Search Results

Search found 11381 results on 456 pages for 'intellectual property'.

Page 398/456 | < Previous Page | 394 395 396 397 398 399 400 401 402 403 404 405  | Next Page >

  • Doubt about instance creation by using Spring framework ???

    - by Arthur Ronald F D Garcia
    Here goes a command object which needs to be populated from a Spring form public class Person { private String name; private Integer age; /** * on-demand initialized */ private Address address; // getter's and setter's } And Address public class Address { private String street; // getter's and setter's } Now suppose the following MultiActionController @Component public class PersonController extends MultiActionController { @Autowired @Qualifier("personRepository") private Repository<Person, Integer> personRepository; /** * mapped To /person/add */ public ModelAndView add(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response, Person person) throws Exception { personRepository.add(person); return new ModelAndView("redirect:/home.htm"); } } Because Address attribute of Person needs to be initialized on-demand, i need to override newCommandObject to create an instance of Person to initiaze address property. Otherwise, i will get NullPointerException @Component public class PersonController extends MultiActionController { /** * code as shown above */ @Override public Object newCommandObject(Class clazz) thorws Exception { if(clazz.isAssignableFrom(Person.class)) { Person person = new Person(); person.setAddress(new Address()); return person; } } } Ok, Expert Spring MVC and Web Flow says Options for alternate object creation include pulling an instance from a BeanFactory or using method injection to transparently return a new instance. First option pulling an instance from a BeanFactory can be written as @Override public Object newCommandObject(Class clazz) thorws Exception { /** * Will retrieve a prototype instance from ApplicationContext whose name matchs its clazz.getSimpleName() */ getApplicationContext().getBean(clazz.getSimpleName()); } But what does he want to say by using method injection to transparently return a new instance ??? Can you show how i implement what he said ??? ATT: I know this funcionality can be filled by a SimpleFormController instead of MultiActionController. But it is shown just as an example, nothing else

    Read the article

  • Is it possible to parameterize a MEF import?

    - by Josh Einstein
    I am relatively new to MEF so I don't fully understand the capabilities. I'm trying to achieve something similar to Unity's InjectionMember. Let's say I have a class that imports MEF parts. For the sake of simplicity, let's take the following class as an example of the exported part. [Export] [PartCreationPolicy(CreationPolicy.NonShared)] public class Logger { public string Category { get; set; } public void Write(string text) { } } public class MyViewModel { [Import] public Logger Log { get; set; } } Now what I'm trying to figure out is if it's possible to specify a value for the Category property at the import. Something like: public class MyViewModel { [MyImportAttribute(Category="MyCategory")] public Logger Log { get; set; } } public class MyOtherViewModel { [MyImportAttribute(Category="MyOtherCategory")] public Logger Log { get; set; } } For the time being, what I'm doing is implementing IPartImportsSatisfiedNotification and setting the Category in code. But obviously I would rather keep everything neatly in one place.

    Read the article

  • How do I wait for a C# event to be raised?

    - by Evan Barkley
    I have a Sender class that sends a Message on a IChannel: public class MessageEventArgs : EventArgs { public Message Message { get; private set; } public MessageEventArgs(Message m) { Message = m; } } public interface IChannel { public event EventHandler<MessageEventArgs> MessageReceived; void Send(Message m); } public class Sender { public const int MaxWaitInMs = 5000; private IChannel _c = ...; public Message Send(Message m) { _c.Send(m); // wait for MaxWaitInMs to get an event from _c.MessageReceived // return the message or null if no message was received in response } } When we send messages, the IChannel sometimes gives a response depending on what kind of Message was sent by raising the MessageReceived event. The event arguments contain the message of interest. I want Sender.Send() method to wait for a short time to see if this event is raised. If so, I'll return its MessageEventArgs.Message property. If not, I return a null Message. How can I wait in this way? I'd prefer not to have do the threading legwork with ManualResetEvents and such, so sticking to regular events would be optimal for me.

    Read the article

  • Hibernate collection mapping challenge

    - by Geln Yang
    Hi, There is a table Item like, code,name 01,parent1 02,parent2 0101,child11 0102,child12 0201,child21 0202,child22 Create a java object and hbm xml to map the table.The Item.parent is a Item whose code is equal to the first two character of its code : class Item{ string code; string name; Item parent; List<Item> children; .... setter/getter.... } <hibernate-mapping> <class name="Item" table="Item"> <id name="code" length="4" type="string"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="name" length="50" not-null="true" /> <!--====================================== --> <many-to-one name="parent" class="Item" not-found="ignore"></many-to-one> <bag name="children"></bag> <!--====================================== --> </class> </hibernate-mapping> How to definition the mapping relationship? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • JPA/Hibernate Parent/Child relationship

    - by NubieJ
    Hi I am quite new to JPA/Hibernate (Java in general) so my question is as follows (note, I have searched far and wide and have not come across an answer to this): I have two entities: Parent and Child (naming changed). Parent contains a list of Children and Children refers back to parent. e.g. @Entity public class Parent { @Id @Basic @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) @Column(name = "PARENT_ID", insertable = false, updatable = false) private int id; /* ..... */ @OneToMany(cascade = { CascadeType.ALL }, fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumn(name = "PARENT_ID", referencedColumnName = "PARENT_ID", nullable = true) private Set<child> children; /* ..... */ } @Entity public class Child { @Id @Basic @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) @Column(name = "CHILD_ID", insertable = false, updatable = false) private int id; /* ..... */ @ManyToOne(cascade = { CascadeType.REFRESH }, fetch = FetchType.EAGER, optional = false) @JoinColumn(name = "PARENT_ID", referencedColumnName = "PARENT_ID") private Parent parent; /* ..... */ } I want to be able to do the following: Retrieve a Parent entity which would contain a list of all its children (List), however, when listing Parent (getting List, it of course should omit the children from the results, therefore setting FetchType.LAZY. Retrieve a Child entity which would contain an instance of the Parent entity. Using the code above (or similar) results in two exceptions: Retrieving Parent: A cycle is detected in the object graph. This will cause infinitely deep XML... Retrieving Child: org.hibernate.LazyInitializationException: failed to lazily initialize a collection of role: xxxxxxxxxxx, no session or session was closed When retrieving the Parent entity, I am using a named query (i.e. calling it specifically) @NamedQuery(name = "Parent.findByParentId", query = "SELECT p FROM Parent AS p LEFT JOIN FETCH p.children where p.id = :id") Code to get Parent (i.e. service layer): public Parent findByParentId(int parentId) { Query query = em.createNamedQuery("Parent.findByParentId"); query.setParameter("id", parentId); return (Parent) query.getSingleResult(); } Why am I getting a LazyInitializationException event though the List property on the Parent entity is set as Lazy (when retrieving the Child entity)?

    Read the article

  • Replacing text with apostrophe text via sed in applescript

    - by bob stinton
    I have an applescript to find and replace a number of strings. I ran in the problem of having a replacement string which contained & some time ago, but could get around it by putting \& in the replacement property list. However an apostrophe seems to be far more annoying. Using a single apostrophe just gets ignored (replacement doesn't contain it), using \' gives a syntax error (Expected “"” but found unknown token.) and using \' gets ignored again. (You can keep doing that btw, even number gets ignored uneven gets syntax error) I tried replacing the apostrophe in the actual sed command with double quotes (sed "s…" instead of sed 's…'), which works in the command line, but gives a syntax error in the script (Expected end of line, etc. but found identifier.) The single quotes mess with the shell, the double quotes with applescript. I also tried '\'' as was suggested here and '"'"' from here. Basic script to get the type of errors: set findList to "Thats.nice" set replaceList to "That's nice" set fileName to "Thats.nice.whatever" set resultFile to do shell script "echo " & fileName & " | sed 's/" & findList & "/" & replaceList & " /'"

    Read the article

  • Can't process UIImage from UIImagePickerController and app crashes..

    - by eimaikala
    Hello guys, I am new to iPhone sdk and can't figure out why my application crashes. In the .h I have: UIImage *myimage; //so as it can be used as global -(IBAction) save; @property (nonatomic, retain) UIImage *myimage; In the .m I have: @synthesize myimage; - (void)viewDidLoad { self.imgPicker = [[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; self.imgPicker.allowsImageEditing = YES; self.imgPicker.delegate = self; self.imgPicker.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypePhotoLibrary; } -(void)imagePickerController:(UIImagePickerController *)picker didFinishPickingMediaWithInfo:(NSDictionary *)info { myimage = [[info objectForKey:UIImagePickerControllerOriginalImage]retain]; [picker dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; } -(IBAction) process{ myimage=[self process:myimage var2:Val2 var3:Val3 var4:Val4]; UIImageWriteToSavedPhotosAlbum(myimage, nil, nil, nil); [myimage release]; } When the button process is clicked, the application crashes and really I have no idea why this happens. When i change it to: -(IBAction) process{ myimage =[UIImage imageNamed:@"im1.jpg"]; myimage=[self process:myimage var2:Val2 var3:Val3 var4:Val4]; UIImageWriteToSavedPhotosAlbum(myimage, nil, nil, nil); [myimage release]; } the process button works perfectly... Any help would be appreciated. Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Deal with undefined values in code or in the template?

    - by David
    I'm writing a web application (in Python, not that it matters). One of the features is that people can leave comments on things. I have a class for comments, basically like so: class Comment: user = ... # other stuff where user is an instance of another class, class User: name = ... # other stuff And of course in my template, I have <div>${comment.user.name}</div> Problem: Let's say I allow people to post comments anonymously. In that case comment.user is None (undefined), and of course accessing comment.user.name is going to raise an error. What's the best way to deal with that? I see three possibilities: Use a conditional in the template to test for that case and display something different. This is the most versatile solution, since I can change the way anonymous comments are displayed to, say, "Posted anonymously" (instead of "Posted by ..."), but I've often been told that templates should be mindless display machines and not include logic like that. Also, other people might wind up writing alternate templates for the same application, and I feel like I should be making things as easy as possible for the template writer. Implement an accessor method for the user property of a Comment that returns a dummy user object when the real user is undefined. This dummy object would have user.name = 'Anonymous' or something like that and so the template could access it and print its name with no error. Put an actual record in my database corresponding to a user with user.name = Anonymous (or something like that), and just assign that user to any comment posted when nobody's logged in. I know I've seen some real-world systems that operate this way. (phpBB?) Is there a prevailing wisdom among people who write these sorts of systems about which of these (or some other solution) is the best? Any pitfalls I should watch out for if I go one way vs. another? Whoever gives the best explanation gets the checkmark.

    Read the article

  • winUserControl in VS2010 - properties are not visible in designer

    - by mj82
    I have a problem with (I suppose) my Visual Studio 2010 Express environment: when I design my own UserControl, in Properties grid I can't see public properties of that control. They are however visible in the project, that reference this control. As it's Express Edition, I create new empty project, then add new UserControl to it. Then, for a test, I put following code: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Drawing; using System.Data; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; namespace Project1 { public partial class UserControl1 : UserControl { private int myNumber; [Browsable(true)] public int MyNumber { get { return myNumber; } set { myNumber = value; } } public UserControl1() { InitializeComponent(); } } } In VS 2008, as I remember, that should be enogh to show MyNumber property in Properties grid, even without [Browsable(true)] attribute. In VS 2010 however, when I double click UserControl1.cs in Solution Explorer and look in Properties, I don't see MyNumber. When I reference and use this control in another project, there is an access to it's properties. I've tried to competly reinstall VS 2010 environment, including SP1, but with no success. Do you have any idea what can be wrong? By the way: none of these attributes are working, either: [Browsable(true)] [EditorBrowsable(EditorBrowsableState.Always)] [DesignerSerializationVisibility(DesignerSerializationVisibility.Content)] [Bindable(true)] Best regards, Marcin

    Read the article

  • Why adding custom objects to List<T> in ApplicationSettingsBase via constructor doesn't work?

    - by BadNinja
    This is pretty closely related to another SO question. Using the example below, could someone explain to me why adding a new List<Foo> where each of Foo's properties are explicitly set causes the ApplicationSettingsBase.Save() method to correctly store the data, whereas adding a new Foo to the list via a constructor (where the constructor sets the property values) does not work? Thanks! public class Foo { public Foo(string blah, string doh) { this.Blah = blah; this.Doh = doh; } public Foo() { } public string Blah { get; set; } public string Doh { get; set; } } public sealed class MySettings : ApplicationSettingsBase { [UserScopedSetting] public List<Foo> MyFoos { get { return (List<Foo>)this["MyFoos"]; } set { this["MyFoos"] = value; } } } // Here's the question... private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { MySettings mySettings = new MySettings(); // Adding new Foo's to the list like this doesn't work. List<Foo> theList = new List<Foo>() { new Foo("doesn't","work") }; // But doing it like this DOES work. List<Foo> theList = new List<Foo>() { new Foo() {Blah = "DOES", Doh = "work"} }; mySettings.MyFoos = theList; mySettings.Save(); }

    Read the article

  • datatables add combobox as a column

    - by user403295
    Hi to all, I have got a datatable (http://www.datatables.net/). I have created and filled the table as shown below. Now I need to implement a combobox (assume that I have got 2010, 2011,2012) to allow the user select a year . then when user clicks View or Modify link, which is placed in the table, selected year will be passed to another page as a parameter. Now how can I turn my year column into a combobox?Thanks. rulesTableGlobal = $('#rulesTable').dataTable( { //"bJQueryUI": true, "sPaginationType": "full_numbers", "aoColumns": [ { "sTitle": "Id", "sWidth" : "20px" }, { "sTitle": "Property ID" , "sWidth" : "20px"}, { "sTitle": "Adress" , "sWidth" : "130px"}, { "sTitle": "Suburb" , "sWidth" : "50px"}, { "sTitle": "Bond", "sWidth" : "25px" }, { "sTitle": "Year", "sWidth" : "25px" , "aType": "dom-select"}, { "sTitle": "View or Modify" , "sWidth" : "50px"}] }); function addPropertyToTable( lt_id, lt_uid, address, suburb_name, min_guests, max_guests, bondFee,cleaningFee,bookingServiceFee, weekly_rate,nightly_rate){ var _lt_id = "\'" + lt_id + "\'"; var viewLink = '<A href="#" onclick="forwardDetails('+_lt_id+');">View and Modify</A>'; var year= ""; $('#rulesTable').dataTable().fnAddData( [ lt_id, lt_uid, address, suburb_name, bondFee,cleaningFee,bookingServiceFee, weekly_rate,nightly_rate, min_guests, max_guests, year, viewLink ] ); } }); }

    Read the article

  • UIImagePickerController crashes on rapid scrolling, slower than photos app

    - by vvanhee
    Most of the time, my image picker works perfectly (iOS 4.2.1). However, if I scroll very rapidly up and down about 4-6 times through my camera roll of about 300 photos, I get a crash. This never happens with the "photos" app on the same iPhone 3Gs. Also, I'm noticing that the stock "photos" app scrolls much more smoothly than my image picker. Has anyone else noticed this behavior? I'd be interested if others could attempt this in their own apps and see if they crash. I don't think it's related to other objects hogging memory on my iPhone because it's a simple app, and this happens right after I start the app. It also doesn't seem to be related to messages sent to other released objects or overreleasing of other objects in viewdidunload, based on my crash logs and the fact that the simulator responds well to simulated memory warnings. I think it might be a bug in the internal implementation of the UIImagePickerController... This is how I start the picker. I've done this multiple ways (including setting a retain property for the UIImagePickerController in my header and releasing on dealloc). This seems to be the best way (crashes least): UIImagePickerController *picker = [[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; picker.delegate = self; picker.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeSavedPhotosAlbum; picker.allowsEditing = YES; [self presentModalViewController:picker animated:YES]; [picker release]; This is the crashed thread (I get various exception types): Exception Type: SIGSEGV Exception Codes: SEGV_ACCERR at 0xfffffffff4faafa4 Crashed Thread: 8 ... Thread 8 Crashed: 0 CoreFoundation 0x000494ea -[__NSArrayM replaceObjectAtIndex:withObject:] + 98 1 PhotoLibrary 0x00008e0f -[PLImageTable _segmentAtIndex:] + 527 2 PhotoLibrary 0x00008a21 -[PLImageTable _mappedImageDataAtIndex:] + 221 3 PhotoLibrary 0x0000893f -[PLImageTable dataForEntryAtIndex:] + 15 4 PhotoLibrary 0x000087e7 PLThumbnailManagerImageDataAtIndex + 35 5 PhotoLibrary 0x00008413 -[PLThumbnailManager _dataForPhoto:format:width:height:bytesPerRow:dataWidth:dataHeight:imageDataOffset:imageDataFormat:preheat:] + 299 6 PhotoLibrary 0x000b6c13 __-[PLThumbnailManager preheatImageDataForImages:withFormat:]_block_invoke_1 + 159 7 libSystem.B.dylib 0x000d6680 _dispatch_call_block_and_release + 20 8 libSystem.B.dylib 0x000d6ba0 _dispatch_worker_thread2 + 128 9 libSystem.B.dylib 0x0007b251 _pthread_wqthread + 265

    Read the article

  • Spring Form: Submitting extra parameter on submit buttons

    - by theringostarrs
    Hi, I am working on a form with a bunch of selection criteria that will generate a report when the form is submitted. I also have a number of different reports that can be generated form this same criteria, and want the type of report to be selectable by using a tab system where each tab clicked on submits the form and generates the correct report. I was to do this by passing an extra parameter into the form to switch onto the right form type I am new to Spring, and from the guidance of an elder was told to use an input button for each tab with the following approximate syntax: <input type="submit" name="${form.selectionValues.tabSelection}" value="1" /> tabSelection form property of the SelectionValues object is not being set. I wasn't surprised ;) DIdn't think this would work. So I am wondering how can I can submit a post back from a button in Spring containing the form values plus an extra tabSelection parameter and value? How should I mark up this mechanism? Will I have to do anything to the form controller to register this extra parameter? The original markup I was using to build this page, was using HTML anchor tags instead of buttons for the tab links, which would be much better for the CSS, is there any way to trigger a full form submit using an anchor href? I know this will be a GET request instead of a POST, and not associated with the form.. so I dont expect this to work.. just trying to think of solutions! I would prefer to use the priginal markup, as the styles are there. Any help would be appreciated

    Read the article

  • accessing private variable from member function in PHP

    - by Carson Myers
    I have derived a class from Exception, basically like so: class MyException extends Exception { private $_type; public function type() { return $this->_type; //line 74 } public function __toString() { include "sometemplate.php"; return ""; } } Then, I derived from MyException like so: class SpecialException extends MyException { private $_type = "superspecial"; } If I throw new SpecialException("bla") from a function, catch it, and go echo $e, then the __toString function should load a template, display that, and then not actually return anything to echo. This is basically what's in the template file <div class="<?php echo $this->type(); ?>class"> <p> <?php echo $this->message; ?> </p> </div> in my mind, this should definitely work. However, I get the following error when an exception is thrown and I try to display it: Fatal error: Cannot access private property SpecialException::$_type in C:\path\to\exceptions.php on line 74 Can anyone explain why I am breaking the rules here? Am I doing something horribly witty with this code? Is there a much more idiomatic way to handle this situation? The point of the $_type variable is (as shown) that I want a different div class to be used depending on the type of exception caught.

    Read the article

  • Hibernate mapping Problem

    - by Geln Yang
    Hi, There is a table Item like, code,name 01,parent1 02,parent2 0101,child11 0102,child12 0201,child21 0202,child22 Create a java object and hbm xml to map the table.The Item.parent is a Item whose code is equal to the first two characters of its code : class Item{ String code; String name; Item parent; List<Item> children; .... setter/getter.... } <hibernate-mapping> <class name="Item" table="Item"> <id name="code" length="4" type="string"> <generator class="assigned" /> </id> <property name="name" column="name" length="50" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="parent" class="Item" not-found="ignore"> <formula> <![CDATA[ (select i.code,r.name from Item i where (case length(code) when 4 then i.code=SUBSTRING(code,1,2) else false end)) ]]> </formula> </many-to-one> <bag name="children"></bag> </class> </hibernate-mapping> I try to use formula to define the many-to-one relationship,but it doesn't work!Is there something wrong?Or is there other method? Thanks! ps,I use mysql database.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Form repopulation

    - by ListenToRick
    I have a controller with two actions: [AcceptVerbs("GET")] public ActionResult Add() { PrepareViewDataForAddAction(); return View(); } [AcceptVerbs("POST")] public ActionResult Add([GigBinderAttribute]Gig gig, FormCollection formCollection) { if (ViewData.ModelState.IsValid) { GigManager.Save(gig); return RedirectToAction("Index", gig.ID); } PrepareViewDataForAddAction(); return View(gig); } As you can see, when the form posts its data, the Add action uses a GigBinder (An implemenation of IModelBinder) In this binder I have: if (int.TryParse(bindingContext.HttpContext.Request.Form["StartDate.Hour"], out hour)) { gig.StartDate.Hour = hour; } else { bindingContext.ModelState.AddModelError("Doors", "You need to tell us when the doors open"); } The form contains a text box with id "StartDate.Hour". As you can see above, the GigBinder tests to see that the user has typed in an integer into the textbox with id "StartDate.Hour". If not, a model error is added to the modelstate using AddModelError. Since the gigs property gigs.StartDate.Hour is strongly typed, I cannot set its value to, for example, "TEST" if the user has typed this into the forms textbox. Hence, I cant set the value of gigs.StartDate.Hour since the user has entered a string rather than an integer. Since the Add Action returns the view and passes the model (return View(gig);) if the modelstate is invalid, when the form is re-displayed with validation mssages, the value "TEST" is not displayed in the textbox. Instead, it will be the default value of gig.StartDate.Hour. How do I get round this problem? I really stuck!

    Read the article

  • Applying correct bindings to WPF datatemplate to maximize reusability

    - by johncatfish
    Hi. I have a WPF application. I want to apply that datatemplate to a Listbox filled with records from Table02. Then, for each listboxitem I need to bind the combobox to the same database table (Table01), but for each listboxitem the selected item will vary. It will be a foreign key to Table01. <DataTemplate x:Key="Table01DataTemplate"> <Grid> <ComboBox ItemsSource="{Binding Model.IQueryable_Table01, RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}" SelectedValue="{Binding Table01_ForeignKey}" DisplayMemberPath="name" SelectedValuePath="id" /> <!-- Other stuff --> </Grid> </DataTemplate> <ListBox x:Name="lbTest" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource Table01DataTemplate}" /> <!-- In .cs file lbTest.DataContext = this; --> Notes: Model.IQueryable_Table01 is a property which encapsulates a Linq-to-sql call returning a IQueryable. lbTest will be filled by setting ItemsSource with a Linq-to-sql call. Is this a good way to do the bindings in a data template for a maximum reusability? I also thought of replacing AncestorType={x:Type Window} with lbTest.DataContext = this; AncestorType={x:Type Application} and lbTest.DataContext = App.Current; But it didn't work (Exception on loading) and I don't know if there's any caveats or down-sides to this approach. Is this good? Any suggestions or improvements? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Object mapping with LINQ and SubSonic

    - by Jeremy Seekamp
    I'm building a small project with SubSonic 3.0.0.3 ActiveRecord and I'm running into an issue I can't seem to get past. Here is the LINQ query: var result = from r in Release.All() let i = Install.All().Count(x => x.ReleaseId == r.Id) where r.ProductId == productId select new ReleaseInfo { NumberOfInstalls = i, Release = new Release { Id = r.Id, ProductId = r.ProductId, ReleaseNumber = r.ReleaseNumber, RevisionNumber = r.RevisionNumber, ReleaseDate = r.ReleaseDate, ReleasedBy = r.ReleasedBy } }; The ReleaseInfo object is a custom class and looks like this: public class ReleaseInfo { public Release Release { get; set; } public int NumberOfInstalls { get; set; } } Release and Install are classes generated by SubSonic. When I do a watch on result, the Release property is null. If I make this a simpler query and watch result, the value is not null. var result = from r in Release.All() let i = Install.All().Count(x => x.ReleaseId == r.Id) where r.ProductId == productId select new Release { Id = r.Id, ProductId = r.ProductId, ReleaseNumber = r.ReleaseNumber, RevisionNumber = r.RevisionNumber, ReleaseDate = r.ReleaseDate, ReleasedBy = r.ReleasedBy }; Is this an issue with my LINQ query or a limitation of SubSonic?

    Read the article

  • check properties of two objects for changes

    - by k-hoffmann
    Hi, i have to develop a mechanism to check two object properties for changes. All properties which are needed to check are marked with an attribute. Atm i - read all properties from acutal object via linq - read the corresponding property from old object - fill an own object with the two properties (old and new value) In Code the call to the workerclass looks like this public void CreateHistoryMap(BaseEntity actual, BaseEntity old) { CreateHistoryMap(actualEntity, oldEntity) .ForEach(mapEntry => CreateHistoryEntry(mapEntry), mapEntry => IfChangesDetected(mapEntry)); } CreateHistoryMap builds up the HistoryMapEntry which contains the two properties. CreateHistoryEntry build up the object which is saved to database, the IfChangesDetected check the object for changes. I have to handle own special application types to generate history values to database (like concatinating list values and so on). My problem is now, that i have to read the values of the properties twice - for change detection - and for the concreate CreateHistoryEntry How can i eliminate this problem or how can i implement the change tracking scenario with the nice c# 3.5 features? Thanks a lot.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC4: How do I keep from having multiple identical results in my lookup tables

    - by sehummel
    I'm new to ASP.NET so this may be an easy question. I'm seeding my database with several rows of dummy data. Here is one of my rows: new Software { Title = "Microsoft Office", Version = "2012", SerialNumber = "12346231434543", Platform = "PC", Notes = "Macs really rock!", PurchaseDate = "2011-12-04", Suite = true, SubscriptionEndDate = null, SeatCount = 0, SoftwareTypes = new List<SoftwareType> { new SoftwareType { Type="Suite" }}, Locations = new List<Location> { new Location { LocationName = "Paradise" }}, Publishers = new List<SoftwarePublisher> { new SoftwarePublisher { Publisher = "Microsoft" }}} But when I do this, a new row is created for each location, with the LocationName being set in each row like this. We only have two locations. How do I get it to create a LocationID property for the Software class and in my Locations class. Here is my Location class: public class Location { public int Id { get; set; } [Required] [StringLength(20)] public string LocationName { get; set; } public virtual Software Software { get; set; } } I have this line in my Software class to reference this table: public virtual List<Location> Locations { get; set; } Again, what I want when I am done is a Locations table with two entries, and a LocationID field in my Software table. How do I do this?

    Read the article

  • How can I find the jdbc connection timeout of a hibernate session

    - by StevenWilkins
    I currently have a long running thread which uses a hibernate session to perform many updates. We currently have our c3p0 connection timeout set to 20 minutes and it's timing out sometimes because of the number of updates we're performing. The solution I have is to periodically return the connection to the pool via closing the session (we have hibernate configured this way) and get a new one. Upping the timeout is not desirable because the same pool is used for the entire application. The problem is I don't know when to return the connection to the pool because I don't know what the timeout of the connection is. I know what the current setting is in our property file, but that can be changed without my knowledge at any time so it's fragile. Having a counter and returning the connection based on the number of updates I've performed is not ideal but could be my option of last resort. I have a hibernate session, how can I retrieve the connection timeout of the jdbc connection which backs the session? Using the SessionFactory and SessionFactoryImpl classes are perfectly acceptable.

    Read the article

  • What's a good way to provide additional decoration/metadata for Python function parameters?

    - by Will Dean
    We're considering using Python (IronPython, but I don't think that's relevant) to provide a sort of 'macro' support for another application, which controls a piece of equipment. We'd like to write fairly simple functions in Python, which take a few arguments - these would be things like times and temperatures and positions. Different functions would take different arguments, and the main application would contain user interface (something like a property grid) which allows the users to provide values for the Python function arguments. So, for example function1 might take a time and a temperature, and function2 might take a position and a couple of times. We'd like to be able to dynamically build the user interface from the Python code. Things which are easy to do are to find a list of functions in a module, and (using inspect.getargspec) to get a list of arguments to each function. However, just a list of argument names is not really enough - ideally we'd like to be able to include some more information about each argument - for instance, it's 'type' (high-level type - time, temperature, etc, not language-level type), and perhaps a 'friendly name' or description. So, the question is, what are good 'pythonic' ways of adding this sort of information to a function. The two possibilities I have thought of are: Use a strict naming convention for arguments, and then infer stuff about them from their names (fetched using getargspec) Invent our own docstring meta-language (could be little more than CSV) and use the docstring for our metadata. Because Python seems pretty popular for building scripting into large apps, I imagine this is a solved problem with some common conventions, but I haven't been able to find them.

    Read the article

  • Avoiding mass propagation of properties and events for exposure to ViewModels.

    - by firoso
    I have an MVVM application I am developing that is to the point where I'm ready to start putting together a user interface (my client code is largely functional) I'm now running into the issue that I'm trying to get my application data to where I need it so that it can be consumed by the view model and then bound to the view. Unfortunately, it seems that I've either got a few structural oversights, or I'm just going to have to face the reality that I need to be propogating events and raising excessive amounts of errors to notify view models that thier properties have changed. Let me go into some examples of my issue: I have a class "Unit" contained in a class "Test", contained in a class "Session" contained in a class "TestManager" which is contained in "TestDataModel" which is utilized by "TestViewModel" which is databound to by my "TestView" .... WHOA. Now, consider that Unit (the bottom of the heiarchy) has a property called "Results" that is updated periodically, I want to expose that to my viewmodel and then databind it to my view, trouble is, the only way I can really think to do this is to perpetuate events WAY up a chain that say "I've been updated!" and then request the new value... This seems like an aweful way to do this. Alternatively, I could register a static event and raise it, and have the appropriate "Unit view model" grab the event and request the update. This SEEMS better... but... static events? Is that a taboo idea? Also, having an expression like: TestDataModel.TestManager.Session.Test.Unit.Results[i] Seems REALLY gross to have on a View Model. I know this all reeks of a bad design issue, but I can't figure out what I did wrong? Should I be using more singleton/container controlled lifetimes type objects? Register object instances with static helper containers? Obviously these are hard questions to answer without being intimate with the existing structure, but if you've run into situations like this, what did you do to refactor? Should I just live with this, add mass events, and propogate them?

    Read the article

  • Use properties or methods to expose business rules in C#?

    - by Val
    I'm writing a class to encapsulate some business rules, each of which is represented by a boolean value. The class will be used in processing an InfoPath form, so the rules get the current program state by looking up values in a global XML data structure using XPath operations. What's the best (most idiomatic) way to expose these rules to callers -- properties or public methods? Call using properties Rules rules = new Rules(); if ( rules.ProjectRequiresApproval ) { // get approval } else { // skip approval } Call using methods Rules rules = new Rules(); if ( rules.ProjectRequiresApproval() ) { // get approval } else { // skip approval } Rules class exposing rules as properties public class Rules() { private int _amount; private int threshold = 100; public Rules() { _amount = someExpensiveXpathOperation; } // rule property public bool ProjectRequiresApproval { get { return _amount < threshold } } } Rules class exposing rules as methods public class Rules() { private int _amount; private int threshold = 100; public Rules() { _amount = someExpensiveXpathOperation; } // rule method public bool ProjectRequiresApproval() { return _amount < threshold; } } What are the pros and cons of one over the other?

    Read the article

  • JVM to ignore certificate name mismatch

    - by Heavy Bytes
    I know there were a lot of questions/answers about how to ignore SSL error in the code. On our dev region dev.domain.tld we have configured a app server over SSL. The certificate that is displayed is for somedev.domain.tld. There is no way to change the certificate, it will always be a domain mismatch. So when I deploy a web-service to https://dev.domain.tld and try to connect/call my webservice I get an exception: Caused by: java.security.cert.CertificateException: No name matching dev.domain.tld found And I have the somedev.domain.tld CERT in my trust store. Now, I saw a lot of samples how to change that in the code (using a Trust Manager that accepts all domains), but how do I specify to the JVM to ignore the domain mismatch when connecting to the server? Is there a -Djavax.net.ssl argument or something? Thank you! UPDATE: Or, since I am using Spring-WS, is there a way to set some property in Spring for that? (WebServiceTemplate) UPDATE I guess I'll have to do use something from Spring Security: http://static.springsource.org/spring-ws/sites/1.5/reference/html/security.html

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 394 395 396 397 398 399 400 401 402 403 404 405  | Next Page >