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• Hibernate Communications Link Failure in Restlet-Hibernate Based Java application powered by MySQL

  - by Vatsala

  Let me describe my question - I have a Java application - Hibernate as the DB interfacing layer over MySQL. I get the communications link failure error in my application. The occurence of this error is a very specific case. I get this error , When I leave mysql server unattended for more than approximately 6 hours (i.e. when there are no queries issued to MySQL for more than approximately 6 hours). I am pasting a top 'exception' level description below, and adding a pastebin link for a detailed stacktrace description. javax.persistence.PersistenceException: org.hibernate.exception.JDBCConnectionException: Cannot open connection - Caused by: org.hibernate.exception.JDBCConnectionException: Cannot open connection - Caused by: com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.CommunicationsException: Communications link failure - The last packet successfully received from the server was 1,274,868,181,212 milliseconds ago. The last packet sent successfully to the server was 0 milliseconds ago. - Caused by: com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.CommunicationsException: Communications link failure - The last packet successfully received from the server was 1,274,868,181,212 milliseconds ago. The last packet sent successfully to the server was 0 milliseconds ago. - Caused by: java.net.ConnectException: Connection refused: connect the link to the pastebin for further investigation - http://pastebin.com/4KujAmgD What I understand from these exception statements is that MySQL is refusing to take in any connections after a period of idle/nil activity. I have been reading up a bit about this via google search, and came to know that one of the possible ways to overcome this is to set values for c3p0 properties as c3p0 comes bundled with Hibernate. Specifically, I read from here http://www.mchange.com/projects/c3p0/index.html that setting two properties idleConnectionTestPeriod and preferredTestQuery will solve this for me. But these values dont seem to have had an effect. Is this the correct approach to fixing this? If not, what is the right way to get over this? The following are related Communications Link Failure questions at stackoverflow.com, but I've not found a satisfactory answer in their answers. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2121829/java-db-communications-link-failure http://stackoverflow.com/questions/298988/how-to-handle-communication-link-failure Note 1 - i dont get this error when I am using my application continuosly. Note 2 - I use JPA with Hibernate and hence my hibernate.dialect,etc hibernate properties reside within the persistence.xml in the META-INF folder (does that prevent the c3p0 properties from working?)

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• Can sorting Japanese kanji words be done programatically?

  - by Mason

  I've recently discovered, to my astonishment (having never really thought about it before), machine-sorting Japanese proper nouns is apparently not possible. I work on an application that must allow the user to select a hospital from a 3-menu interface. The first menu is Prefecture, the second is City Name, and the third is Hospital. Each menu should be sorted, as you might expect, so the user can find what they want in the menu. Let me outline what I have found, as preamble to my question: The expected sort order for Japanese words is based on their pronunciation. Kanji do not have an inherent order (there are tens of thousands of Kanji in use), but the Japanese phonetic syllabaries do have an order: ???????????????????... and on for the fifty traditional distinct sounds (a few of which are obsolete in modern Japanese). This sort order is called ???? (gojuu on jun , or '50-sound order'). Therefore, Kanji words should be sorted in the same order as they would be if they were written in hiragana. (You can represent any kanji word in phonetic hiragana in Japanese.) The kicker: there is no canonical way to determine the pronunciation of a given word written in kanji. You never know. Some kanji have ten or more different pronunciations, depending on the word. Many common words are in the dictionary, and I could probably hack together a way to look them up from one of the free dictionary databases, but proper nouns (e.g. hospital names) are not in the dictionary. So, in my application, I have a list of every prefecture, city, and hospital in Japan. In order to sort these lists, which is a requirement, I need a matching list of each of these names in phonetic form (kana). I can't come up with anything other than paying somebody fluent in Japanese (I'm only so-so) to manually transcribe them. Before I do so though: Is it possible that I am totally high on fire, and there actually is some way to do this sorting without creating my own mappings of kanji words to phonetic readings, that I have somehow overlooked? Is there a publicly available mapping of prefecture/city names, from the government or something? That would reduce the manual mapping I'd need to do to only hospital names. Does anybody have any other advice on how to approach this problem? Any programming language is fine--I'm working with Ruby on Rails but I would be delighted if I could just write a program that would take the kanji input (say 40,000 proper nouns) and then output the phonetic representations as data that I could import into my Rails app. ??????????

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• DB Design Pattern - Many to many classification / categorised tagging.

  - by Robin Day

  I have an existing database design that stores Job Vacancies. The "Vacancy" table has a number of fixed fields across all clients, such as "Title", "Description", "Salary range". There is an EAV design for "Custom" fields that the Clients can setup themselves, such as, "Manager Name", "Working Hours". The field names are stored in a "ClientText" table and the data stored in a "VacancyClientText" table with VacancyId, ClientTextId and Value. Lastly there is a many to many EAV design for custom tagging / categorising the vacancies with things such as Locations/Offices the vacancy is in, a list of skills required. This is stored as a "ClientCategory" table listing the types of tag, "Locations, Skills", a "ClientCategoryItem" table listing the valid values for each Category, e.g., "London,Paris,New York,Rome", "C#,VB,PHP,Python". Finally there is a "VacancyClientCategoryItem" table with VacancyId and ClientCategoryItemId for each of the selected items for the vacancy. There are no limits to the number of custom fields or custom categories that the client can add. I am now designing a new system that is very similar to the existing system, however, I have the ability to restrict the number of custom fields a Client can have and it's being built from scratch so I have no legacy issues to deal with. For the Custom Fields my solution is simple, I have 5 additional columns on the Vacancy Table called CustomField1-5. This removes one of the EAV designs. It is with the tagging / categorising design that I am struggling. If I limit a client to having 5 categories / types of tag. Should I create 5 tables listing the possible values "CustomCategoryItems1-5" and then an additional 5 many to many tables "VacancyCustomCategoryItem1-5" This would result in 10 tables performing the same storage as the three tables in the existing system. Also, should (heaven forbid) the requirements change in that I need 6 custom categories rather than 5 then this will result in a lot of code change. Therefore, can anyone suggest any DB Design Patterns that would be more suitable to storing such data. I'm happy to stick with the EAV approach, however, the existing system has come across all the usual performance issues and complex queries associated with such a design. Any advice / suggestions are much appreciated. The DBMS system used is SQL Server 2005, however, 2008 is an option if required for any particular pattern.

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• Sanitizing DB inputs with XSLT

  - by azathoth

  Hello I've been looking for a method to strip my XML content of apostrophes (') like: <name> Jim O'Connor</name> since my DBMS is complaining of receiving those. By looking at the example described here, that is supposed to replace ' with '', I constructed the following script: <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <xsl:output omit-xml-declaration="yes" indent="yes" /> <xsl:template match="node()|@*"> <xsl:copy> <xsl:apply-templates select="node()|@*" /> </xsl:copy> </xsl:template> <xsl:template name="sqlApostrophe"> <xsl:param name="string" /> <xsl:variable name="apostrophe">'</xsl:variable> <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test="contains($string,$apostrophe)"> <xsl:value-of select="concat(substring-before($string,$apostrophe), $apostrophe,$apostrophe)" disable-output-escaping="yes" /> <xsl:call-template name="sqlApostrophe"> <xsl:with-param name="string" select="substring-after($string,$apostrophe)" /> </xsl:call-template> </xsl:when> <xsl:otherwise> <xsl:value-of select="$string" disable-output-escaping="yes" /> </xsl:otherwise> </xsl:choose> </xsl:template> <xsl:template match="node()|@*"> <xsl:apply-templates name="sqlApostrophe"/> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> However, the processor isn't accepting it. What am I missing here? Is there a better way to get rid of the apostrophes? Perhaps another approach for sanitizing DB inputs by using XSLT? Thanks for your help

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• Thinking about introducing PHP/MySQL into a .NET/SQL Server environment. Thoughts?

  - by abszero

  I posted this over at reddit but it didn't gain any momentum. So here is what is going on: our company was recently purchased by another web shop and I was promoted to head of development here in our office. Our office is completely .NET/SQL Server and the company who purchased us is a *nix/PHP/MySQL shop. Now several of our large clients who are on the .NET platform are up for complete rewrites (the sites are from '04 and are running on the 1.x framework.) While reviewing the proposal for one client with my superior I came across a pretty extensive module which would require several hundred man hours to complete and voiced some concern about it in relation to the quote. One of the guys from the PHP group happen to hear this and told me of a module that they (PHP Group) use in Drupal that does exactly what the proposal in front of me was describing and it only took, at most, 8 hours to completely setup / configure. My superior suggested that I take a look at Drupal and the module in question over the weekend but stressed that we should only go that route if it really made sense. So this weekend I spun up a CentOS instance in VirtualBox and started playing around with Drupal. I am still fleshing it out so don't have a solid opinion on it just yet. Anyway I have some questions / fears that I was hoping progit could help me out in! Has anyone had experience doing this and, if so, how did it turn out? I am completely ignorant to what IDE's (if any) are available to for PHP. The last time I worked with PHP it was in Notepad and that was less than intuitive. So is there are more intuitive IDE out there for PHP dev? I don't want to scare my .NET guys. Since the merger all of our new business clients that have had relatively small websites have gone on Drupal with the larger sites going on .NET. My concern is that if they see a large site go onto Drupal that they might start getting anxious and start handing out their resumes. For the foreseeable future there are no plans to liquidate the .NET platform and really we can't just from a support standpoint. What would be the best way to approach this? Any other helpful info? Thanks!

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• PHP - error when insert date into MySQL

  - by Michael Mao

  Hello everyone: I've got a typical problem when trying to insert a date into MySQL. The column defined in MySQL is of type DATE. My PHP version is 5.3.0 Apart from this date-related issue, the rest of my code works just fine. And this is my PHP script to do this: $tablename = BOOKS_TABLE; $insert = mysql_query("INSERT INTO $tablename (barcode, book_name, volume_num,". " author, publisher, item_type, buy_price, buy_date) VALUES ". "(". "'" . $barcode . "', ". "'" . $bookname . "', ". "'" . $volumenum . "', ". "'" . $author . "', ". "'" . $publisher . "', ". "'" . $itemtype . "', ". "'" . $buyprice . "', ". "'" . getMySQLDateString($buydate). //"'STR_TO_DATE('".$buydate ."', '%d/%m/%Y'))'". //nothing changes in MySQL ")"); And this is the faulty function : function getMySQLDateString($buydate) //typical buydate : 04/21/2009 { $mysqlDateString = date('Y-m-d H:i:s', $strtotime($buydate)); return $mysqlDateString; } The first commented out line wouldn't do anything, the script is executed with no error, however, there is nothing changed in datebase after this. The current approach will cause a Fatal error saying function name must be a string in this line. Actually I followed this thread on SO, but just cannot pass the date into MySQL... Can anyone help me figure out which part is not right? How would you do it, in this case, to get it right? Sorry about such a journeyman-like question, thanks a lot in advance.

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• SQL Native Client 10 Performance miserable (due to server-side cursors)

  - by namezero

  we have an application that uses ODBC via CDatabase/CRecordset in MFC (VS2010). We have two backends implemented. MSSQL and MySQL. Now, when we use MSSQL (with the Native Client 10.0), retrieving records with SELECT is dramatically slow via slow links (VPN, for example). The MySQL ODBC driver does not exhibit this nasty behavior. For example: CRecordset r(&m_db); r.Open(CRecordset::snapshot, L"SELECT a.something, b.sthelse FROM TableA AS a LEFT JOIN TableB AS b ON a.ID=b.Ref"); r.MoveFirst(); while(!r.IsEOF()) { // Retrieve CString strData; crs.GetFieldValue(L"a.something", strData); crs.MoveNext(); } Now, with the MySQL driver, everything runs as it should. The query is returned, and everything is lightning fast. However, with the MSSQL Native Client, things slow down, because on every MoveNext(), the driver communicates with the server. I think it is due to server-side cursors, but I didn't find a way to disable them. I have tried using: ::SQLSetConnectAttr(m_db.m_hdbc, SQL_ATTR_ODBC_CURSORS, SQL_CUR_USE_ODBC, SQL_IS_INTEGER); But this didn't help either. There are still long-running exec's to sp_cursorfetch() et al in SQL Profiler. I have also tried a small reference project with SQLAPI and bulk fetch, but that hangs in FetchNext() for a long time, too (even if there is only one record in the resultset). This however only happens on queries with LEFT JOINS, table-valued functions, etc. Note that the query doesn't take that long - executing the same SQL via SQL Studio over the same connection returns in a reasonable time. Question1: Is is possible to somehow get the native client to "cache" all results locally use local cursors in a similar fashion as the MySQL driver seems to do it? Maybe this is the wrong approach altogether, but I'm not sure how else to do this. All we want is to retrieve all data at once from a SELECT, then never talk the server again until the next query. We don't care about recordset updates, deletes, etc or any of that nonsense. We only want to retrieve data. We take that recordset, get all the data, and delete it. Question2: Is there a more efficient way to just retrieve data in MFC with ODBC?

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• Creating multiple heads in remote repository

  - by Jab

  We are looking to move our team (~10 developers) from SVN to mercurial. We are trying to figure out how to manage our workflow. In particular, we are trying to see if creating remote heads is the right solution. We currently have a very large repository with multiple, related projects. They share a lot of code, but pieces of the project are deployed by different teams (3 teams) independent of other portions of the code-base. So each team is working on concurrent large features. The way we currently handles this in SVN are branches. Team1 has a branch for Feature1, same deal for the other teams. When Team1 finishes their change, it gets merged into the trunk and deployed out. The other teams follow suite when their project is complete, merging of course. So my initial thought are using Named Branches for these situations. Team1 makes a Feature1 branch off of the default branch in Hg. Now, here is the question. Should the team PUSH that branch, in it's current/half-state to the repository. This will create a second head in the core repo. My initial reaction was "NO!" as it seems like a bad idea. Handling multiple heads on our repository just sounds awful, but there are some advantages... First, the teams want to setup Continuous Integration to build this branch during their development cycle(months long). This will only work if the CI can pull this branch from the repo. This is something we do now with SVN, copy a CI build and change the branch. Easy. Second, it makes it easier for any team member to jump onto the branch and start working. Without pushing to the core repo, they would have to receive a push from a developer on that team with the changeset information. It is also possible to lose local commits to hardware failure. The chances increase a lot if it's a branch by a single developer who has followed the "don't push until finished" approach. And lastly is just for ease of use. The developers can easily just commit and push on their branch at any time without consequence(as they do today, in their SVN branches). Is there a better way to handle this scenario that I may be missing? I just want a veteran's opinion before moving forward with the strategy. For bug fixes we like the general workflow of mecurial, anonymous branches that only consist of 1-2 commits. The simplicity is great for those cases. By the way, I've read this , great article which seems to favor Named branches.

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• What database table structure should I use for versions, codebases, deployables?

  - by Zac Thompson

  I'm having doubts about my table structure, and I wonder if there is a better approach. I've got a little database for version control repositories (e.g. SVN), the packages (e.g. Linux RPMs) built therefrom, and the versions (e.g. 1.2.3-4) thereof. A given repository might produce no packages, or several, but if there are more than one for a given repository then a particular version for that repository will indicate a single "tag" of the codebase. A particular version "string" might be used to tag a version of the source code in more than one repository, but there may be no relationship between "1.0" for two different repos. So if packages P and Q both come from repo R, then P 1.0 and Q 1.0 are both built from the 1.0 tag of repo R. But if package X comes from repo Y, then X 1.0 has no relationship to P 1.0. In my (simplified) model, I have the following tables (the x_id columns are auto-incrementing surrogate keys; you can pretend I'm using a different primary key if you wish, it's not really important): repository - repository_id - repository_name (unique) ... version - version_id - version_string (unique for a particular repository) - repository_id ... package - package_id - package_name (unique) - repository_id ... This makes it easy for me to see, for example, what are valid versions of a given package: I can join with the version table using the repository_id. However, suppose I would like to add some information to this database, e.g., to indicate which package versions have been approved for release. I certainly need a new table: package_version - version_id - package_id - package_version_released ... Again, the nature of the keys that I use are not really important to my problem, and you can imagine that the data column is "promotion_level" or something if that helps. My doubts arise when I realize that there's really a very close relationship between the version_id and the package_id in my new table ... they must share the same repository_id. Only a small subset of package/version combinations are valid. So I should have some kind of constraint on those columns, enforcing that ... ... I don't know, it just feels off, somehow. Like I'm including somehow more information than I really need? I don't know how to explain my hesitance here. I can't figure out which (if any) normal form I'm violating, but I also can't find an example of a schema with this sort of structure ... not being a DBA by profession I'm not sure where to look. So I'm asking: am I just being overly sensitive?

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• How to discover classes with [Authorize] attributes using Reflection in C#? (or How to build Dynamic

  - by Pretzel

  Maybe I should back-up and widen the scope before diving into the title question... I'm currently writing a web app in ASP.NET MVC 1.0 (although I do have MVC 2.0 installed on my PC, so I'm not exactly restricted to 1.0) -- I've started with the standard MVC project which has your basic "Welcome to ASP.NET MVC" and shows both the [Home] tab and [About] tab in the upper-right corner. Pretty standard, right? I've added 4 new Controller classes, let's call them "Astronomer", "Biologist", "Chemist", and "Physicist". Attached to each new controller class is the [Authorize] attribute. For example, for the BiologistController.cs [Authorize(Roles = "Biologist,Admin")] public class BiologistController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } } These [Authorize] tags naturally limit which user can access different controllers depending on Roles, but I want to dynamically build a Menu at the top of my website in the Site.Master Page based on the Roles the user is a part of. So for example, if JoeUser was a member of Roles "Astronomer" and "Physicist", the navigation menu would say: [Home] [Astronomer] [Physicist] [About] And naturally, it would not list links to "Biologist" or "Chemist" controller Index page. Or if "JohnAdmin" was a member of Role "Admin", links to all 4 controllers would show up in the navigation bar. Ok, you prolly get the idea... Starting with the answer from this StackOverflow topic about Dynamic Menu building in ASP.NET, I'm trying to understand how I would fully implement this. (I'm a newbie and need a little more guidance, so please bare with me.) The answer proposes Extending the Controller class (call it "ExtController") and then have each new WhateverController inherit from ExtController. My conclusion is that I would need to use Reflection in this ExtController Constructor to determine which Classes and Methods have [Authorize] attributes attached to them to determine the Roles. Then using a Static Dictionary, store the Roles and Controllers/Methods in key-value pairs. I imagine it something like this: public class ExtController : Controller { protected static Dictionary<Type,List<string>> ControllerRolesDictionary; protected override void OnActionExecuted(ActionExecutedContext filterContext) { // build list of menu items based on user's permissions, and add it to ViewData IEnumerable<MenuItem> menu = BuildMenu(); ViewData["Menu"] = menu; } private IEnumerable<MenuItem> BuildMenu() { // Code to build a menu SomeRoleProvider rp = new SomeRoleProvider(); foreach (var role in rp.GetRolesForUser(HttpContext.User.Identity.Name)) { } } public ExtController() { // Use this.GetType() to determine if this Controller is already in the Dictionary if (!ControllerRolesDictionary.ContainsKey(this.GetType())) { // If not, use Reflection to add List of Roles to Dictionary // associating with Controller } } } Is this doable? If so, how do I perform Reflection in the ExtController constructor to discover the [Authorize] attribute and related Roles (if any) ALSO! Feel free to go out-of-scope on this question and suggest an alternate way of solving this "Dynamic Site.Master Menu based on Roles" problem. I'm the first to admit that this may not be the best approach.

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• using a Singleton to pass credentials in a multi-tenant application a code smell?

  - by Hans Gruber

  Currently working on a multi-tenant application that employs Shared DB/Shared Schema approach. IOW, we enforce tenant data segregation by defining a TenantID column on all tables. By convention, all SQL reads/writes must include a Where TenantID = '?' clause. Not an ideal solution, but hindsight is 20/20. Anyway, since virtually every page/workflow in our app must display tenant specific data, I made the (poor) decision at the project's outset to employ a Singleton to encapsulate the current user credentials (i.e. TenantID and UserID). My thinking at the time was that I didn't want to add a TenantID parameter to each and every method signature in my Data layer. Here's what the basic pseudo-code looks like: public class UserIdentity { public UserIdentity(int tenantID, int userID) { TenantID = tenantID; UserID = userID; } public int TenantID { get; private set; } public int UserID { get; private set; } } public class AuthenticationModule : IHttpModule { public void Init(HttpApplication context) { context.AuthenticateRequest += new EventHandler(context_AuthenticateRequest); } private void context_AuthenticateRequest(object sender, EventArgs e) { var userIdentity = _authenticationService.AuthenticateUser(sender); if (userIdentity == null) { //authentication failed, so redirect to login page, etc } else { //put the userIdentity into the HttpContext object so that //its only valid for the lifetime of a single request HttpContext.Current.Items["UserIdentity"] = userIdentity; } } } public static class CurrentUser { public static UserIdentity Instance { get { return HttpContext.Current.Items["UserIdentity"]; } } } public class WidgetRepository: IWidgetRepository{ public IEnumerable<Widget> ListWidgets(){ var tenantId = CurrentUser.Instance.TenantID; //call sproc with tenantId parameter } } As you can see, there are several code smells here. This is a singleton, so it's already not unit test friendly. On top of that you have a very tight-coupling between CurrentUser and the HttpContext object. By extension, this also means that I have a reference to System.Web in my Data layer (shudder). I want to pay down some technical debt this sprint by getting rid of this singleton for the reasons mentioned above. I have a few thoughts on what an better implementation might be, but if anyone has any guidance or lessons learned they could share, I would be much obliged.

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• Backbone.js (model instanceof Model) via Chrome Extension

  - by Leoncelot

  Hey guys, This is my first time ever posting on this site and the problem I'm about to pose is difficult to articulate due to the set of variables required to arrive at it. Let me just quickly explain the framework I'm working with. I'm building a Chrome Extension using jQuery, jQuery-ui, and Backbone The entire JS suite for the extension is written in CoffeeScript and I'm utilizing Rails and the asset pipeline to manage it all. This means that when I want to deploy my extension code I run rake assets:precompile and copy the resulting compressed JS to my extensions Directory. The nice thing about this approach is that I can actually run the extension js from inside my Rails app by including the library. This is basically the same as my extensions background.js file which injects the js as a content script. Anyway, the problem I've recently encountered was when I tried testing my extension on my buddy's site, whiskeynotes.com. What I was noticing is that my backbone models were being mangled upon adding them to their respective collections. So something like this.collection.add(new SomeModel) created some nonsense version of my model. This code eventually runs into Backbone's prepareModel code _prepareModel: function(model, options) { options || (options = {}); if (!(model instanceof Model)) { var attrs = model; options.collection = this; model = new this.model(attrs, options); if (!model._validate(model.attributes, options)) model = false; } else if (!model.collection) { model.collection = this; } return model; }, Now, in most of the sites on which I've tested the extension, the result is normal, however on my buddy's site the !(model instance Model) evaluates to true even though it is actually an instance of the correct class. The consequence is a super messed up version of the model where the model's attributes is a reference to the models collection (strange right?). Needless to say, all kinds of crazy things were happening afterward. Why this is occurring is beyond me. However changing this line (!(model instanceof Model)) to (!(model instanceof Backbone.Model)) seems to fix the problem. I thought maybe it had something to do with the Flot library (jQuery graph library) creating their own version of 'Model' but looking through the source yielded no instances of it. I'm just curious as to why this would happen. And does it make sense to add this little change to the Backbone source? Update: I just realized that the "fix" doesn't actually work. I can also add that my backbone Models are namespaced in a wrapping object so that declaration looks something like class SomeNamespace.SomeModel extends Backbone.Model

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• Showing div based on filled form field

  - by Fabio

  I have this script where I use a slider to show some elements of a form. So far so good. The way I'm doing it is by having a slider (can't use a multistep form since it uses a plugin not allowing multistep forms, plus some graphic behaviors) and a button that goes to the next slider. So now I need that button (not part of the form) to show only if a certain field is filled. I tried teh following, but it's not working, I assume some error but can't figure what. My code is as follows: $('#clientname').change(function() { var clientVal = $("input").val() == ''; $(".next").hide(); if ($('#clientname').val() != '').show(); else $('.next').hide(); }); and the html as follows: <div class="b40-right"> <h3>The Basics</h3> <div class="label"> Your Name (required)</div> <div class="inputes"> <span class="wpcf7-form-control-wrap your-name"><input id="clientname" type="text" name="your-name" value="" class="wpcf7-form-control wpcf7-text wpcf7-validates-as-required" size="40" /></span> </div> <div class="label">Your Email (required)</div> <div class="inputes"> <span class="wpcf7-form-control-wrap your-email"><input type="text" name="your-email" value="" class="wpcf7-form-control wpcf7-text wpcf7-email wpcf7-validates-as-required wpcf7-validates-as-email" size="40" /></span> </div> <div class="label">Type of Business</div> <div class="inputes"> <span class="wpcf7-form-control-wrap type-of-business"><textarea name="type-of-business" class="wpcf7-form-control wpcf7-textarea" cols="40" rows="10"></textarea></span> </div> </div> <a class="next" href="javascript:stepcarousel.stepBy('mygallery2', 1)"><img id="nextbut1" src="<?php bloginfo('template_directory'); ?>/images/next.png" alt="" /></a> any help on what am I doing wrong? Is there a better approach/solution? (I'm not a programmer as you may figure) Thank you in advance!

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• SQL Server architecture guidance

  - by Liam

  Hi, We are designing a new version of our existing product on a new schema. Its an internal web application with possibly 100 concurrent users (max)This will run on a SQL Server 2008 database. On of the discussion items recently is whether we should have a single database of split the database for performance reasons across 2 separate databases. The database could grow anywhere from 50-100GB over 5 years. We are Developers and not DBAs so it would be nice to get some general guidance. [I know the answer is not simple as it depends on the schema, archiving policy, amount of data etc. ] Option 1 Single Main Database [This is my preferred option]. The plan would be to have all the tables in a single database and possibly to use file groups and partitioning to separate the data if required across multiple disks. [Use schema if appropriate]. This should deal with the performance concerns One of the comments wrt this was that the a single server instance would still be processing this data so there would still be a processing bottle neck. For reporting we could have a separate reporting DB but this is still being discussed. Option 2 Split the database into 2 separate databases DB1 - Customers, Accounts, Customer resources etc DB2 - This would contain the bulk of the data [i.e. Vehicle tracking data, financial transaction tables etc]. These tables would typically contain a lot of data. [It could reside on a separate server if required] This plan would involve keeping the main data in a smaller database [DB1] and retaining the [mainly] read only transaction type data in a separate DB [DB2]. The UI would mainly read from DB1 and thus be more responsive. [I'm aware that this option makes it harder for Referential Integrity to be enforced.] Points for consideration As we are at the design stage we can at least make proper use of indexes to deal performance issues so thats why option 1 to me is attractive and its more of a standard approach. For both options we are considering implementing an archiving database. Apologies for the long Question. In summary the question is 1 DB or 2? Thanks in advance, Liam

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• web design PSD to html -> more direct ways?

  - by Assembler

  At work I see one colleague designing a site in Photoshop/Fireworks, I see another taking this data, slicing it up and using Dreamweaver to rebuild the same from scratch. It seems like too much mucking around! I know that Photoshop can output a tables based HTML, and Fireworks will create divs with absolute positioning; neither appear to be very helpful. Admittedly, I haven't tried much of (DW/FW) (CS4/CS3) since becoming a programmer, so I don't know if new versions are addressing this work flow issue, but are we still double handling things? Can we attach some sort of layout metadata (this is a rollover button, this will be a SWF, this will be text, this logo will hide "xyz" <h1> text etc) to slices to aid in layout generation? are there some secret tools which assist in this conversion process? Or are we still restricted to doing things by hand? The frustration continues when said hand built page needs to be reworked again to fit Smarty Templates/Wordpress/generic CMS. I acknowledge that designers need to be free of systems to be able to do whatever, but most conventional sites have: a header with navigation a sidebar with more links the main content part maybe another sidebar a footer Given the similarity of a lot of components, shouldn't there be a more systematic approach to going from sliced designs to functional HTML? Or am I over-simplifying things? -edit- Mmmmm.... I suppose I will accept an answer, but they weren't really what I was looking for. It just seems like designing the DOM is a bit of holy grail ("It's only a model!"), and maybe with all the "groovy" things you can do with HTML and Javascript, it would be mighty hard work, but with a set of constraints (that 960 stuff looks interesting), some well designed reset style sheets and a bit of... fairy dust? we should be able to improve the work flow. Photoshop's tables by themselves are pretty much useless, I agree, but surely we can take this data, and then select a group of cells and say "right, this is a text div, overflow:auto" or "these cells are an image block, style it with the same height/width as the selected area". Admittedly here at work there are other elephants in the room that need to make their formal introductions to management, but some parts of the designpage workflow seem... uneducated at best.

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• jquery use of :last and val()

  - by dole doug

  I'm trying to run the code from http://jsfiddle.net/ddole/AC5mP/13/ on my machine and the approach I've use is below or here. Do you know why that code doesn't work on my machine. Firebug doesn't help me and I can't solve the problem. I think that I need another pair of eyes :((( <!DOCTYPE html> <html lang="en"> <head> <meta charset="utf-8"> <title>jQuery UI Dialog - Modal form</title> <link type="text/css" href="css/ui-lightness/jquery-ui-1.8.21.custom.css" rel="stylesheet" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery-1.7.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery-ui-1.8.21.custom.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" > jQuery(function($) { $('.helpDialog').hide(); $('.helpButton').each(function() { $.data(this, 'dialog', $(this).next('.helpDialog').dialog({ autoOpen: false, modal: true, width: 300, height: 250, buttons: { "Save": function() { alert($('.helpText:last').val()); $(this).dialog( "close" ); }, Cancel: function() { $(this).dialog( "close" ); } } }) ); }).click(function() { $.data(this, 'dialog').dialog('open'); return false; }); }); </script> </head> <body> <span class="helpButton">Button</span> <div class="helpDialog"> <input type="text" class="helpText" /> </div> <span class="helpButton">Button 2</span> <div class="helpDialog"> <input type="text" class="helpText" /> </div> <span class="helpButton">Button 3</span> <div class="helpDialog"> <input type="text" class="helpText" /> </div> <span class="helpButton">Button 4</span> <div class="helpDialog"> <input type="text" class="helpText" /> </div> <span class="helpButton">Button 5</span> <div class="helpDialog"> <input type="text" class="helpText" /> </div> </body>

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• How do I detect server status in a port scanner java implementation

  - by akz

  I am writing a port scanner in Java and I want to be able to distinct the following 4 use cases: port is open port is open and server banner was read port is closed server is not live I have the following code: InetAddress address = InetAddress.getByName("google.com"); int[] ports = new int[]{21, 22, 23, 80, 443}; for (int i = 0; i < ports.length; i++) { int port = ports[i]; Socket socket = null; try { socket = new Socket(address, port); socket.setSoTimeout(500); System.out.println("port " + port + " open"); BufferedReader reader = new BufferedReader( new InputStreamReader(socket.getInputStream())); String line = reader.readLine(); if (line != null) { System.out.println(line); } socket.close(); } catch (SocketTimeoutException ex) { // port was open but nothing was read from input stream ex.printStackTrace(); } catch (ConnectException ex) { // port is closed ex.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } finally { if (socket != null && !socket.isClosed()) { try { socket.close(); } catch (Exception e) { e.printStackTrace(); } } } } The problem is that I get a ConnectionException both when the port is closed and the server cannot be reached but with a different exception message: java.net.ConnectException: Connection timed out: connect when the connection was never established and java.net.ConnectException: Connection refused: connect when the port was closed so I cannot make the distinction between the two use cases without digging into the actual exception message. Same thing happens when I try a different approach for the socket creation. If I use: socket = new Socket(); socket.setSoTimeout(500); socket.connect(new InetSocketAddress(address, port), 1000); I have the same problem but with the SocketTimeoutException instead. I get a java.net.SocketTimeoutException: Read timed out if port was open but there was no banner to be read and java.net.SocketTimeoutException: connect timed out if server is not live or port is closed. Any ideas? Thanks in advance!

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• Problem parsing XML data to Multi dimensional array

  - by Cam

  Hi there, i'm still transitioning from as2 to as3, i'm having trouble with parsing XML data to Multi dimensional array, below is the onComplete handler which is succesfully tracing 'event.target.data' but outputs 'A term is undefined and has no properties' when tracing _vein_data[0][0].xPos . I'm guessing there is a easier way to approach it than this attempt private function on_xml_completed(event:Event):void { var XMLPoints:XML = new XML(event.target.data); for ( var i:int = 0; i < XMLPoints.shape.length(); i++ ) { var shapeArray:Array = new Array(); _vein_data.push(shapeArray); for ( var j:int = 0; j < 4; i++ ) { _vein_data[i].push({'xPos':XMLPoints.shape[i].point[j].@xPos, 'yPos':XMLPoints.shape[i].point[j].@yPos}); } } trace(_vein_data[0][0].xPos) loadAsset(); } here's a portion of my XML; <items> <shape> <point xPos="60" yPos="23" /> <point xPos="65" yPos="23" /> <point xPos="93" yPos="85" /> <point xPos="88" yPos="87" /> </shape> <shape> <point xPos="88" yPos="87" /> <point xPos="92" yPos="83" /> <point xPos="145" yPos="174" /> <point xPos="138" yPos="175" /> </shape> <shape> <point xPos="138" yPos="175" /> <point xPos="143" yPos="171" /> <point xPos="147" yPos="211" /> <point xPos="141" yPos="212" /> </shape> </items> thank you in advance for any guidance on this Cam

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• How to page multiple data sets in ASP.NET MVC

  - by REA_ANDREW

  On a single view I will have three sets of paged data. Which means for each model I will have The Objects The Page Index The Page Size My initial thought was for example: public class PagedModel<T> where T:class { public IList<T> Objects { get; set; } public int ModelPageIndex { get; set; } public int ModelPageSize { get; set; } } Then having a model which is to be supplied to the action as for example: public class TypesViewModel { public PagedModel<ObjectA> Types1 { get; set; } public PagedModel<ObjectB> Typed2 { get; set; } public PagedModel<ObjectC> Types3 { get; set; } } So if I then for example have the Index view inherit from the type: System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<uk.co.andrewrea.forum.Web.Models.TypesViewModel> Now my initial aciton method for the index is simply: public ActionResult Index() { var forDisplayPurposes = new TypesViewModel(); return View(forDisplayPurposes); } If I then want to page, it is here where I am struggling to decide which action to take. Lets say that I select the next page of the Types2 PageModel. What should the action look like for this in order to return the new view showing the second page of the Types2 PageModel I was thinking possibly to duplicate the action but use it with POST [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Index(TypesViewModel model) { return View(model); } Is this a good way to approach it. I understand there is always Session, but I was just wondering how such a thing is achieved currently out there. If any best methods have been mutually accepted and things. So simply, one page with multiple paged models. How to persist the data for each using a wrapper model. Which way should you pass in the model and which way should you page the data, i.e. Form Post Lastly, I have seen the routes take this into account i.e. {controller}/{action}/{id}/{pageindex}/{pagesize} but this only accounts for one model and I do not really wwant to repeat the pagesize and pageindex values for the number of models I have inside the wrapper model. Thanks for your time!! Andrew

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• Rewriting Live TCP/IP (Layer 4) (i.e. Socket Layer) Streams

  - by user213060

  I have a simple problem which I'm sure someone here has done before... I want to rewrite Layer 4 TCP/IP streams (Not lower layer individual packets or frames.) Ettercap's etterfilter command lets you perform simple live replacements of Layer 4 TCP/IP streams based on fixed strings or regexes. Example ettercap scripting code: if (ip.proto == TCP && tcp.dst == 80) { if (search(DATA.data, "gzip")) { replace("gzip", " "); msg("whited out gzip\n"); } } if (ip.proto == TCP && tcp.dst == 80) { if (search(DATA.data, "deflate")) { replace("deflate", " "); msg("whited out deflate\n"); } } http://ettercap.sourceforge.net/forum/viewtopic.php?t=2833 I would like to rewrite streams based on my own filter program instead of just simple string replacements. Anyone have an idea of how to do this? Is there anything other than Ettercap that can do live replacement like this, maybe as a plugin to a VPN software or something? I would like to have a configuration similar to ettercap's silent bridged sniffing configuration between two Ethernet interfaces. This way I can silently filter traffic coming from either direction with no NATing problems. Note that my filter is an application that acts as a pipe filter, similar to the design of unix command-line filters: >[eth0] <----------> [my filter] <----------> [eth1]< What I am already aware of, but are not suitable: Tun/Tap - Works at the lower packet layer, I need to work with the higher layer streams. Ettercap - I can't find any way to do replacements other than the restricted capabilities in the example above. Hooking into some VPN software? - I just can't figure out which or exactly how. libnetfilter_queue - Works with lower layer packets, not TCP/IP streams. Again, the rewriting should occur at the transport layer (Layer 4) as it does in this example, instead of a lower layer packet-based approach. Exact code will help immensely! Thanks!

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• PHP running as a FastCGI application (php-cgi) - how to issue concurrent requests?

  - by Sbm007

  Some background information: I'm writing my own webserver in Java and a couple of days ago I asked on SO how exactly Apache interfaces with PHP, so I can implement PHP support. I learnt that FastCGI is the best approach (since mod_php is not an option). So I have looked at the FastCGI protocol specification and have managed to write a working FastCGI wrapper for my server. I have tested phpinfo() and it works, in fact all PHP functions seem to work just fine (posting data, sessions, date/time, etc etc). My webserver is able to serve requests concurrently (ie user1 can retrieve file1.html at the same time as user2 requesting some_large_binary_file.zip), it does this by spawning a new Java thread for each user request (terminating when completed or user connection with client is cancelled). However, it cannot deal with 2 (or more) FastCGI requests at the same time. What it does is, it queues them up, so when request 1 is completed immediately thereafter it starts processing request 2. I tested this with 2 PHP pages, one contains sleep(10) and the other phpinfo(). How would I go about dealing with multiple requests as I know it can be done (PHP under IIS runs as FastCGI and it can deal with multiple requests just fine). Some more info: I am coding under windows and my batch file used to execute php-cgi.exe contains: set PHP_FCGI_CHILDREN=8 set PHP_FCGI_MAX_REQUESTS=500 php-cgi.exe -b 9000 But it does not spawn 8 children, the service simply terminates after 500 requests. I have done research and from Wikipedia: Processing of multiple requests simultaneously is achieved either by using a single connection with internal multiplexing (ie. multiple requests over a single connection) and/or by using multiple connections Now clearly the multiple connections isn't working for me, as everytime a client requests something that involves FastCGI it creates a new socket to the FastCGI application, but it does not work concurrently (it queues them up instead). I know that internal multiplexing of FastCGI requests under the same connection is accomplished by issuing each unique FastCGI request with a different request ID. (also see the last 3 paragraphs of 'The Communication Protocol' heading in this article). I have not tested this, but how would I go about implementing that? I take it I need some kind of FastCGI Java thread which contains a Map of some sort and a static function which I can use to add requests to. Then in the Thread's run() function it would have a while loop and for every cycle it would check whether the Map contains new requests, if so it would assign them a request ID and write them to the FastCGI stream. And then wait for input etc etc, As you can see this becomes too complicated. Does anyone know the correct way of doing this? Or any thoughts at all? Thanks very much. Note, if required I can supply the code for my FastCGI wrapper.

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• How do you programmatically set a Style on a View?

  - by Greg

  I would like to do something like this: <Button android:id="@+id/button" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_cotent" style="@style/SubmitButtonType" /> But in code The xml approach works fine provided that SubmitButtonType is defined. Now what I assume happens is that the appt parser runs through this xml, generates an AttributeSet. That AttributeSet when passed to context/theme#obtainStyledAttributes() will have the style ref mask anything that is not written inline in this tag. Great that's fine! Now how do we do this programmatically. Button, as well as other View types, has a constructor that has the form: <Widget>(Context context, AttributeSet set, int defStyle). So I thought this would work. Button button = new Button(context, null, R.style.SubmitButtonType); However, I am finding that defStyle is badly documented as it really should be written to be a resourceId to an attribute (from R.attrs) that will be passed to obtainStyledAttributes() as the attribute resource, and not the style resource. After looking at the code, all the view implementations seem to pass 0 as the styleRef. I don't see the harm in having it passed as both the attr and the style resource (more flexible and negligible overhead) However I might be approaching this all wrong. How do you do this in code then other than by setting each individual element of the style to the specific widget you want to style (only possible by looking a the code to see what param maps to which method or set of methods). The only way I have found to do this is: <declare-styleable> <attr name="totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case" format="reference"> </declare-styleable> <style name="MyAlreadyExistantTheme" > ... ... <item name="totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case">@style/SubmitButtonType</item> </style> And instead of passing R.style.SubmitButtonType as defStyle, I pass the new R.attr.totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case. Button button = new Button(context, null, R.attr.totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case); This works but sounds way too complicated.

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• What are the rules governing how a bind variable can be used in Postgres and where is this defined?

  - by Craig Miles

  I can have a table and function defined as: CREATE TABLE mytable ( mycol integer ); INSERT INTO mytable VALUES (1); CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION myfunction (l_myvar integer) RETURNS mytable AS $$ DECLARE l_myrow mytable; BEGIN SELECT * INTO l_myrow FROM mytable WHERE mycol = l_myvar; RETURN l_myrow; END; $$ LANGUAGE plpgsql; In this case l_myvar acts as a bind variable for the value passed when I call: SELECT * FROM myfunction(1); and returns the row where mycol = 1 If I redefine the function as: CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION myfunction (l_myvar integer) RETURNS mytable AS $$ DECLARE l_myrow mytable; BEGIN SELECT * INTO l_myrow FROM mytable WHERE mycol IN (l_myvar); RETURN l_myrow; END; $$ LANGUAGE plpgsql; SELECT * FROM myfunction(1); still returns the row where mycol = 1 However, if I now change the function definition to allow me to pass an integer array and try to this array in the IN clause, I get an error: CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION myfunction (l_myvar integer[]) RETURNS mytable AS $$ DECLARE l_myrow mytable; BEGIN SELECT * INTO l_myrow FROM mytable WHERE mycol IN (array_to_string(l_myvar, ',')); RETURN l_myrow; END; $$ LANGUAGE plpgsql; Analysis reveals that although: SELECT array_to_string(ARRAY[1, 2], ','); returns 1,2 as expected SELECT * FROM myfunction(ARRAY[1, 2]); returns the error operator does not exist: integer = text at the line: WHERE mycol IN (array_to_string(l_myvar, ',')); If I execute: SELECT * FROM mytable WHERE mycol IN (1,2); I get the expected result. Given that array_to_string(l_myvar, ',') evaluates to 1,2 as shown, why arent these statements equivalent. From the error message it is something to do with datatypes, but doesnt the IN(variable) construct appear to be behaving differently from the = variable construct? What are the rules here? I know that I could build a statement to EXECUTE, treating everything as a string, to achieve what I want to do, so I am not looking for that as a solution. I do want to understand though what is going on in this example. Is there a modification to this approach to make it work, the particular example being to pass in an array of values to build a dynamic IN clause without resorting to EXECUTE? Thanks in advance Craig

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• What IPC method should I use between Firefox extension and C# code running on the same machine?

  - by Rory

  I have a question about how to structure communication between a (new) Firefox extension and existing C# code. The firefox extension will use configuration data and will produce other data, so needs to get the config data from somewhere and save it's output somewhere. The data is produced/consumed by existing C# code, so I need to decide how the extension should interact with the C# code. Some pertinent factors: It's only running on windows, in a relatively controlled corporate environment. I have a windows service running on the machine, built in C#. Storing the data in a local datastore (like sqlite) would be useful for other reasons. The volume of data is low, e.g. 10kb of uncompressed xml every few minutes, and isn't very 'chatty'. The data exchange can be asynchronous for the most part if not completely. As with all projects, I have limited resources so want an option that's relatively easy. It doesn't have to be ultra-high performance, but shouldn't add significant overhead. I'm planning on building the extension in javascript (although could be convinced otherwise if really necessary) Some options I'm considering: use an XPCOM to .NET/COM bridge use a sqlite db: the extension would read from and save to it. The c# code would run in the service, populating the db and then processing data created by the service. use TCP sockets to communicate between the extension and the service. Let the service manage a local data store. My problem with (1) is I think this will be tricky and not so easy. But I could be completely wrong? The main problem I see with (2) is the locking of sqlite: only a single process can write data at a time so there'd be some blocking. However, it would be nice generally to have a local datastore so this is an attractive option if the performance impact isn't too great. I don't know whether (3) would be particularly easy or hard ... or what approach to take on the protocol: something custom or http. Any comments on these ideas or other suggestions? UPDATE: I was planning on building the extension in javascript rather than c++

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• MVC EditorFor bind to type in array

  - by BradBrening

  I have a ViewModel that, among other properties, contains an array of 'EmailAddress' objects. EmailAddress itself has properties such as "Address", and "IsPrimary". My view model breakdown is: public class UserDetailsViewModel { public BUser User { get; set; } public string[] Roles { get; set; } public EmailAddress[] EmailAddresses { get; set; } } I am showing a "User Details" page that is pretty standard. For example, I'm displaying data using @Html.DisplayFor(model => model.User.UserName) and @Html.DisplayFor(model => model.User.Comment) I also have a section on the page that lists all of the EmailAddress objects associated with the user: @if(Model.EmailAddresses.Length > 0) { foreach (var address in Model.EmailAddresses) { <div> @Html.DisplayFor(model => address.Address) </div> } } else { <div class="center">User does not have any email addresses.</div> } My problem is that I would like to show an "Add Email Address" form above the list of email addresses. I thought I would take the "normal" approach thusly: @using(Html.BeginForm(new { id=Model.User.UserName, action="AddUserEmailAddress" })) { <text>Address:</text> @Html.EditorFor(model => ** HERE I AM STUCK **) <input type="submit" value="Add Email" class="button" /> } As you may be able to tell, I am stuck here. I've tried model => Model.EmailAddresses[0] and model => Model.EmailAddresses.FirstOrDefault(). Both of these have failed horribly. I am sure that I am going about this all wrong. I've even thought of adding a "dummy" property to my ViewModel of type EmailAddress just so that I can bind to that in my EditorFor - but that seems to be a really bad hack. There has to be something simple that I'm overlooking! I would appreciate any help anyone can offer with this matter. Thank you in advance!

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