because SetFocusOnError was set to true). As a result, the side effect was that focus was shifted to the control that was associated with the Validation control, i teh example, txtSpecifyOccupation. <asp:TextBox ID="txtSpecifyOccupation" runat="server" AutoCompleteType="Disabled" CssClass="DefaultTextBox DefaultWidth" MaxLength="24" Rows="2"></asp:TextBox> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="valSpecifyOccupation" runat="server" ControlToValidate="txtSpecifyOccupation" ErrorMessage="1.14b Please specify your &lt;b&gt;Occupation&lt;/b&gt;" SetFocusOnError="True">&nbsp;Required</asp:RequiredFieldValidator> Perhaps there is a way to enable the (required) validator without having it simultaneously perform the validation (at least until the user has tabbed off of it?) I'd like validation of the txtSpecifyOccupation textbox to occur only on a Page submit or when the user has tabbed of the required txtSpecifyoccupation textbox. How can I achieve this?

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  • Does anyone knows the algorithm how Facebook detects the images when adding a link

    - by Edelcom
    When you add a link to your Facebook page, after some processing, Facebook presents you a next/prev button to choose an image linked to the url your are inserting. Obviously, Facebook reads the html-page and displays the images found on the url you insert. Does anyone knows what algorithm Facebook uses to decide what images to show ? If I insert a link to : http://www.staplijst.be/lachende-wandelaars-aalter-aktivia-003.asp, only 11 images are detected. The one I want, the one at the top right corner, is not included in the list. If I insert a link to http://www.staplijst.be/stichting-kennedymars-rijsbergen-zundert-nederland-knblo-nl-81996.asp, 19 images are displayed (including the one I want (the one at the right top corner of the text area). Both pages are build using asp code but are functionally the same. I thought that it has something to do with the image size, but can't find any deciding factor there. I will investigate some furhter, because if I know what Facebook is looking for, I can make sure that the correct images are included on the page (since they are dynamic pages build with classic asp). But if anyone has any idea ? Help would be appreciated.

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  • MVC ASP.Net how do I add a second model to a view? i.e. Add a dropdown list to a page with a html grid?

    - by John S
    I have been able to find lots of examples of adding a Dropdown list to a view but I need to add a dropdown list to a view that also has a Webgrid on it. This entails two different models and from what I see I can only have one per view. The DDL will be filled from one model and the grid from the other. I'm just trying to filter the displayed data in the grid with the data selected in the ddl. Any examples or articles would be greatly appreciated. TIA

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  • Datalist itemcommand design?

    - by Surya sasidhar
    hi, in my application i am using datalist to display the images, i put properties of repeatcolumn=4 and reapeatdirection=horizontal. It is displaying good when there r more than or 4 images if there r only one or two or three images the gap between images r too long. if i have only one image the image displayed in datalist in the middle of the datalist. how can i solve this problem. i think you people understand my problem this is my datalist source code... datalist width="100%" <ItemTemplate > <table width="100%" > <tr> <td > <asp:ImageButton ID="imgeFrien" runat ="Server" Width="110px" Height ="100px" CommandName ="Image" CommandArgument ='<%# Eval("userid") %>' ImageUrl ='<%# "~/Userimages/"+ Eval("myimage") %>' /> </td> </tr> <tr> <td > <asp:Label ID="lblFrieNam" runat ="Server" Font-Names ="verdana" Text ='<%# Eval("username") %>'></asp:Label> </td> </tr> </table> </ItemTemplate> </asp:DataList>

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  • Nerd Dinner tutorial question (can't pull data off Model)

    - by Alexander
    I am just following the tutorial about NerdDinner and was stuck because when I am implementing the "Index" View Template I got no data from it. It seems that when I loop around in the code below: <asp:Content ID="Title" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> Upcoming Dinners </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Main" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <h2>Upcoming Dinners</h2> <ul> <% foreach (var dinner in Model) { %> <li> <%=Html.ActionLink(dinner.Title, "Details", new { id=dinner.DinnerID }) %> on <%=Html.Encode(dinner.EventDate.ToShortDateString())%> @ <%=Html.Encode(dinner.EventDate.ToShortTimeString())%> </li> <% } %> </ul> </asp:Content> There seems to be nothing in the Model... why is this? I am pretty sure there's data in the database because the details view template worked. FYI I am following the tutorial up to this page

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  • getting CS1502 compiler error on dev environment but not production.

    - by nw
    When I try to run my ASP.NET app from my development environment I get the following error message: Compiler Error Message: CS1502: The best overloaded method match for 'mmars.Printing.printFunctions.SetPrintSummaryProperties(mmars.contextInfo, ref mmars.Printing.printObjSummary)' has some invalid arguments. When I publish and run on our production server I don't get this error. It seems to compile fine when I build from the build menu (in fact if I change the second argument of the bolded function call below, i get a compiler error in visual studio), but now i've suddenly started getting this error message at runtime. So another question I have in addition to getting rid of the error is why is the .NET development server even trying to do JIT compilation on my project if it is already compiled into a DLL? Printing.printObjSummary myPrintObj = new Printing.printObjSummary(); Printing.printFunctions.SetPrintSummaryProperties(ci, ref myPrintObj); printObjects.Add(myPrintObj); This seems to have just suddenly appeared from nowhere today and it's extremely frustrating. Also, though there are no warnings at compile-time, when I get redirected to the page with that first compilation error there are many warnings like the following: Warning: CS0436: The type 'mmars.MMARSSummaryDataItem' in 'c:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\3dad423c\40569048\App_Code.b0rgpkzr.4.cs' conflicts with the imported type 'mmars.MMARSSummaryDataItem' in 'c:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\3dad423c\40569048\assembly\dl3\7179c19a\345f948c_ece7ca01\mmars.DLL'. Using the type defined in 'c:\WINDOWS\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\Temporary ASP.NET Files\root\3dad423c\40569048\App_Code.b0rgpkzr.4.cs'. What's the deal with that? Is the webserver complaining about name conflicts in the source file and dll resulting from the source file?

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  • ASP.NET MVC, Web API, Razor : Microsoft prendra en compte les contributions externes pour ces produits open source

    ASP.NET MVC, Web API, Razor : Microsoft prendra en compte les contributions externes pour ces produits open source Microsoft vient d'annoncer qu'il allait publier sous licence open source Apache 2.0 le code source de Web Pages et ASP.NET Web API. Web Pages est la plateforme sur laquelle repose le nouveau moteur de vue Razor, la première version avait été publiée avec WebMatrix 1 et ASP.NET MVC 3. Web Pages est actuellement disponible en version 2 beta. ASP.NET Web API, quant à elle, permet aux développeurs d'exposer leurs applications, données et services sur le web directement à travers HTTP. La technologie avait été introduite avec ASP.NET MVC 4 beta. Le passage à l'op...

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  • EF4 Code First - Many to many relationship issue

    - by Yngve B. Nilsen
    Hi! I'm having some trouble with my EF Code First model when saving a relation to a many to many relationship. My Models: public class Event { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Tag> Tags { get; set; } } public class Tag { public int Id { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public virtual ICollection<Event> Events { get; set; } } In my controller, I map one or many TagViewModels into type of Tag, and send it down to my servicelayer for persistence. At this time by inspecting the entities the Tag has both Id and Name (The Id is a hidden field, and the name is a textbox in my view) The problem occurs when I now try to add the Tag to the Event. Let's take the following scenario: The Event is already in my database, and let's say it already has the related tags C#, ASP.NET If I now send the following list of tags to the servicelayer: ID Name 1 C# 2 ASP.NET 3 EF4 and add them by first fetching the Event from the DB, so that I have an actual Event from my DbContext, then I simply do myEvent.Tags.Add to add the tags.. Problem is that after SaveChanges() my DB now contains this set of tags: ID Name 1 C# 2 ASP.NET 3 EF4 4 C# 5 ASP.NET This, even though my Tags that I save has it's ID set when I save it (although I didn't fetch it from the DB)

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  • Why is my user control not instanciated on a postback?

    - by Antoine
    Hi, I'd like to set the trigger of an UpdatePanel to a user control outside the UpdatePanel on the same page . The user control is added at design time, not at runtime. If I statically declare the trigger, I get an error "A control with ID 'xx' cannot be found for the trigger in UpdatePanel". I tried to add the trigger at runtime in Page_Init or Page_Load, but it fails with the user control being null, although it has ViewState enabled. Has someone an idea on how to solve this? Here is the code of the user control: <%@ Control Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="ComponentDropDownControl.ascx.cs" Inherits="ComponentDropDownControl" EnableViewState="true" %> <asp:DropDownList ID="ComponentDropDown" runat="server" DataSourceID="ComponentFile" DataTextField="name" DataValueField="name" OnSelectedIndexChanged="ComponentDropDown_SelectedIndexChanged" AutoPostBack="True" EnableTheming="True"> </asp:DropDownList><asp:XmlDataSource ID="ComponentFile" runat="server" DataFile="~/App_Data/Components.xml" XPath="//component"></asp:XmlDataSource> And here it is in the aspx page: <%@ Page Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/MasterPage.master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="create.aspx.cs" Inherits="create" Title="Create task" %> <%@ Register Src="ComponentDropDownControl.ascx" TagName="ComponentDropDownControl" TagPrefix="uc1" %> ... <uc1:ComponentDropDownControl ID="CustomComponentDropDown" runat="server" EnableViewState="true" /> In the Page_Load function of the aspx page, the following lines work at first time, but fail on the first PostBack (line 2, CustomComponentDropDown is null). AsyncPostBackTrigger trigger = new AsyncPostBackTrigger(); trigger.ControlID = CustomComponentDropDown.UniqueID.ToString(); UpdatePanel1.Triggers.Add(trigger);

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  • asp.net Can I force every page to inherit from a base page? Also should some of this logic be in my master page?

    - by Bex
    Hi! I have a web app that has a base page. Each page needs to inherit from this base page as it contains properties they all need as well as dealing with the login rights. My base page has some properties, eg: IsRole1, IsRole2, currentUserID, Role1Allowed, Role2Allowed. On the init of each page I set the properties "Role1Allowed" and "Role2Allowed" Private Sub Page_Init(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Init Role1Allowed = True Role2Allowed= False End Sub The basepage then decides if the user needs redirecting. 'Sample code so not exactly what is going to be, bug gives the idea Protected Overridable Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) If Role1Allowed And Not Role1 Then 'Redirect somewhere End If End Sub The page then must override this pageload if they need anything else in it, but making sure they call the base pageload first. Protected Overrides Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load MyBase.Page_Load(sender, e) If Not IsPostBack Then BindGrid() End If End Sub The other properties (IsRole1, IsRole, currentUserID) are also accessible by the page so it can be decided if certain things need doing based on the user. (I hope this makes sense) Ok so I have 2 questions Should this functionality be in the base page or should it somehow be in the master, and if so how would I get access to all the properties if it was? As there are multiple people working on this project and creating pages some are forgetting to inherit from this basepage, or call the base pageload when overriding it. Is there any way to force them to do this? Thanks for any help. bex

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  • Databinding expression for retrieving value of related collection using LINQ

    - by joshb
    I have a GridView that is bound to a LINQDataSource control that is returning a collection of customers. Within my DataGrid I need to display the home phone number of a customer, if they have one. The phone numbers of a customer are stored in a separate table with a foreign key pointing to the customer table. The following binding expression gets me the first phone number for a customer: <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="LastName" SortExpression="LastName"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="PhoneLabel" runat="server" Text='<%# Eval("Phones[0].PhoneNumber") %>'></asp:Label> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> I need to figure out how to get the home phone number specifically (filter based on phone type) and handle the scenario where the customer does not have a home phone in the database. Right now it's throwing an out of range exception if the customer does not have any phone numbers. I've tried using the Where operator with a lambda expression to filter the phone type but it doesn't work: <%# Eval("Phones.Where(p => p.PhoneTypeId == 2).PhoneNumber") %> Solutions or links to any good articles on the subject would be much appreciated.

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  • Is it possible to spoof or reuse VIEWSTATE or detect if it is protected from modification?

    - by Peter Jaric
    Question ASP and ASP.NET web applications use a value called VIEWSTATE in forms. From what I understand, this is used to persist some kind of state on the client between requests to the web server. I have never worked with ASP or ASP.NET and need some help with two questions (and some sub-questions): 1) Is it possible to programmatically spoof/construct a VIEWSTATE for a form? Clarification: can a program look at a form and from that construct the contents of the base64-encoded VIEWSTATE value? 1 a) Or can it always just be left out? 1 b) Can an old VIEWSTATE for a particular form be reused in a later invocation of the same form, or would it just be luck if that worked? 2) I gather from http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms972976.aspx#viewstate_topic12 that it is possible to turn on security so that the VIEWSTATE becomes secure from spoofing. Is it possible for a program to detect that a VIEWSTATE is safeguarded in such a way? 2 a) Is there a one-to-one mapping between the occurrence of EVENTVALIDATION values and secure VIEWSTATEs? Regarding 1) and 2), if yes, can I have a hint about how I would do that? For 2) I am thinking I could base64-decode the value and search for a string that always is found in unencrypted VIEWSTATEs. "First:"? Something else? Background I have made a small tool for detecting and exploiting so called CSRF vulnerabilities. I use it to quickly make proof of concepts of such vulnerabilities that I send to the affected site owners. Quite often I encounter these forms with a VIEWSTATE, and these I don't know if they are secure or not. Edit 1: Clarified question 1 somewhat. Edit 2: Added text in italics.

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  • How to Deploy an ASP.NET Web API- and Browser-based Application to a Production Environment

    - by user69508
    (Please forgive if this is posted in an incorrect forum. We didn’t know exactly where to post it.) We have an ASP.NET Web API single page application - a browser-based app running in IIS to serve up HTML5/CSS3/JavaScript, which talks to the ASP.NET Web API endpoint only to access a database and transfer JSON data. Everything is working great in our development environment - that is, we have one Visual Studio solution with an ASP.NET Web API project and two class library projects for data access. While development and testing on development boxes, using IIS Express to a localhost:port to run the site and access the Web API, everything is fine. Now we need to move it to a production environment (and we’re having problems - or just not understanding what needs to be done). The production environment is all internal (nothing will be exposed on the public Internet). There are two domains. One domain, the corporate domain, is where all users login normally. The other domain, the process domain, contains the SQL Server instance that our app and Web API will need to access. The IT staff wants to put a DMZ between the two domains to house the IIS app and shield the users on the corporate domain from having access into the process domain directly. So, I guess what they want is: corp domain (end users) <– firewall (open port 80) <– DMZ (web server running IIS) <– firewall (open port 80 or 1433????) <– process domain (IIS for Web API and SQL Server) We’re developers and don’t really understand all the networking aspects, so we’re wondering how to deploy our browser/Web API application in this scenario. Do we need to break up our application so that all the client code (HTML5/CSS3/JavaScript/images/etc.) is on the IIS server in the DMZ, while the Web API gets installed on the server in the process domain? Or, does the entire app (client code and Web API) stay together on the IIS server in the DMZ, which then somehow accesses the SQL Server instance to get data? From the IIS server and app in the DMZ, would you simply access the Web API on the server in the process domain by going to "http://server/appname/api/getitmes"? In the second firewall between the DMZ and the process domain, would you have to open port 1433 or just port 80 since the Web API is a HTTP endpoint? Or, is there some better way of deployment (i.e., how ASP.NET Web API single page applications written all in HTML5 and JavaScript supposed to be deployed to production environments?)? I’m sure there are other questions, but we’ll start with these. Thanks!!! (Note: the servers are Win2k8 R2, SQL Server 2k8 R2, and IIS 7.5.)

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  • page variable in a repeater

    - by carrot_programmer_3
    Hi I'm having a bit of an issue with a asp.net repeater I'm building a categories carousel with the dynamic categories being output by a repeater. Each item is a LinkButton control that passes an argument of the category id to the onItemClick handler. a page variable is set by this handler to track what the selected category id is.... public String SelectedID { get { object o = this.ViewState["_SelectedID"]; if (o == null) return "-1"; else return (String)o; } set { this.ViewState["_SelectedID"] = value; } } problem is that i cant seem to read this value while iterating through the repeater as follows... <asp:Repeater ID="categoriesCarouselRepeater" runat="server" onitemcommand="categoriesCarouselRepeater_ItemCommand"> <ItemTemplate> <%#Convert.ToInt32(Eval("CategoryID")) == Convert.ToInt32(SelectedID) ? "<div class=\"selectedcategory\">":"<div>"%> <asp:LinkButton ID="LinkButton1" CommandName="select_category" CommandArgument='<%#Eval("CategoryID")%>' runat="server"><img src="<%#Eval("imageSource")%>" alt="category" /><br /> </div> </ItemTemplate> </asp:Repeater> calling <%=SelectedID%> in the item template works but when i try the following expression the value of SelectedID returns empty.. <%#Convert.ToInt32(Eval("CategoryID")) == Convert.ToInt32(SelectedID) ? "match" : "not a match"%> the value is being set as follows... protected void categoriesCarouselRepeater_ItemCommand(object source, RepeaterCommandEventArgs e) { SelectedID = e.CommandArgument); } Any ideas whats wrong here?

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  • onKeypress Enter Key event on textfield not working in Chrome

    - by rlcrews
    I have a question along the same vein as the one asked here regarding how the enter key is handled in chrome. The effect I am trying to accomplish is to allow the enter key to call a click event of one a button while focus in within the current field. To accomplish this I am using the following code: javascript: <script type="text/javascript"> //attempting to capture keypress for chrome here but this is not working $("#txtContainer").keypress(function (e) { if (e.keyCode == '13') { e.preventDefault(); doClick(buttonname, e); return false; } }); function doClick(buttonName, e) { var key; if (window.event) key = window.event.keyCode; //IE else key = e.which; //firefox if (key == 13) { var btn = document.getElementById(buttonName); if (btn != null) { btn.click(); event.keyCode = 0 } } } </script> within the aspx <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:LinkButton ID="newBtn" runat="server" OnClick="btnLogin_Click" Text="ASP Link" /> <asp:TextBox ID="txtContainer" runat="server" Width="100" /> <asp:Label ID="time_lbl" runat="server" /> </div> </form> and within the code behind aspx.cs protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!IsPostBack) { txtContainer.Attributes.Add("onKeyPress", "doClick('" + newBtn.ClientID + "',event)"); } } public void btnLogin_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { time_lbl.Text = txtContainer.Text; } The above code works fine in FF and IE however chrome continues to submit the entire form vs. capturing the keypress on the enterkey. Thank you for any suggestions.

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