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  • How to implement custom JSF component for drawing chart?

    - by Roman
    I want to create a component which can be used like: <mc:chart data="#{bean.data}" width="200" height="300" /> where #{bean.data} returns a collection of some objects or chart model object or something else what can be represented as a chart (to put it simple, let's assume it returns a collection of integers). I want this component to generate html like this: <img src="someimg123.png" width="200" height="300"/> The problem is that I have some method which can receive data and return image, like: public RenderedImage getChartImage (Collection<Integer> data) { ... } and I also have a component for drawing dynamic image: <o:dynamicImage width="200" height="300" data="#{bean.readyChartImage}/> This component generates html just as I need but it's parameter is array of bytes or RenderedImage i.e. it needs method in bean like this: public RenderedImage getReadyChartImage () { ... } So, one approach is to use propertyChangedListener on submit to set data (Collection<Integer>) for drawing chart and then use <o:dynamicImage /> component. But I'd like to create my own component which receives data and draws chart. I'm using facelets but it's not so important indeed. Any ideas how to create the desired component? P.S. One solution I was thinking about is not to use <o:dynamicImage/> and use some servlet to stream image. But I don't know how to implement that correctly and how to tie jsf component with servlet and how to save already built chart images (generating new same image for each request can cause performance problems imho) and so on..

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  • 2 different routes on one page?

    - by Dejan.S
    Hi I'm pretty new with MVC2 or MVC in general. If it's one thing I get caught up with it's routes. Like now I got this scenario. Im going from the regular site to Admin. My navigation is the same partialview on both I just do a check which data to render something like this. <% if (!Request.RawUrl.Contains("Admin")){%> <% foreach (var site in Model) { %> <%= Html.MenuItem(site.BelongSite, "Sida", "Site", site.BelongSite) %> | <%} %> <%} else {%> <%= Html.ActionLink("Konfig", "Konfigurera", "Admin") %> <% } %> My route looks like this routes.MapRoute( "Admin", // Route name "Admin/{action}/{name}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Admin", action = "konfigurera", name = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); On my View called Konfigurera I got Edit sites and they use the route above and it works great. The navigation tho dont get no action assigned to it. It's just <a href='Admin/'> The navigation is in the shared folder, and it is a strongly typed. Any Ideas? I been struggling with this for about a hour now Thanks for any input

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  • ASP.NET MVC unit testing

    - by Simon Lomax
    Hi, I'm getting started with unit testing and trying to do some TDD. I've read a fair bit about the subject and written a few tests. I just want to know if the following is the right approach. I want to add the usual "contact us" facility on my web site. You know the thing, the user fills out a form with their email address, enters a brief message and hits a button to post the form back. The model binders do their stuff and my action method accepts the posted data as a model. The action method would then parse the model and use smtp to send an email to the web site administrator infoming him/her that somebody filled out the contact form on their site. Now for the question .... In order to test this, would I be right in creating an interface IDeliver that has a method Send(emailAddress, message) to accept the email address and message body. Implement the inteface in a concrete class and let that class deal with smtp stuff and actually send the mail. If I add the inteface as a parameter to my controller constructor I can then use DI and IoC to inject the concrete class into the controller. But when unit testing I can create a fake or mock version of my IDeliver and do assertions on that. The reason I ask is that I've seen other examples of people generating interfaces for SmtpClient and then mocking that. Is there really any need to go that far or am I not understanding this stuff?

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  • Calling handwritten CUDA kernel with thrust

    - by macs
    Hi, since i needed to sort large arrays of numbers with CUDA, i came along with using thrust. So far, so good...but what when i want to call a "handwritten" kernel, having a thrust::host_vector containing the data? My approach was (backcopy is missing): int CUDA_CountAndAdd_Kernel(thrust::host_vector<float> *samples, thrust::host_vector<int> *counts, int n) { thrust::device_ptr<float> dSamples = thrust::device_malloc<float>(n); thrust::copy(samples->begin(), samples->end(), dSamples); thrust::device_ptr<int> dCounts = thrust::device_malloc<int>(n); thrust::copy(counts->begin(), counts->end(), dCounts); float *dSamples_raw = thrust::raw_pointer_cast(dSamples); int *dCounts_raw = thrust::raw_pointer_cast(dCounts); CUDA_CountAndAdd_Kernel<<<1, n>>>(dSamples_raw, dCounts_raw); thrust::device_free(dCounts); thrust::device_free(dSamples); } The kernel looks like: __global__ void CUDA_CountAndAdd_Kernel_Device(float *samples, int *counts) But compilation fails with: error: argument of type "float **" is incompatible with parameter of type "thrust::host_vector *" Huh?! I thought i was giving float and int raw-pointers? Or am i missing something?

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  • OpenCV and iPhone

    - by gn-mithun
    Hello, I am writing an application to create a movie file from a bunch of images on an iPhone. I am using OpenCv. I downloaded openCv static libraries for arm(iPhones native instruction architecture) and the libraries were generated just fine. There were no problems linking to them libraries. As a first step, i was trying to create a .avi file using one image, to see if it works. But cvCreateVideoWriter always returns me a NULL value. I did some searchin and i believe its due to the codec not being present. I am trying this on the iPhone simulator. this is what i do... (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; UIImage *anImage = [UIImage imageNamed:@"1.jpg"]; IplImage *img_color = [self CreateIplImageFromUIImage:anImage]; //The image gets created just fine CvVideoWriter *writer = cvCreateVideoWriter("out.avi",CV_FOURCC('P','I','M','1'), 25,cvSize(320,480),1); //writer is always null int result = cvWriteFrame(writer, img_color); NSLog(@"\n%d",result); //hence this is also 0 all the time cvReleaseVideoWriter(&writer); } I am not sure about the the second parameter. What sort of codec or what exactly it does... I am a n00B in this. Any suggestions?

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  • Why is there no autorelease pool when I do performSelectorInBackground: ?

    - by Thanks
    I am calling a method that goes in a background thread: [self performSelectorInBackground:@selector(loadViewControllerWithIndex:) withObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:viewControllerIndex]]; then, I have this method implementation that gets called by the selector: - (void) loadViewControllerWithIndex:(NSNumber *)indexNumberObj { NSAutoreleasePool *arPool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSInteger vcIndex = [indexNumberObj intValue]; Class c; UIViewController *controller = [viewControllers objectAtIndex:vcIndex]; switch (vcIndex) { case 0: c = [MyFirstViewController class]; break; case 1: c = [MySecondViewController class]; break; default: NSLog(@"unknown index for loading view controller: %d", vcIndex); // error break; } if ((NSNull *)controller == [NSNull null]) { controller = [[c alloc] initWithNib]; [viewControllers replaceObjectAtIndex:vcIndex withObject:controller]; [controller release]; } if (controller.view.superview == nil) { UIView *placeholderView = [viewControllerPlaceholderViews objectAtIndex:vcIndex]; [placeholderView addSubview:controller.view]; } [arPool release]; } Althoug I do create an autorelease pool there for that thread, I always get this error: 2009-05-30 12:03:09.910 Demo[1827:3f03] *** _NSAutoreleaseNoPool(): Object 0x523e50 of class NSCFNumber autoreleased with no pool in place - just leaking Stack: (0x95c83f0f 0x95b90442 0x28d3 0x2d42 0x95b96e0d 0x95b969b4 0x93a00155 0x93a00012) If I take away the autorelease pool, I get a whole bunch of messages like these. I also tried to create an autorelease pool around the call of the performSelectorInBackground:, but that doesn't help. I suspect the parameter, but I don't know why the compiler complains about an NSCFNumber. Am I missing something? My Instance variables are all "nonatomic". Can that be a problem? UPDATE: I may also suspect that some variable has been added to an autorelease pool of the main thread (maybe an ivar), and now it trys to release that one inside the wrong autorelease pool? If so, how could I fix that? (damn, this threading stuff is complex ;) )

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  • How to get XML element/attribute name in SQL Server 2005

    - by OG Dude
    Hi, I have a simple procedure in SQL Server 2005 which takes some XML as input. The element attributes correspond to field names in tables. I'd like to be able to determine <elementName>, <attribNameX> dynamically as to avoid having to hardcode them into the procedure. How can I do this? The XML looks like this: <ROOT> <elementName attribName1 = "xxx" attribName2 = "yyy"/> <elementName attribName1 = "aaa" attribName2 = "bbb"/> ... </ROOT> The stored procedure like this: CREATE PROC dbo.myProc ( @XMLInput varchar(1000) ) AS BEGIN SET NOCOUNT ON DECLARE @XMLDocHandle int EXEC sp_xml_preparedocument @XMLDocHandle OUTPUT, @XMLInput SELECT someTable.someCol FROM dbo.someTable JOIN OPENXML (@XMLDocHandle, '/ROOT/elementName',1) WITH (attrib1Name int, attrib2Name int) AS XMLData ON someTable.attribName1 = XMLData.attribName1 AND someTable.attribName2 = XMLData.attribName2 EXEC sp_xml_removedocument @XMLDocHandle END GO The question has been asked here before but maybe there is a cleaner solution. Additionally, I'd like to pass the tablename as a parameter as well - I read some stuff arguing that this is bad style - so what would be a good solution for having a dynamic tablename? Thanks a lot in advance, /David

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  • pass object from JS to PHP and back

    - by Radu
    This is something that I don't think can't be done, or can't be done easy. Think of this, You have an button inside a div in HTML, when you click it, you call a php function via AJAX, I would like to send the element that start the click event(or any element as a parameter) to PHP and BACK to JS again, in a way like serialize() in PHP, to be able to restore the element in JS. Let me give you a simple example: PHP: function ajaxCall(element){ return element; } JS: callbackFunction(el){ el.color='red'; } HTML: <div id="id_div"> <input type="button" value="click Me" onClick="ajaxCall(this, callbackFunction);" /> </div> So I thing at 3 methods method 1. I can give each element in the page an ID. so the call to Ajax would look like this: ajaxCall(this.id, callbackFunction); and the callback function would be: document.getElementById(el).color='red'; This method I think is hard, beacause in a big page is hard to keep track of all ID's. method 2. I think that using xPath could be done, If i can get the exact path of an element, and in the callback function evaluate that path to reach the element. This method needs some googling, it is just an ideea. method 3. Modify my AJAX functions, so it retain the element that started the event, and pass it to the callback function as argument when something returns from PHP, so in my AJAX would look like this: eval(callbackFunction(argumentsFromPhp, element)); and the callback function would be: callbackFunction(someArgsFromPhp, el){ el.color='red'; // parse someArgsFromPhp } I think that the third option is my choise to start this experiment. Any of you has a better idea how I can accomplish this ? Thank you.

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  • Printing is not working in tomcat, when i start server with services.msc(From client side we could not print )

    - by maya
    I am using JasperReports 1.3.1 to print the report. I am sing eclipse and tomcat for development purpose. In eclipse, when i run the application, the below code will show the listed printer devices and print button. If i click the print button, the report is printing by selected device. PrintRequestAttributeSet printRequestAttributeSet = new HashPrintRequestAttributeSet(); printRequestAttributeSet.add(MediaSizeName.ISO_A5); PrintServiceAttributeSet printServiceAttributeSet = new HashPrintServiceAttributeSet(); JRPrintServiceExporter exporter = new JRPrintServiceExporter(); exporter.setParameter(JRExporterParameter.JASPER_PRINT, jasperPrint); exporter.setParameter(JRPrintServiceExporterParameter.PRINT_REQUEST_ATTRIBUTE_SET, printRequestAttributeSet); exporter.setParameter(JRPrintServiceExporterParameter.PRINT_SERVICE_ATTRIBUTE_SET, printServiceAttributeSet); exporter.setParameter(JRPrintServiceExporterParameter.DISPLAY_PAGE_DIALOG, Boolean.FALSE); exporter.setParameter(JRPrintServiceExporterParameter.DISPLAY_PRINT_DIALOG, Boolean.TRUE); exporter.exportReport(); Here I am passing jasperPrint as a parameter which i manually construted.Its working good My problem is: I created war file and pasted in tomcat Apache Software Foundation\Tomcat 6.0\webapps directory and started the tomcat by using services.msc. At this point, its not displaying the listed printer details and also not printing. I put some logger, I found that, the code is hanging with exporter.exportReport(); after this line code is not executing . Please suggest me for how to print from client side using jasper

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  • RestSharp post object to WCF

    - by steve
    Im having an issue posting an object to my wcf rest webservice. On the WCF side I have the following: [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "", Method = "POST")] public void Create(myObject object) { //save some stuff to the db } When im debugging this never gets hit - it does however get hit when I remove the parameter so im guessing ive done something wrong on the restSharp side of things. Heres my code for that part: var client = new RestClient(ApiBaseUri); var request = new RestRequest(Method.POST); request.RequestFormat = DataFormat.Xml; request.AddBody(myObject); var response = client.Execute(request); Am I doing this wrong? How can the WCF side see my object? What way should I be making the reqest? Or should I be handling it differently WCF side? Things ive tried: request.AddObject(myObject); and request.AddBody(request.XmlSerialise.serialise(myObject)); Any help and understanding in what could possibly be wrong would be much appreciated. Thanks.

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  • Problem with WHERE columnName = Data in MySQL query in C#

    - by Ryan Sullivan
    I have a C# webservice on a Windows Server that I am interfacing with on a linux server with PHP. The PHP grabs information from the database and then the page offers a "more information" button which then calls the webservice and passes in the name field of the record as a parameter. So i am using a WHERE statement in my query so I only pull the extra fields for that record. I am getting the error: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException:Invalid column name '42' Where 42 is the value from the name field from the database. my query is string selectStr = "SELECT name, castNotes, triviaNotes FROM tableName WHERE name =\"" + show + "\""; I do not know if it is a problem with my query or something is wrong with the database, but here is the rest of my code for reference. NOTE: this all works perfectly when I grab all of the records, but I only want to grab the record that I ask my webservice for. public class ktvService : System.Web.Services.WebService { [WebMethod] public string moreInfo(string show) { string connectionStr = "MyConnectionString"; string selectStr = "SELECT name, castNotes, triviaNotes FROM tableName WHERE name =\"" + show + "\""; SqlConnection conn = new SqlConnection(connectionStr); SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(selectStr, conn); DataSet ds = new DataSet(); da.Fill(ds, "tableName"); DataTable dt = ds.Tables["tableName"]; DataRow theShow = dt.Rows[0]; string response = "Name: " + theShow["name"].ToString() + "Cast: " + theShow["castNotes"].ToString() + " Trivia: " + theShow["triviaNotes"].ToString(); return response; } }

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  • C# reflection instantiation

    - by NickLarsen
    I am currently trying to create a generic instance factory for which takes an interface as the generic parameter (enforced in the constructor) and then lets you get instantiated objects which implement that interface from all types in all loaded assemblies. The current implementation is as follows:     public class InstantiationFactory     {         protected Type Type { get; set; }         public InstantiationFactory()         {             this.Type = typeof(T);             if (!this.Type.IsInterface)             {                 // is there a more descriptive exception to throw?                 throw new ArgumentException(/* Crafty message */);             }         }         public IEnumerable GetLoadedTypes()         {             // this line of code found in other stack overflow questions             var types = AppDomain.CurrentDomain.GetAssemblies()                 .SelectMany(a = a.GetTypes())                 .Where(/* lambda to identify instantiable types which implement this interface */);             return types;         }         public IEnumerable GetImplementations(IEnumerable types)         {             var implementations = types.Where(/* lambda to identify instantiable types which implement this interface */                 .Select(x = CreateInstance(x));             return implementations;         }         public IEnumerable GetLoadedImplementations()         {             var loadedTypes = GetLoadedTypes();             var implementations = GetImplementations(loadedTypes);             return implementations;         }         private T CreateInstance(Type type)         {             T instance = default(T);             var constructor = type.GetConstructor(Type.EmptyTypes);             if (/* valid to instantiate test */)             {                 object constructed = constructor.Invoke(null);                 instance = (T)constructed;             }             return instance;         }     } It seems useful to me to have my CreateInstance(Type) function implemented as an extension method so I can reuse it later and simplify the code of my factory, but I can't figure out how to return a strongly typed value from that extension method. I realize I could just return an object:     public static class TypeExtensions     {         public object CreateInstance(this Type type)         {             var constructor = type.GetConstructor(Type.EmptyTypes);             return /* valid to instantiate test */ ? constructor.Invoke(null) : null;         }     } Is it possible to have an extension method create a signature per instance of the type it extends? My perfect code would be this, which avoids having to cast the result of the call to CreateInstance():     Type type = typeof(MyParameterlessConstructorImplementingType);     MyParameterlessConstructorImplementingType usable = type.CreateInstance();

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  • Multiple calls to data service from SL3?

    - by Chris
    I have an SL3 that makes asynchronous calls to a data service. Basically, there is a treeview that is bound to a collection of objects. The idea is that as a user selects a specific treeviewitem, a call is made to the data service, with a parameter specific to the selected treeviewitem being passed to the corresponding web method in the data service. The data service returns data back to the SL3 client, and the client presents the data to the user. This works well. The problem is that when users start to navigate through the treeview using the arrow keys on their keyboard, they could press the down arrow key, for example, 10 times, and 10 calls will be made to the data service, and then each of the 10 items will be displayed to the user momentarily, until finishing with the data for the most recently selected treeview item. So - onto the question. How can I put in some form of delay, to allow someone to navigate quickly through a treeview, then, once then stop at a certain treeviewitem, a call is made to the data service? Thanks for any suggestions. Chris

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  • T4MVC and duplicate controller names in different areas

    - by artvolk
    In my application I have controller named Snippets both in default area (in application root) and in my area called Manage. I use T4MVC and custom routes, like this: routes.MapRoute( "Feed", "feed/", MVC.Snippets.Rss() ); And I get this error: Multiple types were found that match the controller named 'snippets'. This can happen if the route that services this request ('{controller}/{action}/{id}/') does not specify namespaces to search for a controller that matches the request. If this is the case, register this route by calling an overload of the 'MapRoute' method that takes a 'namespaces' parameter. The request for 'snippets' has found the following matching controllers: Snippets.Controllers.SnippetsController Snippets.Areas.Manage.Controllers.SnippetsController I know that there are overloads for MapRoute that take namespaces argument, but there are no such overloads with T4MVC support. May be I'm missing something? The possible syntax can be: routes.MapRoute( "Feed", "feed/", MVC.Snippets.Rss(), new string[] {"Snippets.Controllers"} ); or, it seems quite good to me to have namespace as T4MVC property: routes.MapRoute( "Feed", "feed/", MVC.Snippets.Rss(), new string[] {MVC.Snippets.Namespace} ); Thanks in advance!

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  • Processing XML form input in ASP

    - by Omar Kooheji
    I'm maintaining a legacy application which consists of some ASP.Net pages with c# code behinds and some asp pages. I need to change the way the application accepts it's input from reading a set of parameters from some form fields to reading in one form field which contains contains some XML and parsing to get the parameters out. I've written a C# class that takes an The NameValueCollection from the C# HttpRequest's Form Element. Like so NameValueCollection form = Request.Form; Dictionary<string, string> fieldDictionary = RequestDataExtractor.BuildFieldDictionary(form); The code in the class looks for a particular parameter and if it's there processes the XML and outputs a Dictionary, if its not there it just cycles through the Form parameters and puts them all into the dictionary (Allowing the old method to still work) How would I do this in ASP? Can I use my same class, or a modified version of it? or do I have to write some new code to get this working? If I have to write ASP code Whats the best way to process the XML in ASP? Sorry if this seems like a stupid question but I know next to nothing about ASP and VB.

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  • starting oracle 10g on ubuntu, Listener failed to start.

    - by tsegay
    I have installed oracle 10g on a ubuntu 10.x, This is my first time installation. After installing I tried to start it with the command below. tsegay@server-name:/u01/app/oracle/product/10.2.0/db_1/bin$ lsnrctl LSNRCTL for Linux: Version 10.2.0.1.0 - Production on 29-DEC-2010 22:46:51 Copyright (c) 1991, 2005, Oracle. All rights reserved. Welcome to LSNRCTL, type "help" for information. LSNRCTL> start Starting /u01/app/oracle/product/10.2.0/db_1/bin/tnslsnr: please wait... TNSLSNR for Linux: Version 10.2.0.1.0 - Production System parameter file is /u01/app/oracle/product/10.2.0/db_1/network/admin/listener.ora Log messages written to /u01/app/oracle/product/10.2.0/db_1/network/log/listener.log Error listening on: (DESCRIPTION=(ADDRESS=(PROTOCOL=IPC)(KEY=EXTPROC1))) TNS-12555: TNS:permission denied TNS-12560: TNS:protocol adapter error TNS-00525: Insufficient privilege for operation Linux Error: 1: Operation not permitted Listener failed to start. See the error message(s) above... my listener.ora file looks like this: # listener.ora Network Configuration File: /u01/app/oracle/product/10.2.0/db_1/network/admin/listener.ora # Generated by Oracle configuration tools. SID_LIST_LISTENER = (SID_LIST = (SID_DESC = (SID_NAME = PLSExtProc) (ORACLE_HOME = /u01/app/oracle/product/10.2.0/db_1) (PROGRAM = extproc) ) ) LISTENER = (DESCRIPTION_LIST = (DESCRIPTION = (ADDRESS = (PROTOCOL = IPC)(KEY = EXTPROC1)) (ADDRESS = (PROTOCOL = TCP)(HOST = acct-vmserver)(PORT = 1521)) ) ) I can guess the problem is with permission issue, But i dont know where I have to do the change on permission. Any help is appreciated ...

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  • Loading Native library to external Package in Eclipse not working. is it a Bug?

    - by TacB0sS
    I was about to report a but to Eclipse, but I was thinking to give this a chance here first: If I add an external package, the application cannot find the referenced native library, except in the case specified at the below: If my workspace consists of a single project, and I import an external package 'EX_package.jar' from a folder outside of the project folder, I can assign a folder to the native library location via: mouse over package - right click - properties - Native Library - Enter your folder. This does not work. In runtime the application does not load the library, System.mapLibraryName(Path) also does not work. Further more, if I create a User Library, and add the package to it and define a folder for the native library it still does not. If it works for you then I have a major bug since it does not work on my computer I test this in any combination I could think of, including adding the path to the windows PATH parameter, and so many other ways I can't even start to remember, nothing worked, I played with this for hours and had a colleague try to assist me, but we both came up empty. Further more, if I have a main project that is dependent on few other projects in my workspace, and they all need to use the same 'EX_package.jar' I MUST supply a HARD COPY INTO EACH OF THEM, it will ONLY (I can't stress the ONLYNESS, I got freaked out by this) work if I have a hard copy of the package in ALL of the project folders that the main project has a dependency on, and ONLY if I configure the Native path in each of them!! This also didn't do the trick. please tell me there is a solution to this, this drives me nuts... Thanks, Adam Zehavi.

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  • How Does One Make Scala Control Abstraction in Repeat Until?

    - by peter_pilgrim
    Hi I am Peter Pilgrim. I watched Martin Odersky create a control abstraction in Scala. However I can not yet seem to repeat it inside IntelliJ IDEA 9. Is it the IDE? package demo class Control { def repeatLoop ( body: = Unit ) = new Until( body ) class Until( body: = Unit ) { def until( cond: = Boolean ) { body; val value: Boolean = cond; println("value="+value) if ( value ) repeatLoop(body).until(cond) // if (cond) until(cond) } } def doTest2(): Unit = { var y: Int = 1 println("testing ... repeatUntil() control structure") repeatLoop { println("found y="+y) y = y + 1 } { until ( y < 10 ) } } } The error message reads: Information:Compilation completed with 1 error and 0 warnings Information:1 error Information:0 warnings C:\Users\Peter\IdeaProjects\HelloWord\src\demo\Control.scala Error:Error:line (57)error: Control.this.repeatLoop({ scala.this.Predef.println("found y=".+(y)); y = y.+(1) }) of type Control.this.Until does not take parameters repeatLoop { In the curried function the body can be thought to return an expression (the value of y+1) however the declaration body parameter of repeatUntil clearly says this can be ignored or not? What does the error mean?

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  • When is someone else's code I use from the internet "mine"?

    - by robault
    I'm building a library from methods that I've found on the internet. Some are free to use or modify with no requirements, others say that if I leave a comment in the code it's okay to use, others say when I use the code I have to attribute the use of someone's code in my application (in the credits for my app I guess). What I've been doing is reorganizing classes, renaming methods, adding descriptions (code comments), renaming the parameters and names inside the methods to something meaningful, optimizing loops if applicable, changing return types, adding try/catch/throw blocks, adding parameter checks and cleaning up resources in the methods. For example; I didn't come up with the algorithm for blurring a Bitmap but I've taken the basic example of iterating through the pixels and turned it into a decent library method (applying the aforementioned modifications). I understand how to go about building it now myself but I didn't actually hit the keystrokes to make it and I couldn't have come up with it before learning from their example. What about code people get in answers on Stackoverflow or examples from Codeproject? At what point can I drop their requirements because at n% their code became mine? FWIW I intend on using the libraries to create products that I will sell.

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  • Access denied when trying to access my database.

    - by Sergio Tapia
    Here's my code: <html> <head> </head> <body> <?php $user = mysql_real_escape_string($_GET["u"]); $pass = mysql_real_escape_string($_GET["p"]); $query = "SELECT * FROM usario WHERE username = '$user' AND password = '$pass'"; mysql_connect(localhost, "root", ""); @mysql_select_db("multas") or die( "Unable to select database"); $result=mysql_query($query); if(mysql_numrows($result) > 0){ echo 'si'; } ?> </body> </html> And here's the error I get when I try to run it Warning: mysql_real_escape_string() [function.mysql-real-escape-string]: Access denied for user 'ODBC'@'localhost' (using password: NO) in C:\xampp\htdocs\useraccess.php on line 7 Warning: mysql_real_escape_string() [function.mysql-real-escape-string]: A link to the server could not be established in C:\xampp\htdocs\useraccess.php on line 7 Warning: mysql_real_escape_string() [function.mysql-real-escape-string]: Access denied for user 'ODBC'@'localhost' (using password: NO) in C:\xampp\htdocs\useraccess.php on line 8 Warning: mysql_real_escape_string() [function.mysql-real-escape-string]: A link to the server could not be established in C:\xampp\htdocs\useraccess.php on line 8 Warning: mysql_numrows() expects parameter 1 to be resource, boolean given in C:\xampp\htdocs\useraccess.php on line 16

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  • DOS Batch file to echo a specific line number

    - by Lee
    So for the second part of my current dilemma, I have a list of folders in "c:\file_list.txt". I need to be able to extract them (well, echo them with some mods) based on the line number because this batch script is being called by an iterative macro process. I'm passing the line number as a parameter. @echo off setlocal enabledelayedexpansion set /a counter=0 set /a %%a = "" for /f "usebackq delims=" %%a in (c:\file_list.txt) do (if "!counter!"=="%1" goto :printme & set /a counter+=1) :printme echo %%a which gives me an output of "%a". Doh! So, I've tried echoing !a! (result: "ECHO is off."); I've tried echoing %a (result: a) I figured the easy thing to do would be to modify the "head.bat" code found here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/130116/dos-batch-commands-to-read-first-line-from-text-file except rather than echoing every line - I'd just echo the last line found. Not as simple as one might think. I've noticed that my counter is staying at zero for some reason; I'm wondering if the "set /a counter+=1" is doing what I think it's doing.

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  • passing in javascript values into iframe tag

    - by Cedar Jensen
    What's the best way to pass in the value held in a javascript variable into an iframe call on the same html page? I'm trying to improve my site's page response times by moving ad serving javascript code (the typical document.write('<script type="text/javascript" src="..") into a separate iframe. (Based on this posting) The request to the ad server typically require a seed variable declared once per site and incremented each time page is loaded by the client. What I want to do is pass in the seed variable into the document invoked by my iframe section. The seed variable is initialized in the 'head' tag of my main html document: <head> <script type="text/javascript"> <!-- custom_seed=1; //--> </script> </head> Later in the html document, I make the request through an iframe which returns the html necessary to invoke the ad server. <body> <!-- a bunch of html to display the page --> <iframe src="somepage.html" width="100%" height="100%"> <p>No support for iframe</p> </iframe> </body> The html returned in the 'somepage.html' has a script used to call the ad server and needs to use the earlier declared seed variable as a parameter: <script type="text/javascript"> document.write('<script type="text/javascript" src="http://ad.server.net/...seed='+ custom_seed +'?"></script>'); custom_seed++; </script> What's a good way to achieve this?

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  • C++ overide global operator comma gives error

    - by uray
    the second function gives error C2803 http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/zy7kx46x%28VS.80%29.aspx : 'operator ,' must have at least one formal parameter of class type. any clue? template<class T,class A = std::allocator<T>> class Sequence : public std::vector<T,A> { public: Sequence<T,A>& operator,(const T& a) { this->push_back(a); return *this; } Sequence<T,A>& operator,(const Sequence<T,A>& a) { for(Sequence<T,A>::size_type i=0 ; i<a.size() ; i++) { this->push_back(a.at(i)); } return *this; } }; //this works! template<typename T> Sequence<T> operator,(const T& a, const T&b) { Sequence<T> seq; seq.push_back(a); seq.push_back(b); return seq; } //this gives error C2803! Sequence<double> operator,(const double& a, const double& b) { Sequence<double> seq; seq.push_back(a); seq.push_back(b); return seq; }

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  • VSTO Word ContentControls, Y U No have Name property?

    - by System.Cats.Lol
    When you add a VSTO (not Word native) content control, you specify the name: controls.AddContentControl(wordRange, "foo", wdType); Where controls is the VSTO (extended) Document.Controls collection. You can later look up the control by name: ContentControl myContentControl = controls["foo"]; So why in the world is there no Name property for ContentControl? (or ContentControlBase, or any of the other derivatives). I'm implementing a wrapper class for the Document.Controls property that lets you add or iterate the content controls. When iterating the underlying Document.Controls, there's no way to look up the name of each control. (We need it to return an instance of our ContentControl wrapper). So currently I'm doing this in our ContentControls wrapper class: public IEnumerator<IContentControl> GetEnumerator() { System.Collections.IEnumerator en = this.wordControls.GetEnumerator(); while (en.MoveNext()) { // VSTO Document.Controls includes all managed controls, not just // VSTO ContentControls; return only those. if (en.Current is Microsoft.Office.Tools.Word.ContentControl) { // The control's name isn't stored with the control, only when it was added, // so use a placeholder name for the wrapper. yield return new ContentControl("Unknown", (Microsoft.Office.Tools.Word.ContentControl)en.Current); } } } I'd prefer to not have to resort to keeping a map of names-to-wrapper-objects in our ContentControls object. Can anyone tell me how to get the control's name (the name parameter that was passed to Controls.Add()?

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  • ASP.NET MVC: Returning a view with querystring intact

    - by ajbeaven
    I'm creating a messaging web app in ASP.NET and are having some problems when displaying an error message to the user if they go to send a message and there is something wrong. A user can look through profiles of people and then click, 'send a message'. The following action is called (url is /message/create?to=username) and shows them a page where they can enter their message and send it: public ActionResult Create(string to) { ViewData["recipientUsername"] = to; return View(); } On the page that is displayed, the username is entered in to a hidden input field. When the user clicks 'send': [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Create(FormCollection collection, string message) { try { //do message stuff that errors out } catch { ModelState.AddModelErrors(message.GetRuleViolations()); //adding errors to modelstate } return View(); } So now the error message is displayed to the user fine, however the url is changed in that it no longer has the querystring (/message/create). Again, this would be fine except that when the user clicks the refresh button, the page errors out as the Create action no longer has the 'to' parameter. So I'm guessing that I need to maintain my querystring somehow. Is there any way to do this or do I need to use a different method altogether?

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