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• AsyncTask never finishes when other tasks are running

  - by rebeccamaher

  In my app, I show a menu screen immediately to the user and then use an AsyncTask to load some data from disk. Loading takes about 3 seconds if that's all the app had to do. When the user hits a menu option and the data hasn't loaded yet, a "Please wait, loading" screen appears. I have two problems: I recently added ads to my app and have found this is making my app hang sometimes because the AsyncTask never finishes loading. What seems to be happening is that the ad banner (I'm using admob and this happens when adsense ads are shown which admob do occasionally) is using resources by playing a simple animation and the AsyncTask never gets a chance to finish. I want to play a simple looping animation (e.g. making a view rotate) on my menu screen and this makes the AsyncTask take about 5 times longer to finish which renders the background loading pointless. How can I avoid situations where my background data never finishes loading or has such a low priority it takes a long time? I can't seem to find a way to increase the priority of an AsyncTask.

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• Play! 1.2.5 with mongodb | Model Validation not happening

  - by TGV

  I have a simple User model whose fields are annotated with play validation annotations and morphia annotations like below. import play.data.validation.*; import play.modules.morphia.Model; import com.google.code.morphia.annotations.*; @Entity public class User extends Model{ @Id @Indexed(name="USERID", unique=true) public ObjectId userId; @Required public String userName; @Email @Indexed(name="USEREMAIL", unique=true) @Required public String userEmail; } Now I have a service which has a CreateNewUser method responsible for persisting the data. I have used Morphia plugin for the dao support. But the problem is that User Document gets persisted in mongo-db even if userName or userEmail is NULL. Also @Email validation does not happen // Below code is in app/controllers/Application.java User a = new User(); a.userName = "user1"; // calling bean to create user, userService is in app/service/UserService userService.createNewUser(a); It does not work even after adding @valid and validation.hasErrors() check.Below code is in app/service/UserService public void createNewUser(@Valid User user) { if (Validation.hasErrors()) { System.out.println("has errors"); } else { // TODO Auto-generated method stub userDao.save(user); } }

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• Android - Turn off display without triggering sleep/lock screen - Turn on with Touchscreen

  - by NebulaSleuth

  I have been trying to find a way to turn off the display, and wake up from the user touching the touch screen. The device is in an embedded environment where the device is a tablet and the user does not have access to anything except the touch screen (no buttons at all). It is connected to power so the battery won't be a problem, but when I detect no activity I want to turn off the screen so it isn't staring them in the face all day and doesn't reduce the life the LCD backlight. I maintain a wakelock permanently and decide when to sleep myself. The problem is that when I turn off the screen using : WindowManager.LayoutParams params = getWindow().getAttributes(); params.screenBrightness = 0; getWindow().setAttributes(params); The activity gets paused and stopped. And the unit does not respond to a touch to wake it up. You need to press the power button. At that point the "slide to unlock" shows up. I want to turn off the display, and then stay running so I can detect a touch screen event and turn the display back on. I also tried turning the display to a brightness of 0.1, which works on some devices, but the device I need it to work on, only "dims" the display. I also tried this: // First Remove my FULL wakelock //then aquire a partial wake lock (which should turn off the display) PowerManager.WakeLock wl = manager.newWakeLock(PowerManager.PARTIAL_WAKE_LOCK, "Your Tag"); wl.acquire(); however this method does not turn off the display.

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• How do I use cookies to store users' recent site history(PHP)?

  - by ggfan

  I decided to make a recent view box that allows users to see what links they clicked on before. Whenever they click on a posting, the posting's id gets stored in a cookie and displays it in the recent view box. In my ad.php, I have a definerecentview function that stores the posting's id (so I can call it later when trying to get the posting's information such as title, price from the database) in a cookie. How do I create a cookie array for this? **EXAMPLE:** user clicks on ad.php?posting_id='200' //this is in the ad.php function definerecentview() { $posting_id=$_GET['posting_id']; //this adds 30 days to the current time $Month = 2592000 + time(); $i=1; if (isset($posting_id)){ //lost here for($i=1,$i< ???,$i++){ setcookie("recentviewitem[$i]", $posting_id, $Month); } } } function displayrecentviews() { echo "<div class='recentviews'>"; echo "Recent Views"; if (isset($_COOKIE['recentviewitem'])) { foreach ($_COOKIE['recentviewitem'] as $name => $value) { echo "$name : $value <br />\n"; //right now just shows the posting_id } } echo "</div>"; } How do I use a for loop or foreach loop to make it that whenever a user clicks on an ad, it makes an array in the cookie? So it would be like.. 1. clicks on ad.php?posting_id=200 --- setcookie("recentviewitem[1]",200,$month); 2. clicks on ad.php?posting_id=201 --- setcookie("recentviewitem[2]",201,$month); 3. clicks on ad.php?posting_id=202 --- setcookie("recentviewitem[3]",202,$month); Then in the displayrecentitem function, I just echo however many cookies were set? I'm just totally lost in creating a for loop that sets the cookies. any help would be appreciated

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• How can one enforce calling a base class function after derived class constructor?

  - by Mike Elkins

  I'm looking for a clean C++ idiom for the following situation: class SomeLibraryClass { public: SomeLibraryClass() { /* start initialization */ } void addFoo() { /* we are a collection of foos */ } void funcToCallAfterAllAddFoos() { /* Making sure this is called is the issue */ } }; class SomeUserClass : public SomeLibraryClass { public: SomeUserClass() { addFoo(); addFoo(); addFoo(); // SomeUserClass has three foos. } }; class SomeUserDerrivedClass : public SomeUserClass { public: SomeUserDerrivedClass() { addFoo(); // This one has four foos. } }; So, what I really want is for SomeLibraryClass to enforce the calling of funcToCallAfterAllAddFoos at the end of the construction process. The user can't put it at the end of SomeUserClass::SomeUserClass(), that would mess up SomeUserDerrivedClass. If he puts it at the end of SomeUserDerrivedClass, then it never gets called for SomeUserClass. To further clarify what I need, imagine that /* start initialization */ acquires a lock, and funcToCallAfterAllAddFoos() releases a lock. The compiler knows when all the initializations for an object are done, but can I get at that information by some nice trick?

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• Visual Studio internal project references not always working

  - by Chris

  I am using Visual Studio and a solution with 10 or so projects in (mostly VB, some C#) which have various dependencies set up. Usually when I compile the solution it works fine. Occasionally when I do it I get a build error saying that one of the projects referenced is the wrong version (I think always the same one, possibly may be two that can cause problems). In this case going to the solution explorer and right clicking on the mentioned project and saying "rebuild" followed by another full build makes it work fine. I assume there is something set up wrong somewhere but I didn't set up the solution myself initially and a quick look through doesn't show anything immediately wrong. It feels like there is some kind of race condition, that VS is internally setting the version number of the project it needs before that project has been rebuilt and thus gets it wrong or something like that but I'm sure VS should handle all this sort of thing properly. Can anybody please suggest places that I could check for whether this has been correctly set up... And I should finally note that since I don't have reliable repro of this I may not be able to respond to questions too quickly. For example the obvious one of "Could you give the exact error message" will have to wait since I didn't think to copy it this morning, it was only after I cleared it up with the above steps that I thought to post here. Similarly any solutions may take a while to confirm.

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• What's a good way to write batch scripts in C#?

  - by Scott Bilas

  I would like to write simple scripts in C#. Stuff I would normally use .bat or 4NT .btm files for. Copying files, parsing text, asking user input, and so on. Fairly simple but doing this stuff right in a batch file is really hard (no exceptions for example). I'm familiar with command line "scripting" wrappers like AxScript so that gets me part of the way there. What I'm missing is the easy file-manipulation framework. I want to be able to do cd(".."), copy(srcFile, destFile) type functionality. Tools I have tried: NANT, which we use in our build process. Not a good scripting tool. Insanely verbose XML syntax and to add a simple function you must write an extension assembly. Can't do it inline. PowerShell. Looks great, but I just haven't been able to switch over to this as my primary shell. Too many differences from 4NT. Whatever I do needs to run from an ordinary command prompt and not require a special shell to run it through. Can PowerShell be used as a script executor? Perl/Python/Ruby. Really hate learning an entirely new language and framework just to do batch file operations. Haven't been able to dedicate the time I need to do this. Plus, we're a 99% .NET shop for our toolchain and I really want to leverage our existing experience and codebase. Are there frameworks out there that are trying to solve this problem of "make a batch file in C#" that you have used? I want the power of C#/.NET with the immediate-mode type functionality of a typical cmd.exe shell language. Am I alone in wanting something like this?

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• Why would one want to use the public constructors on Boolean and similar immutable classes?

  - by Robert J. Walker

  (For the purposes of this question, let us assume that one is intentionally not using auto(un)boxing, either because one is writing pre-Java 1.5 code, or because one feels that autounboxing makes it too easy to create NullPointerExceptions.) Take Boolean, for example. The documentation for the Boolean(boolean) constructor says: Note: It is rarely appropriate to use this constructor. Unless a new instance is required, the static factory valueOf(boolean) is generally a better choice. It is likely to yield significantly better space and time performance. My question is, why would you ever want to get a new instance in the first place? It seems like things would be simpler if constructors like that were private. For example, if they were, you could write this with no danger (even if myBoolean were null): if (myBoolean == Boolean.TRUE) It'd be safe because all true Booleans would be references to Boolean.TRUE and all false Booleans would be references to Boolean.FALSE. But because the constructors are public, someone may have used them, which means that you have to write this instead: if (Boolean.TRUE.equals(myBoolean)) But where it really gets bad is when you want to check two Booleans for equality. Something like this: if (myBooleanA == myBooleanB) ...becomes this: if ( (myBooleanA == null && myBooleanB == null) || (myBooleanA == null && myBooleanA.equals(myBooleanB)) ) I can't think of any reason to have separate instances of these objects which is more compelling than not having to do the nonsense above. What say you?

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• where to store temporary data in MVC 2.0 project

  - by StuffHappens

  Hello! I'm starting to learn MVC 2.0 and I'm trying to create a site with a quiz: user is asked a question and given several options of answer. If he chooses the right answer he gets some points, if he doesn't, he looses them. I tried to do this the following way public class HomeController : Controller { private ITaskGenerator taskGenerator = new TaskGenerator(); private string correctAnswer; public ActionResult Index() { var task = taskGenerator .GenerateTask(); ViewData["Task"] = task.Task; ViewData["Options"] = task.Options; correctAnswer= task.CorrectAnswer; return View(); } public ActionResult Answer(string id) { if (id == correctAnswer) return View("Correct") return View("Incorrect"); } } But I have a problem: when user answers the cotroller class is recreated and I loose correct answer. So what is the best place to store correct answer? Should I create a static class for this purpose? Thanks for your help!

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• Windows Azure Worldwide availability

  - by Insomniac

  Hi, I've been reviewing Windows Azure platform for some time, and can't find answer to one very important question. If I deploy my application within a cloud, how it will be reached from different places worldwide? For example if I have a web application with a database and want it to be accessible to users in UK, US, China and etc. Can I be sure that any user in the world will get almost the same request processing time? I think of it this way. 1. User sends request (navigates in browser to my web site) 2. This request gets in a cloud in a nearest location (closest to user MS Data Center?) 3. It is processed by an instance of my web application (in nearest location, with request to my centralized DB which can be far away but SQL request goes via MS internal network, which I believe should be very fast). 4. Response sent to user. Please let me know if I'm wrong. Thanks.

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• jquery window.unload triggers post after unload

  - by index

  I am trying to do a post to server before unloading a page and I followed this and it's working fine. My problem is the $.post on window.unload is triggered after it has unloaded. I tried it with a signout link and checking on my logs, I get the following: Started GET "/signout" for 127.0.0.1 at 2012-11-22 00:15:08 +0800 Processing by SessionsController#destroy as HTML Redirected to http://localhost:3000/ Completed 302 Found in 1ms Started GET "/" for 127.0.0.1 at 2012-11-22 00:15:08 +0800 Processing by HomeController#index as HTML Rendered home/index.html.erb within layouts/application (0.4ms) Rendered layouts/_messages.html.erb (0.1ms) Completed 200 OK in 13ms (Views: 12.9ms) Started POST "/unloading" for 127.0.0.1 at 2012-11-22 00:15:08 +0800 Processing by HomeController#unloading as */* Parameters: {"p1"=>"1"} WARNING: Can't verify CSRF token authenticity Completed 500 Internal Server Error in 0ms NoMethodError (undefined method `id' for nil:NilClass): app/controllers/home_controller.rb:43:in `unloading' First part is the signout and then user gets redirected to root then it runs the post ('/unloading'). Is there a way to make the '/unloading' execute first then execute whatever the unload action was? I have this as my jquery post $(window).unload -> $.ajax { async: false, beforeSend: (xhr) -> xhr.setRequestHeader('X-CSRF-Token', $('meta[name="csrf-token"]').attr('content')) , url: '/unloading' , type: 'Post' , data: { p1: '1' } }

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• What's the *right* way to handle a POST in FP?

  - by Malvolio

  I'm just getting started with FP and I'm using Scala, which may not be the best way, since I can always fall back to an imperative style if the going gets tough. I'd just rather not. I've got a very specific question that points to a broader lacuna in my understanding of FP. When a web application is processing a GET request, the user wants information that already exists on the web-site. The application only has to process and format the data in some way. The FB way is clear. When a web application is processing a POST request, the user wants change the information held on the site. True, the information is not typically held in application variables, it's in a database or a flat-file, but still, I get the feeling I'm not grokking FP properly. Is there a pattern for handling updates to static data in an FP language? My vague picture of this is that the application is handed the request and the then-current site state. The application does its thing and returns the new site-state. If the current site-state hasn't changed since the application started, the new state becomes the current state and the reply is sent back to the browser (this is my dim image of Clojure's style); if the current state has been changed (by another thread, well, something else happens ...

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• How to Check Authenticity of an AJAX Request

  - by Alex Reisner

  I am designing a web site in which users solve puzzles as quickly as they can. JavaScript is used to time each puzzle, and the number of milliseconds is sent to the server via AJAX when the puzzle is completed. How can I ensure that the time received by the server was not forged by the user? I don't think a session-based authenticity token (the kind used for forms in Rails) is sufficient because I need to authenticate the source of a value, not just the legitimacy of the request. Is there a way to cryptographically sign the request? I can't think of anything that couldn't be duplicated by a hacker. Is any JavaScript, by its exposed, client-side nature, subject to tampering? Am I going to have to use something that gets compiled, like Flash? (Yikes.) Or is there some way to hide a secret key? Or something else I haven't thought of? Update: To clarify, I don't want to penalize people with slow network connections (and network speed should be considered inconsistent), so the timing needs to be 100% client-side (the timer starts only when we know the user can see the puzzle). Also, there is money involved so no amount of "trusting the user" is acceptable.

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• PHP extend a class method that is called from another class which extends it and calls the method wi

  - by dan.codes

  I am trying to extend a class and override one of its methods. lets call that class A. My class, class B, is overiding a protected method. Class C extends class A and Class D extends class C. Inside of Class D, the method I am trying to overwrite is also extended here and that calls parent::mymethodimoverriding. That method does not exist in class C so it goes to it in class A. That is the method I am overiding in class B and obviously you can't extend A with B and have those changes show up in D since it does not fall in line with the class hierarchy. I might be wrong, so correct me please. so if my class b is called and ran then class D gets called it runs the method in A and overwrites what I had set. I am thinking there must be a way to get this to work, I am just missing something. here is an example, as you can see in class A there is a call to setTitle and it is set to "Example" In my class I set it to "NewExample". My class is getting called before class D so when class D is called it goes back to the parent and sets the title back to "Example" class A{ protected function _thefunction(){ setTitle("Example"); } } class B extends A{ protected function _thefunction(){ My new code here setTitle("NewExample"); } } class C extends A{ nothing that matters in here for what I am doing } class D extends C{ protected function _thefunction(){ parent::_thefunction(); additional code here } }

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• Custom bean instantiation logic in Spring MVC

  - by Michal Bachman

  I have a Spring MVC application trying to use a rich domain model, with the following mapping in the Controller class: @RequestMapping(value = "/entity", method = RequestMethod.POST) public String create(@Valid Entity entity, BindingResult result, ModelMap modelMap) { if (entity== null) throw new IllegalArgumentException("An entity is required"); if (result.hasErrors()) { modelMap.addAttribute("entity", entity); return "entity/create"; } entity.persist(); return "redirect:/entity/" + entity.getId(); } Before this method gets executed, Spring uses BeanUtils to instantiate a new Entity and populate its fields. It uses this: ... ReflectionUtils.makeAccessible(ctor); return ctor.newInstance(args); Here's the problem: My entities are Spring managed beans. The reason for this is to inject DAOs on them. Instead of calling new, I use EntityFactory.createEntity(). When they're retrieved from the database, I have an interceptor that overrides the public Object instantiate(String entityName, EntityMode entityMode, Serializable id) method and hooks the factories into that. So the last piece of the puzzle missing here is how to force Spring to use the factory rather than its own BeanUtils reflective approach? Any suggestions for a clean solution? Thanks very much in advance.

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• Problems with multi-line comments jquery

  - by c0mrade

  Hello, I'm making a image website with a bunch of images on the website, and below every image there is possibility of commenting the image and after that comments gets displayed without page loading and the comment content, the problem is when I have long comments which break the current line they don't get displayed since my comment box css overflow is hidden. Here is example : This is a comment - This is displayed properly This is a comment This is a comment This is a comment - this is not displayed properly since it break line. Here is the jQuery code for this : $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "<?=base_url()?>imagesform/post_comment", data: datas, success: function () { $("#image-comments-" + image_id).attr("class", "comments"); $("#image-comments-" + image_id).append("<li id=\"new_append_" + image_id+ "\">" + $("#image").find(".comment").val() + "</li>").children(':last').height($('.comments li:last').height()).hide().slideDown(500, function () { var bodyHeight = $('html').height(); $('.addComment').fadeOut(300, function () { $('html').height(bodyHeight); }); }); alert($("#image").find(".comment").val()); } }); Here the $("#image").find(".comment").val() is the value of the text-area in which comment is inputted, when I alert it the whole multi line input is there put its not being appended to the li properly, that is part when I get confused, any suggestions why only part of the inputted string is appended?

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• inconsistent setTexture behavior in cocos2d on iPhone after using CCAnimate/CCAnimation

  - by chillid

  Hi, I have a character that goes through multiple states. The state changes are reflected by means of a sprite image (texture) change. The state change is triggered by a user tapping on the sprite. This works consistently and quite well. I then added an animation during State0. Now, when the user taps - setTexture gets executed to change the texture to reflect State1, however some of the times (unpredictable) it does not change the texture. The code flows as below: // 1. // Create the animation sequence CGRect frame1Rect = CGRectMake(0,32,32,32); CGRect frame2Rect = CGRectMake(32,32,32,32); CCTexture2D* texWithAnimation = [[CCTextureCache sharedTextureCache] addImage:@"Frames0_1_thinkNthickoutline32x32.png"]; id anim = [[[CCAnimation alloc] initWithName:@"Sports" delay:1/25.0] autorelease]; [anim addFrame:[CCSpriteFrame frameWithTexture:texWithAnimation rect:frame1Rect offset:ccp(0,0)]]; [anim addFrame:[CCSpriteFrame frameWithTexture:texWithAnimation rect:frame2Rect offset:ccp(0,0)]]; // Make the animation sequence repeat forever id myAction = [CCAnimate actionWithAnimation: anim restoreOriginalFrame:NO]; // 2. // Run the animation: sports = [[CCRepeatForever alloc] init]; [sports initWithAction:myAction]; [self.sprite runAction:sports]; // 3. stop action on state change and change texture: NSLog(@"Stopping action"); [sprite stopAction:sports]; NSLog(@"Changing texture for kCJSports"); [self setTexture: [[CCTextureCache sharedTextureCache] addImage:@"SportsOpen.png"]]; [self setTextureRect:CGRectMake(0,0,32,64)]; NSLog(@"Changed texture for kCJSports"); Note that all the NSLog lines get logged - and the texture RECT changes - but the image/texture changes only some of the times - fails for around 10-30% of times. Locking/threading/timing issue somewhere? My app (game) is single threaded and I only use the addImage and not the Async version. Any help much appreciated.

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• Alignment for image display on hover works only in IE7?

  - by Ram

  Hello, I tried to display a image when a mouseover on text occurs. It works fine. And the alignment of the image should be shown such that the end of the image should be at the container. It works fine with the code shown below, Only in IE7. In everything, it gets chopped off.. What is wrong here? <td valign="middle" class="table_td td" style="width: 347px"> <span class="feature_text" style="cursor:pointer" onmouseover="ShowPicture('Style16',1)" onmouseout="ShowPicture('Style16',0)" id="a16"> Storefront Window Decal</span> <div id="Style16" style="position:relative;height:0px;left:50%;bottom:700%; visibility:hidden; border:solid 0px #CCC; padding:5px"> <img src="images/window-decal-image.gif"></div> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function ShowPicture(id,Source) { var vis, elem; if (1 == Source) { vis = "visible"; } else if (0 == Source) { vis = "hidden"; } else { throw new RangeError("Unknown Flag"); } if (elem = document.getElementById(id)) { elem.style.visibility = vis; } else { throw new TypeError("Element with id '"+id+"' does not exist."); } return vis; } </script> Can someone help me out. Thanks in advance!!

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• CMD For Loop does not hold set /a value

  - by Bob Hope

  Didn't know how to explain this well, so here is the code @echo off set test=0 for /f %%a in (textfile.txt) do ( rem loops five times(5 lines in textfile.txt) set /a test=test+1 rem Adds 1 to Test echo %%a rem Echo's correct line in file echo %test% rem Echo's whatever X was before the loop ) echo %test% rem Displays the correct value of X pause this is just an example of where I am finding the problem, txtfile.txt has 5 lines, so the for loop goes 5 times, each time, test gets +1 to it, and the /a displays the correct value of X, but the last echo on the for loop displays 0, which is what test is set to before the loop. The value of test is not changing until the loop is finished... is there any way to fix this? Here is what I want to accomplish, as there may be an easier way: I want to run a for loop that findstr's all rtf's in a series of sub folders, and copies them all to a all directory with a new name, 1.rtf,2.rtf,3.rtf, etc. The reason I need to rename them on the transfer is they all have the same name.

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• em.createQuery keeps returning null

  - by Developer106

  I have this application which i use JSF 2.0 and EclipseLink, i have entities created for a database made in MySQL, Created these entities using netbeans 7.1.2, it gets created automaticly. Then i use session beans to work with these entities, the thing is the em.createQuery always returns a null, though I checked NamedQueries in the entities and they perfectly match a sample from the entities named queries:- @NamedQueries({ @NamedQuery(name = "Users.findAll", query = "SELECT u FROM Users u"), @NamedQuery(name = "Users.findByUserId", query = "SELECT u FROM Users u WHERE u.userId = :userId"), @NamedQuery(name = "Users.findByUsername", query = "SELECT u FROM Users u WHERE u.username = :username"), @NamedQuery(name = "Users.findByEmail", query = "SELECT u FROM Users u WHERE u.email = :email"), notice how i use this findByEmail query in the session bean :- public Users findByEmail(String email){ em.getTransaction().begin(); String find = "Users.findByEmail"; Query query = em.createNamedQuery(find); query.setParameter("email", email); Users user = (Users) query.getSingleResult(); but it always returns null from this em.createNamedQuery, i tried using .createQuery first but it also was no good. the stacktrace of the exception Caused by: java.lang.NullPointerException at com.readme.entities.sessionBeans.UsersFacade.findByEmail(UsersFacade.java:48) at com.readme.user.signup.SignupBean.checkAvailability(SignupBean.java:137) at com.readme.user.signup.SignupBean.save(SignupBean.java:146) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:57) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:43) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:601) What Seems To Be The Problem Here ?

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• I cannot seem to load an XML document using ASP (Classic), IIS6. Details inside.

  - by carny666

  So I am writing a web application for use within my organization. The application requires that it know who the current user is. This is done by calling the Request.ServerVariables("AUTH_USER") function, which works great as long as 'Anonymous Access' is disabled (unchecked) and 'Integrated Windows Authentication' is enabled (checked) within IIS for this subweb. Unfortunately by doing this I get an 'Access Denied' error when I hit the load method of the XML DOM. Example code: dim urlToXmlFile urlToXmlFile = "http://currentwebserver/currentsubweb/nameofxml.xml" dim xmlDom set xmlDom = Server.CreateObject("MSXML2.DOMDocument") xmlDom.async = false xmlDom.load( urlToXmlFile ) ' <-- this is where I get the error! I've looked everywhere and cannot find a solution. I should be able to load an XML file into the DOM regardless of the authentication method. Any help would be appreciated. So far the only two solutions I can come up with are: a) create a new subweb that JUST gets the current user name and somehow passes it back to my XML reading subweb. b) open up security on the entire system to 'Everyone', which works but our IS department wouldn't care for that.

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• making query from different related tables using codeigniter

  - by fatemeh karam

  I'm using codeigniter as i mentioned this is a part of my view code foreach($projects_query as $row)// $row indicates the projects { ?> <tr><td><h3><button type="submit" class="button red-gradient glossy" name = "project_click" > <?php echo $row->txtTaskName; ?></button></h3></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td></tr> <?php foreach($tasks_query as $row2) { // if( $row->txtTaskName == "TestProject") if($row->intTaskID == $row2->intInside)// intInside indicades that the current task($row2) is the subset of which task (system , subsystem or project) { if($row2->intSummary == 0)//if the task(the system) is an executable task & doesn't have any subtask: { $query_team_user_id = $this->admin_in_out_model->get_user_team_task_query($row2->intTaskID);//runs the function and generates a query from tbl_userteamtask where intTaskID equals to the selected row's intTaskID foreach($query_team_user_id as $row_teamid) { $query_teamname = $this->admin_in_out_model->get_team_name($row_teamid->intTeamID); $query_fn_ln = $this->admin_in_out_model->get_fn_ln_from_userid($row_teamid->intUserID); foreach($query_teamname as $row_teamname) {?> <tr><td></td><td></td><td><h4> <?php echo $row2->txtTaskName;?></h4></td> <td><b><font color='#F33558'><?php echo $row_teamname->txtTeamName;?></font></b></td> <?php } foreach($query_fn_ln as $row_f_l_name) {?> <td> <?php echo $row_f_l_name->txtFirstname." ".$row_f_l_name->txtLastname;?></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td> <?php }?> </tr> <?php } } else{ ?> <tr><td></td><td></td><td><h4> <?php echo $row2->txtTaskName;?></h4></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td></tr><?php } foreach($tasks_query as $row_subsystems) { if($row_subsystems->intInside == $row2->intTaskID )//if the task is the subtask of a system(it means the task is a subsystem) { if($row_subsystems->intSummary == 0)//if the task is an executable task & doesn't have any subtask: { $query_team_user_id = $this->admin_in_out_model->get_user_team_task_query($row_subsystems->intTaskID); foreach($query_team_user_id as $row_teamid) {?> <tr><?php $query_teamname = $this->admin_in_out_model->get_team_name($row_teamid->intTeamID); $query_fn_ln = $this->admin_in_out_model->get_fn_ln_from_userid($row_teamid->intUserID); foreach($query_teamname as $row_teamname) {?> <td></td><td></td><td><h5><?php echo $row_subsystems->txtTaskName?></h5><br/></td> <td><b><font color='#F33558'><?php echo $row_teamname->txtTeamName;?></font></b></td><?php } foreach($query_fn_ln as $row_f_l_name) {?> <td><?php echo $row_f_l_name->txtFirstname." ".$row_f_l_name->txtLastname;?></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><?php }?> </tr><?php } } else{ ?><tr><td></td><td></td><td><h5><?php echo $row_subsystems->txtTaskName?></h5></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td></tr><?php } foreach($tasks_query as $row_tasks) { if($row_tasks->intInside == $row_subsystems->intTaskID )//if the task is the subtask of a subsystem { if($row_tasks->intSummary == 0)//if the task is an executable task & doesn't have any subtask: { $query_team_user_id = $this->admin_in_out_model->get_user_team_task_query($row_tasks->intTaskID); foreach($query_team_user_id as $row_teamid) {?> <tr><?php $query_teamname = $this->admin_in_out_model->get_team_name($row_teamid->intTeamID); $query_fn_ln = $this->admin_in_out_model->get_fn_ln_from_userid($row_teamid->intUserID); foreach($query_teamname as $row_teamname) {?> <td></td><td></td><td><b><?php echo $row_tasks->txtTaskName;?></b></td> <td><b><font color='#F33558'><?php echo $row_teamname->txtTeamName;?></font></b></td><?php } foreach($query_fn_ln as $row_f_l_name) {?> <td><?php echo $row_f_l_name->txtFirstname." ".$row_f_l_name->txtLastname;?></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><td></td><?php }?> </tr><?php } } } } } } } } }?> and in controller i have $projects_query = $this->admin_in_out_model->get_projects(); $tasks_query = $this->admin_in_out_model->get_systems(); $userteamtask = $this->admin_in_out_model->get_user_team_task(); $data['tasks_query'] = $tasks_query; $data['projects_query'] = $projects_query; $this->load->view('project_view',$data); but as you see I'm calling my model functions within the view how can i do something else to do this i mean not calling my model function in my view I have to add that, my model function have parameters these are the model functions: function get_projects() { $this -> db -> select('*'); $this -> db -> from('tbl_task'); $this -> db -> where('intInside','0'); $query = $this->db->get(); return $query->result(); } function get_systems() { $this -> db -> select('*'); $this -> db -> from('tbl_task '); $this -> db -> where('intInside <> ','0'); $query = $this->db->get(); return $query->result(); } function get_user_team_task_query($task_id)//gets information from tbl_userteamtask where the field intTaskID is equal to $task_id { $this -> db -> select('*'); $this -> db -> from('tbl_userteamtask'); $this -> db -> where('intTaskID',$task_id); $query_teamid = $this->db->get(); return $query_teamid->result(); } function get_user_team_task()//gets information from tbl_userteamtask where the field intTaskID is equal to $task_id { $this -> db -> select('*'); $this -> db -> from('tbl_userteamtask'); // $this -> db -> where('intTaskID',$task_id); $query_teamid = $this->db->get(); return $query_teamid->result(); } function get_team_name($query_teamid) { $this -> db -> select('*'); $this -> db -> from('tbl_team'); $this -> db -> where('intTeamID',$query_teamid); $query_teamname = $this->db->get(); return $query_teamname->result(); } function get_user_name($query_userid) { $this -> db -> select('*'); $this -> db -> from('tbl_user'); $this -> db -> where('intUserID',$query_userid); $query_username = $this->db->get(); return $query_username->result(); } function get_fn_ln_from_userid($selected_id) { $this -> db -> select('tbl_user.intUserID, tbl_user.intPersonID,tbl_person.intPersonID,tbl_person.txtFirstname, tbl_person.txtLastname'); $this -> db -> from('tbl_user , tbl_person'); $where = "tbl_user.intPersonID = tbl_person.intPersonID "; $this -> db -> where($where); $this -> db -> where('tbl_user.intUserID', $selected_id); $query = $this -> db -> get();//makes query from DB return $query->result(); } do I have to use subquery ? is this true? i mean can i do this? foreach( $data as $key => $each ) { $data[$key]['team_id'] = $this->get_user_team_task_query( $each['intTaskID'] ); foreach($data[$key]['team_id'] as $key_teamname => $each) { $data[$key_teamname]['team_name'] = $this->get_team_name( $each['intTeamID'] ); } } the model code: foreach( $data as $key => $each ) { $data[$key]['intTaskID'] = $each['intTaskID']; $data[$key]['team_id'] = $this->get_user_team_task_query( $each['intTaskID'] ); foreach($data[$key]['team_id'] as $key => $each) { $data[$key]['team_name'] = $this->get_team_name( $each['intTeamID'] ); #fetching of the teamname and saving in the array $data[$key]['user_name'] = $this->get_fn_ln_from_userid( $each['intUserID'] ); foreach($data[$key]['user_name'] as $key => $each) { $data[$key]['first_name'] = $each['txtFirstname'] ; $data[$key]['last_name'] = $each['txtLastname'] ; } $data[$key]['first_name'] = $data[$key]['first_name']; $data[$key]['last_name'] = $data[$key]['last_name']; } }

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• Is this a situation where I should "hg push -f"?

  - by user144182

  I have two machines, A and B that both access an external hg repository. I did some development on A, wasn't ready to push changesets to the external, and needed to switch machines, so I pushed the changesets to B using hg serve. Changesets continued on B, were committed and then pushed to external repo. I then pulled on A and updated to default/tip. This left the local changesets that had previously been pushed to B as a branch, but because of how I pushed things around, the changes in the local changesets are already in default/tip. I've now continued to make changes and commit locally on A, but when I try to push hg asks me to merge or do push -f instead. I know push -f is almost never recommended. This situation is close to one where I should use rebase, however the changesets that would be "rebased" I don't really need locally or in the external repository since they are already effectively in default/tip via the push to B. Now, I know I could merge with the latest local changeset and just discard the changes, but then I would still have to commit the merge which gets me back into rebase territory. Is this a case where I could do hg push -f? Also, why would pushing from A create remote heads if I've updated to default/tip before I continued to commit changesets?

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• Jquery, how to escape quotes

  - by Sandro Antonucci

  I'm using a simple jquery code that grabs html code form a tag and then puts this content into a form input <td class="name_cat" ><span class="name_cat">It&#039;s a &quot;test&quot; </span> (5)</td> jquery gets the content into span.name_catand returns it as It's a "test". So when I print this into an input it becomes <input value="It's a "test"" /> which as you can imagine will only show as It's a , the following double quote will close the value tag. What's the trick here to keep the original string while not showing utf8 code in the input? Jquery code $(".edit_cat").click(function(){ tr = $(this).parents("tr:first"); id_cat = $(this).attr("id"); td_name = tr.find(".name_cat"); span_name = tr.find("span.name_cat").html(); form = '<form action="/admin/controllers/edit_cat.php" method="post" >'+ '<input type="hidden" name="id_cat" value="'+id_cat+'" />'+ '<input type="text" name="name_cat" value="'+span_name+'" />'+ '<input type="submit" value="save" />'+ '</form>'; td_name.html(form); console.log(span_name); } ); I basically need html() not to decode Utf8

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• Get parent attribute within new child form?

  - by dannymcc

  I have a simple Rails 3 application and I am trying to create a new record that belongs to it's owner. It's working by passing the id to a hidden field in the new form of the child record. This works well and once the new child form submitted it correctly gets associated in the child/parent relationship. What I am trying to do, is lookup values form the parent within the new child form. The problem is that the child relationship is not yet created. Is there anyway I can use a .where lookup in the view? Or, is there a better way of doing this? At the moment I am passing the animal_id though to the new Claim form and it's inserted into a hidden field labelled animal_id. What I am trying to do: <%= @animal.where(:animal_id => params[:animal_id]).id %> The above would ideally get the animal ID from the soon-to-be-associated animal. Is there any sort of before_filter or anything that could take the passed params from the URL and temporarily create the relationship just for the new form view and then permanently create the relationship once the form is submitted? I've tried adding the following to my Claims controller and then called @animal.AnimalName in the view but I get NoMethodError: before_filter :find_animal protected def find_animal if params[:animal_id] Animal.find(params[:animal_id]) end end The URL of the new claim is correctly showing the animal ID so I'm not sure why it's not finding it: http://localhost:3000/claims/new?animal_id=1 The model relations are as follows: animal has_many claims animal has_one exclusion claim has_one animal exception has_one animal

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