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  • Calling jquery function from ascx not working

    - by Metju
    Hi Guys, I'm having a problem with the following situation. I have an ascx which contains a submit button for a search criteria and I am trying to call a validation function in a js file I've used throughout the site (this is the first time I'm using it in an ascx). Now I've just tried this: <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery-1.3.2.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jsAdmin_Generic_SystemValidation.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $(".submitBtn").click(function (e) { alert("test"); alert($.Validate()); alert("test 2"); }); }); </script> The file is being referenced correctly as I am already seeing posts in Firebug that are done by it. This is the function: jQuery.extend({ Validate: function () { does validation... }); Now at first I was getting "Validate() is not a function" in firebug. Since I did that alert testing, I am getting the first alert, then nothing with no errors. Can anyone shed some light? Thanks

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  • Javascript API not working for Chrome or Safari on JW Player 5.9

    - by Lando
    I am working on a custom interface for the JW Player which displays the current track title and has play/pause, next track, previous track and volume toggle buttons. It works for IE8/9 and FF but fails for Chrome and Safari. Chrome's console gives the following error: Uncaught TypeError: Object # has no method 'addControllerListener' This is the code I am using for testing. <div id="container">Loading the player ...</div> <script type="text/javascript"> jwplayer("container").setup({ image: "preview.jpg", height: 320, width: 480, modes: [ { type: "html5" }, { type: "flash", src: "player.swf" } ], 'playlist': [ { 'file': "audio/01.mp3", 'title': "Track 1" }, { 'file': "audio/02.mp3", 'title': "Track 2" }, { 'file': "audio/03.mp3", 'title': "Track 3" } ], }); function playerReady(obj) { player = document.getElementById(obj.id); displayFirstItem(); }; function displayFirstItem() { try { playlist = player.getPlaylist(); } catch(e) { setTimeout("displayFirstItem()", 100); } player.addControllerListener('ITEM', 'itemMonitor'); itemMonitor({index:0}); }; function itemMonitor(obj) { $('#nowplaying').html('<span><strong>Now Playing:</strong> ' + playlist[obj.index]['title'] + '</span>'); }; </script> <div id="nowplaying"></div> <div class="control_bar"> <ul> <li onclick='player.sendEvent("play");'>[ &#8250; ] Play / Pause</li> <li onclick='player.sendEvent("prev");'>[ &laquo; ] Previous item</li> <li onclick='player.sendEvent("next");'>[ &raquo; ] Next item</li> </ul> </div> I have searched and tried several modifications, like adding the javascriptid parameter, nothing seems to work for Chrome or Safari. Any ideas? Thanks

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  • Android Accessing Accelerometer: Returns always 0 as Value

    - by Rotesmofa
    Hello there, i would like to use the accelerometer in an Android Handset for my Application. The data from the sensor will be saved together with a GPS Point, so the Value is only needed when the GPS Point is updated. If i use the attached Code the values is always zero. API Level 8 Permissions: Internet, Fine Location Testing Device: Galaxy S(i9000), Nexus One Any Suggestions? I am stuck at this point. Best regards from Germany, Pascal import android.app.Activity; import android.hardware.Sensor; import android.hardware.SensorEvent; import android.hardware.SensorEventListener; import android.hardware.SensorManager; import android.os.Bundle; public class AccelerometerService extends Activity{ AccelerometerData accelerometerData; private SensorManager mSensorManager; private float x,y,z; private class AccelerometerData implements SensorEventListener{ public void onSensorChanged(SensorEvent event) { x = event.values[0]; y = event.values[1]; z = event.values[2]; } public void onAccuracyChanged(Sensor sensor, int accuracy) {} } @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); mSensorManager = (SensorManager) getSystemService(SENSOR_SERVICE); mSensorManager.registerListener(accelerometerData, mSensorManager.getDefaultSensor(Sensor.TYPE_ACCELEROMETER), SensorManager.SENSOR_DELAY_FASTEST); } @Override protected void onResume() { super.onResume(); } @Override protected void onStop() { mSensorManager.unregisterListener(accelerometerData); super.onStop(); } public String getSensorString() { return ("X: " + x+"m/s, Y: "+ y +"m/s, Z: "+ z +"m/s" ); } }

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  • python-iptables: Cryptic error when allowing incoming TCP traffic on port 1234

    - by Lucas Kauffman
    I wanted to write an iptables script in Python. Rather than calling iptables itself I wanted to use the python-iptables package. However I'm having a hard time getting some basic rules setup. I wanted to use the filter chain to accept incoming TCP traffic on port 1234. So I wrote this: import iptc chain = iptc.Chain(iptc.TABLE_FILTER,"INPUT") rule = iptc.Rule() target = iptc.Target(rule,"ACCEPT") match = iptc.Match(rule,'tcp') match.dport='1234' rule.add_match(match) rule.target = target chain.insert_rule(rule) However when I run this I get this thrown back at me: Traceback (most recent call last): File "testing.py", line 9, in <module> chain.insert_rule(rule) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/iptc/__init__.py", line 1133, in insert_rule self.table.insert_entry(self.name, rbuf, position) File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/iptc/__init__.py", line 1166, in new obj.refresh() File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/iptc/__init__.py", line 1230, in refresh self._free() File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/iptc/__init__.py", line 1224, in _free self.commit() File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/iptc/__init__.py", line 1219, in commit raise IPTCError("can't commit: %s" % (self.strerror())) iptc.IPTCError: can't commit: Invalid argument Exception AttributeError: "'NoneType' object has no attribute 'get_errno'" in <bound method Table.__del__ of <iptc.Table object at 0x7fcad56cc550>> ignored Does anyone have experience with python-iptables that could enlighten on what I did wrong?

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  • convincing C# compiler that execution will stop after a member returns

    - by Sarah Vessels
    I don't think this is currently possible or if it's even a good idea, but it's something I was thinking about just now. I use MSTest for unit testing my C# project. In one of my tests, I do the following: MyClass instance; try { instance = getValue(); } catch (MyException ex) { Assert.Fail("Caught MyException"); } instance.doStuff(); // Use of unassigned local variable 'instance' To make this code compile, I have to assign a value to instance either at its declaration or in the catch block. However, Assert.Fail will never, to the best of my knowledge, allow execution to proceed past it, hence instance will never be used without a value. Why is it then that I must assign a value to it? If I change the Assert.Fail to something like throw ex, the code compiles fine, I assume because it knows that exception will disallow execution to proceed to a point where instance would be used uninitialized. So is it a case of runtime versus compile-time knowledge about where execution will be allowed to proceed? Would it ever be reasonable for C# to have some way of saying that a member, in this case Assert.Fail, will never allow execution after it returns? Maybe that could be in the form of a method attribute. Would this be useful or an unnecessary complexity for the compiler?

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  • How to download .exe file with progress bar - VB 2012

    - by user2839828
    I am trying to create an updater for my program which automatically download's the latest version of my program from the web. Now I want this process to be done using a progress bar (so when the download progress is at 50% the progress bar is half-way through). This is my code: Private Sub client_ProgressChanged(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As DownloadProgressChangedEventArgs) Dim bytesIn As Double = Double.Parse(e.BytesReceived.ToString()) Dim totalBytes As Double = Double.Parse(e.TotalBytesToReceive.ToString()) Dim percentage As Double = bytesIn / totalBytes * 100 client.Value = Int32.Parse(Math.Truncate(percentage).ToString()) End Sub Private Sub Button1_Click(sender As Object, e As EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim url As String = "MY DOWNLOAD LINK" 'Download Dim client As WebClient = New WebClient AddHandler client.DownloadProgressChanged, AddressOf client_ProgressChanged AddHandler client.DownloadFileCompleted, AddressOf client_DownloadCompleted client.DownloadFileAsync(New Uri(url), "C:\Users\User\Desktop\BACKUP\TESTING\New folder\1.exe") End Sub End Class Now I know that the place where the file is saved has been inputed manually by me , but I will change that later. My problem currently is that the file is not being downloaded. However when I change the DownloadFileAsync method to DownloadFile , my program downloads the file. However with the DownloadFile method I will not be able to use the progress bar to track the download progress. Any help is much appreciated :-)

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  • php file force download

    - by droidus
    When I use this code to download this image (only used for testing purposes), I open the downloaded image, and all it gives me is an error. i tried it in chrome. opening it with windows photo viewer, it says that it can't display the picture because it is empty??? here is the code: <?PHP // Define the path to file $file = 'http://www.media.lonelyplanet.com/lpi/12553/12553-11/469x264.jpg'; if(!file) { // File doesn't exist, output error die('file not found'); } else { header('Content-Description: File Transfer'); header('Content-Type: application/octet-stream'); header('Content-Disposition: attachment; filename='.basename($file)); header('Content-Transfer-Encoding: binary'); header('Expires: 0'); header('Cache-Control: must-revalidate, post-check=0, pre-check=0'); header('Pragma: public'); header('Content-Length: ' . filesize($file)); ob_clean(); flush(); readfile($file); exit; } ?>

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  • Directly call distutils' or setuptools' setup() function with command name/options, without parsing

    - by Ryan B. Lynch
    I'd like to call Python's distutils' or setuptools' setup() function in a slightly unconventional way, but I'm not sure whether distutils is meant for this kind of usage. As an example, let's say I currently have a 'setup.py' file, which looks like this (lifted verbatim from the distutils docs--the setuptools usage is almost identical): from distutils.core import setup setup(name='Distutils', version='1.0', description='Python Distribution Utilities', author='Greg Ward', author_email='[email protected]', url='http://www.python.org/sigs/distutils-sig/', packages=['distutils', 'distutils.command'], ) Normally, to build just the .spec file for an RPM of this module, I could run python setup.py bdist_rpm --spec-only, which parses the command line and calls the 'bdist_rpm' code to handle the RPM-specific stuff. The .spec file ends up in './dist'. How can I change my setup() invocation so that it runs the 'bdist_rpm' command with the '--spec-only' option, WITHOUT parsing command-line parameters? Can I pass the command name and options as parameters to setup()? Or can I manually construct a command line, and pass that as a parameter, instead? NOTE: I already know that I could call the script in a separate process, with an actual command line, using os.system() or the subprocess module or something similar. I'm trying to avoid using any kind of external command invocations. I'm looking specifically for a solution that runs setup() in the current interpreter. For background, I'm converting some release-management shell scripts into a single Python program. One of the tasks is running 'setup.py' to generate a .spec file for further pre-release testing. Running 'setup.py' as an external command, with its own command line options, seems like an awkward method, and it complicates the rest of the program. I feel like there may be a more Pythonic way.

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  • Dumping an ADODB recordset to XML, then back to a recordset, then saving to the db

    - by Mark Biek
    I've created an XML file using the .Save() method of an ADODB recordset in the following manner. dim res dim objXML: Set objXML = Server.CreateObject("MSXML2.DOMDocument") 'This returns an ADODB recordset set res = ExecuteReader("SELECT * from some_table) With res Call .Save(objXML, 1) Call .Close() End With Set res = nothing Let's assume that the XML generated above then gets saved to a file. I'm able to read the XML back into a recordset like this: dim res : set res = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") res.open server.mappath("/admin/tbl_some_table.xml") And I can loop over the records without any problem. However what I really want to do is save all of the data in res to a table in a completely different database. We can assume that some_table already exists in this other database and has the exact same structure as the table I originally queried to make the XML. I started by creating a new recordset and using AddNew to add all of the rows from res to the new recordset dim outRes : set outRes = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.recordset") dim outConn : set outConn = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") dim testConnStr : testConnStr = "DRIVER={SQL Server};SERVER=dev-windows\sql2000;UID=myuser;PWD=mypass;DATABASE=Testing" outConn.open testConnStr outRes.activeconnection = outConn outRes.cursortype = adOpenDynamic outRes.locktype = adLockOptimistic outRes.source = "product_accessories" outRes.open while not res.eof outRes.addnew for i=0 to res.fields.count-1 outRes(res.fields(i).name) = res(res.fields(i).name) next outRes.movefirst res.movenext wend outRes.updatebatch But this bombs the first time I try to assign the value from res to outRes. Microsoft OLE DB Provider for ODBC Drivers error '80040e21' Multiple-step OLE DB operation generated errors. Check each OLE DB status value, if available. No work was done. Can someone tell me what I'm doing wrong or suggest a better way for me to copy the data loaded from XML to a different database?

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  • Apache attack on compromised server, iframe injected by string replace

    - by Quang-Tuan Luong
    My server has been compromised recently. This morning, I have discovered that the intruder is injecting an iframe into each of my HTML pages. After testing, I have found out that the way he does that is by getting Apache (?) to replace every instance of <body> by <iframe link to malware></iframe></body> For example if I browse a file residing on the server consisting of: </body> </body> Then my browser sees a file consisting of: <iframe link to malware></iframe></body> <iframe link to malware></iframe></body> I have immediately stopped Apache to protect my visitors, but so far I have not been able to find what the intruder has changed on the server to perform the attack. I presume he has modified an Apache config file, but I have no idea which one. In particular, I have looked for recently modified files by time-stamp, but did not find anything noteworthy. Thanks for any help. Tuan. PS: I am in the process of rebuilding a new server from scratch, but in the while, I would like to keep the old one running, since this is a business site.

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  • What is actually happening to this cancelled HTTP request?

    - by Brian Schroth
    When a user takes a particular action on a page, an AJAX call is made to save their data. Unfortunately, this call is synchronous as they need to wait to see if the data is valid before being allowed to continue. Obviously, this eliminates a lot of the benefit of using Asynchronous Javascript And XML, but that's a subject for another post. That's the design I'm working with. The request is made using the dojo.xhrPost function, with a 60s timeout parameter, and the error handler redirects to an error page. What I am finding in testing is that in Firefox, if I initiate the ajax request and then press ESC, the page hangs waiting for a response, and then eventually after exactly 90s (not 60s, the function's timeout), the error handler will kick in and redirect to the error page. I expected this to happen, but either immediately as soon as the request was cancelled, or after 60s due to the timeout value being 60s. What I don't understand is why is it 90s? What is actually happening under the hood when the user cancels their request in Firefox, and how does it differ from IE, where everything works fine exactly the same as if the request had not been cancelled? Is the 90s related to any user-configurable browser settings?

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  • Serializing a DataType="time" field using XmlSerializer

    - by CraftyFella
    Hi, I'm getting an odd result when serializing a DateTime field using XmlSerializer. I have the following class: public class RecordExample { [XmlElement("TheTime", DataType = "time")] public DateTime TheTime { get; set; } [XmlElement("TheDate", DataType = "date")] public DateTime TheDate { get; set; } public static bool Serialize(Stream stream, object obj, Type objType, Encoding encoding) { try { using (var writer = XmlWriter.Create(stream, new XmlWriterSettings { Encoding = encoding })) { var xmlSerializer = new XmlSerializer(objType); if (writer != null) xmlSerializer.Serialize(writer, obj); } return true; } catch (Exception) { return false; } } } When i call the use the XmlSerializer with the following testing code: var obj = new RecordExample {TheDate = DateTime.Now.Date, TheTime = new DateTime(0001, 1, 1, 12, 00, 00)}; var ms = new MemoryStream(); RecordExample.Serialize(ms, obj, typeof (RecordExample), Encoding.UTF8); txtSource2.Text = Encoding.UTF8.GetString(ms.ToArray()); I get some strange results, here's the xml that is produced: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <RecordExample xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <TheTime>12:00:00.0000000+00:00</TheTime> <TheDate>2010-03-08</TheDate> </RecordExample> Any idea's how i can get the "TheTime" element to contain a time which looks more like this: <TheTime>12:00:00.0Z</TheTime> ...as that's what i was expecting? Thanks Dave

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  • Correctly encode characters in a PHP mail form ("I'm" turns to be "I\'m")

    - by Peanuts
    Hello guys, I'm testing a PHP mail form, a very barebones one, found here: <?php if(isset($_POST['submit'])) { //The form has been submitted, prep a nice thank you message $output = '<h3>Thanks for your message</h3>'; //Deal with the email $to = '[email protected]'; $subject = 'you have a mail'; $contactname = strip_tags($_POST['contactname']); $adress = strip_tags($_POST['adress']); $contactemail = strip_tags($_POST['contactemail']); $textmessage = strip_tags($_POST['textmessage']); $boundary =md5(date('r', time())); $headers = "From: My Site\r\nReply-To: [email protected]"; $message = "Name: ".$contactname."\n"; $message .= "Adress: ".$adress."\n"; $message .= "E-mail: ".$contactemail."\n"; $message .= "Message: ".$textmessage."\n"; mail($to, $subject, $message, $headers); } ?> The problem is I'm receiving an unwanted slash "\" everytime I write a single or a double quote in my message, so "I'm" appear as "I\'m" in my mailbox. I know it have to do with the way PHP distinguishes code quotes from only lecture quotes, but I wouldn't know what to add in my form to get it properly running. Any help is appreciated,

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  • Anonymous union definition/declaration in a macro GNU vs VS2008

    - by Alan_m
    I am attempting to alter an IAR specific header file for a lpc2138 so it can compile with Visual Studio 2008 (to enable compatible unit testing). My problem involves converting register definitions to be hardware independent (not at a memory address) The "IAR-safe macro" is: #define __IO_REG32_BIT(NAME, ADDRESS, ATTRIBUTE, BIT_STRUCT) \ volatile __no_init ATTRIBUTE union \ { \ unsigned long NAME; \ BIT_STRUCT NAME ## _bit; \ } @ ADDRESS //declaration //(where __gpio0_bits is a structure that names //each of the 32 bits as P0_0, P0_1, etc) __IO_REG32_BIT(IO0PIN,0xE0028000,__READ_WRITE,__gpio0_bits); //usage IO0PIN = 0x0xAA55AA55; IO0PIN_bit.P0_5 = 0; This is my comparable "hardware independent" code: #define __IO_REG32_BIT(NAME, BIT_STRUCT)\ volatile union \ { \ unsigned long NAME; \ BIT_STRUCT NAME##_bit; \ } NAME; //declaration __IO_REG32_BIT(IO0PIN,__gpio0_bits); //usage IO0PIN.IO0PIN = 0xAA55AA55; IO0PIN.IO0PIN_bit.P0_5 = 1; This compiles and works but quite obviously my "hardware independent" usage does not match the "IAR-safe" usage. How do I alter my macro so I can use IO0PIN the same way I do in IAR? I feel this is a simple anonymous union matter but multiple attempts and variants have proven unsuccessful. Maybe the IAR GNU compiler supports anonymous unions and vs2008 does not. Thank you.

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  • Get instance of type inheriting from base class, implementing interface, using StructureMap

    - by Ben
    Continuing on my quest for a good plugin implementation I have been testing the StructureMap assembly scanning features. All plugins will inherit from abstract class PluginBase. This will provide access to common application services such as logging. Depending on it's function, each plugin may then implement additional interfaces, for example, IStartUpTask. I am initializing my plugins like so: Scan(x => { x.AssembliesFromPath(HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath("~/Plugins"), assembly => assembly.GetName().Name.Contains("Extension")); x.AddAllTypesOf<PluginBase>(); }); The difficulty I am then having is how to work against the interface (not the PluginBase) in code. It's easy enough to work with PluginBase: var plugins = ObjectFactory.GetAllInstances<PluginBase>(); foreach (var plugin in plugins) { } But specific functionality (e.g. IStartUpTask.RunTask) is tied to the interface, not the base class. I appreciate this may not be specific to structuremap (perhaps more a question of reflection). Thanks, Ben

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  • Porting WebGL game to iPhone's native OpenGL?

    - by ArtPulse
    We are developing a web game that uses WebGL for the two biggest parts of it. Working with HTML / CSS was too slow and too limited, so it's off the table. Thing is, iOS does not support WebGL publicly just yet, only on iAd. It is my guess Apple will eventually support it once the security issues they and Microsoft claim it has are fixed, and looks stable enough. Problem is, if Apple does not do this by the release of the next mayor iOS version, then we will have in our hands a mobile WebGL game that does not run. 6 months of development and testing to waste. So, questions: If that was the case, how viable (regarding amount of time) is it porting the WebGL part of the game to native iPhone OpenGL? I'm afraid that porting will take longer than the development of the game itself. I saw posts on Stack Overflow (like this) that suggested, on Android, adding the OpenGL interface manually to a WebKit element. It'd be slower than native. But either way... Is this something that could be accepted in the AppStore? Apple is very restrictive with these kind of stuff... Thank you all for your time!

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  • Facebook SDK Comment Deleting

    - by mwoodworth
    Working with the Facebook php SDK's, I am having a lot of trouble figuring out how to delete comments, given its id and xid. At first I was using the REST API, where you can call 'comments_remove($xid, $id);' to delete a comment. The problem with this method came when the xid parameter only accepts alphanumeric characters and underscores. Based on the documentation (http://developers.facebook.com/docs/reference/fbml/comments ) a valid XID can be the result of any url_encode. Now I am testing my luck with the new GRAPH api. Looking at http://developers.facebook.com/docs/api under 'Deleting Objects', It seems that comment deleting is definitely supported. However, I have tried sending a DELETE request, and I have also tried sending POST and GET to the object url with the argument 'method=delete'. No matter how I try it, I always get the same error: {"error":{"type":"GraphMethodException","message":"Unsupported delete request."}} I am sending the access token as a parameter as well. The access token that I am sending is the access token saved in the facebook cookie from the single sign on javascript cookie. These are all comments made on my application. Does this happen to anyone else, or am I simply not doing this right? Any help or guidance is GREATLY appreciated.

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  • Can the Singleton be replaced by Factory?

    - by lostiniceland
    Hello Everyone There are already quite some posts about the Singleton-Pattern around, but I would like to start another one on this topic since I would like to know if the Factory-Pattern would be the right approach to remove this "anti-pattern". In the past I used the singleton quite a lot, also did my fellow collegues since it is so easy to use. For example, the Eclipse IDE or better its workbench-model makes heavy usage of singletons as well. It was due to some posts about E4 (the next big Eclipse version) that made me start to rethink the singleton. The bottom line was that due to this singletons the dependecies in Eclipse 3.x are tightly coupled. Lets assume I want to get rid of all singletons completely and instead use factories. My thoughts were as follows: hide complexity less coupling I have control over how many instances are created (just store the reference I a private field of the factory) mock the factory for testing (with Dependency Injection) when it is behind an interface In some cases the factories can make more than one singleton obsolete (depending on business logic/component composition) Does this make sense? If not, please give good reasons for why you think so. An alternative solution is also appreciated. Thanks Marc

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  • Has form post behavior changed in modern browsers? (or How are double clicks handled by the browser)

    - by Alex Czarto
    Background: We are in the process of writing a registration/payment page, and our philosophy was to code all validation and error checking on the server side first, and then add client side validation as a second step (un-obstructive jQuery). We wanted to disable double clicks server side, so we wrote some locking, thread-safe code to handle simultaneous posts/race conditions. When we tried to test this, we realized that we could not cause a simultaneous post or race condition to occur. I thought that (in older browsers anyway) double clicking a submit button worked as follows: User double clicks submit button. Browser sends a post on the first click On the second click, browser cancels/ignores initial post, and initiates a second post (before the first post has returned with a response). Browser waits for second post to return, ignoring initial post response. I thought that from the server side it looked like this: Server gets two simultaneous post requests, executes and responds to them both (unaware that no one is listening to the first response). From our testing (FireFox 3.0, IE 8.0) this is what actually happens: User double clicks submit button Browser sends a post for the first click Browser queues up second click, but waits for the response from the first click. Response returns from first click (response is ignored?). Browser sends a post for the second click. So from a server side: Server receives a single post which it executes and responds to. Then, server receives a second request wich it executes and responds to. My question is, has this always worked this way (and I'm losing my mind)? Or is this a new feature in modern browsers that prevents simultaneous posts to be sent to the server? It seems that for server side double click prevention, we don't have to worry about simultaneous posts or race conditions. Only need to worry about queued up posts. Thanks in advance for any feedback / comments. Alex

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  • PayPal IPN "FAIL"

    - by Rob
    Hey all... I'm trying to figure out how to use PayPal's IPN and I've run into a wall. I want a buyer to be forwarded to a success page after making a purchase, and I want that page to show the details of their transaction. I choose IPN instead of the PDT because I also want to do some other behind the scenes stuff with their data. Anyway, here's the code I'm using -- I'm testing in sandbox mode -- but it returns "FAIL" every time. $req = 'cmd=_notify-validate'; foreach ($_POST as $key => $value) { $value = urlencode(stripslashes($value)); $req .= "&$key=$value"; } // post back to PayPal system to validate $header = "POST /cgi-bin/webscr HTTP/1.0\r\n"; $header .= "Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded\r\n"; $header .= "Content-Length: " . strlen($req) . "\r\n\r\n"; $fp = fsockopen ('www.sandbox.paypal.com', 80, $errno, $errstr, 30); if (!$fp) { // HTTP ERROR } else { fputs ($fp, $header . $req); while (!feof($fp)) { $res = fgets ($fp, 1024); if (strcmp ($res, "VERIFIED") == 0) { // PAYMENT VALIDATED & VERIFIED! echo "Validated!"; } else if (strcmp ($res, "INVALID") == 0) { // PAYMENT INVALID & INVESTIGATE MANUALY! echo "Invalid!"; } } fclose ($fp); }

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  • What MS technology to use for HTTP service returning XML?

    - by Borek
    I need to create a service that: accepts HTTP requests (with query string or HTTP POST parameters) does some processing on the requests (checking if the request is valid, authentication etc.) reads data from a custom store (another HTTP call in our case) returns the result as custom XML (defined with XSD) I'm trying to think of various MS technologies that could help me and how good they would be for this scenario (pretty standard one I guess). The tasks above are relatively separate, this is what comes to mind: HTTP front-end: ASP.NET Web Forms ASP.NET MVC (seems more appropriate here as I won't need server controls, view state etc.) WCF? Don't know much about it or how well it would suit my task. Custom logic on the server: this will probably be a generic C# code in all cases (sometimes "plugged into" or called from MVC controllers or some equivalent place in other technologies) Reading data from internal data stores: As said, this is another HTTP server in our case. Options that come to mind: Just read the data using something like WebClient (Just theoretically) implement a LINQ provider (Just even more theoretically) implement an EF provider Output the data as custom XML: Linq2XML Serialization? Is it flexible enough? Does WCF provide some tools for this? Some "OXM" - Object/XML mapper if there is something like that for .NET I may be wrong in many of my assumptions, this is just a quick list that comes to mind after a quick research. Some general notes / questions: Testing is important Solution with a clear domain model would be much preferred over the one without Can Entity Framework actually help somewhere in my scenario? If so, where and how? Would WCF be an appropriate technology for this? I don't know much about it.

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  • Android 1.5/1.6 issue with style and autogenerated R.java file

    - by Gaks
    I'm having strange issue with R.java file and styles defined in my resources. Here's some code: In res/values/strings.xml: <style parent="android:Theme.Dialog" name="PopupWindowStyle"> <item name="android:windowBackground">@drawable/bg1</item> <item name="android:textColor">@android:color/black</item> </style> In AndroidManifest.xml: <activity android:name=".RegisterScreen" android:icon="@drawable/ico" android:label="@string/applicationName" android:theme="@style/PopupWindowStyle" android:configChanges="locale|touchscreen|keyboard|keyboardHidden|navigation|orientation|fontScale"> </activity> In autogenerated gen/.../R.java: public static final class style { public static final int PopupWindowStyle=0x7f090000; } After some changes in the project, eclipse changed autogenerated value for PopupWindowStyle from 0x7f080000 to 0x7f090000. After that, on Android 1.5, RegisterScreen activity is displayed without PopupWindowStyle style - there is an error displayed in logcat: Skipping entry 0x7f090000 in package table 0 because it is not complex! On Android 1.6 however everything works fine - PopupWindowStyle works like it was before it's integer value has changed. I was testing this issue, by reverting the source code to older revisions. I can confirm, that this problem started occurring after src code commit, which changed two files completely unrelated to this part of code - and an autogenerated R.java file. Any idea what could cause that?

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  • Strategy Pattern with Type Reflection affecting Performances ?

    - by Aurélien Ribon
    Hello ! I am building graphs. A graph consists of nodes linked each other with links (indeed my dear). In order to assign a given behavior to each node, I implemented the strategy pattern. class Node { public BaseNodeBehavior Behavior {get; set;} } As a result, in many parts of the application, I am extensively using type reflection to know which behavior a node is. if (node.Behavior is NodeDataOutputBehavior) workOnOutputNode(node) .... My graph can get thousands of nodes. Is type reflection greatly affecting performances ? Should I use something else than the strategy pattern ? I'm using strategy because I need behavior inheritance. For example, basically, a behavior can be Data or Operator, a Data behavior can IO, Const or Intermediate and finally an IO behavior can be Input or Output. So if I use an enumeration, I wont be able to test for a node behavior to be of data kind, I will need to test it to be [Input, Output, Const or Intermediate]. And if later I want to add another behavior of Data kind, I'm screwed, every data-testing method will need to be changed.

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  • Bizarre Javascript JSON undefined error

    - by Nate C-K
    I'm experiencing an error that I haven't been able to find any mention of anywhere. I'm developing an AJAX-enabled WCF web service with ASP.NET. In my ASP.NET master page's , I included the json.js file, copied fresh from json.org. When I run the page, it fails (VS 2008 catches a Javascript exception) on the first line of code in json.js (following lots of comments), which is: JSON = JSON || {}; The error says that JSON is undefined: Microsoft JScript runtime error: 'JSON' is undefined Well, duh! That's why the line is testing if it's defined and if so setting it to an empty object! It is supposed to be undefined, right? Last I heard it was not an error in Javascript to perform such an operation on an undefined variable. Can anyone give me a clue as to what's going on here? I suspect it's something gone wrong elsewhere that's somehow causing this problem. I don't have deep experience with either Javascript or ASP.NET so it might be that I'm missing some common gotcha in the setup.

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  • How to use HSQLDB in Oracle query syntax mode?

    - by Jan Algermissen
    I am trying to use HSQLDB as an embedded database in a spring application (for testing). As the target production database is Oracle, I would like to use HSQLDBs Oracle syntax mode feature. In the Spring config I use <jdbc:embedded-database type="HSQL" id="dataSource"> </jdbc:embedded-database> <jdbc:initialize-database data-source="dataSource" enabled="true"> <jdbc:script location="classpath:schema.sql"/> </jdbc:initialize-database> And in schema.sql at the top I wrote: SET DATABASE SQL SYNTAX ORA TRUE; However, when running my test, I get the following error: java.sql.SQLException: Unexpected token: DATABASE in statement [SET DATABASE SQL SYNTAX ORA TRUE] Is this a syntax error or a permissions error or something entirely different? Thanks - also for any pointers that might lead to the answer. Given that HSQL is the Spring default for jdbc:embedded-database and given the target is Oracle, this scenario should actually be very common. However, I found nothing on the Web even touching the issue.

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