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  • How set accessory type when tabel view is enbled to editing?

    - by Madan Mohan
    Hi Guys, I am using the UITableView properties to edit it. theTableView.editing = YES; theTableView.allowsSelectionDuringEditing = YES; It is working fine, the row is selected and I am getting into the next controller but I need to display the the accessoryType in the row. I am using below line for that but even though it is not working. Is there any property or any thing missing to display the indiactor. cell.accessoryType = UITableViewCellAccessoryDisclosureIndicator; I am using the below code for table view. theTableView = [[UITableView alloc] initWithFrame:tableRect style:UITableViewStyleGrouped]; theTableView.editing = YES; theTableView.allowsSelectionDuringEditing = YES; theTableView.delegate = self; theTableView.dataSource = self; theTableView.scrollEnabled=YES; theTableView.separatorColor = [UIColor lightGrayColor]; theTableView.autoresizingMask=YES; theTableView.allowsSelection=YES; theTableView.sectionHeaderHeight=5; theTableView.sectionFooterHeight=5; [myView addSubview:theTableView]; Please help me. THank You, Madan Mohan

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  • jQuery HOW TO?? pass additional parameters to success callback for $.ajax call ?

    - by dotnetgeek
    Hello jQuery Ninjas! I am trying, in vain it seems, to be able to pass additional parameters back to the success callback method that I have created for a successful ajax call. A little background. I have a page with a number of dynamically created textbox / selectbox pairs. Each pair having a dynamically assigned unique name such as name="unique-pair-1_txt-url" and name="unique-pair-1_selectBox" then the second pair has the same but the prefix is different. In an effort to reuse code, I have crafted the callback to take the data and a reference to the selectbox. However when the callback is fired the reference to the selectbox comes back as 'undefined'. I read here that it should be doable. I have even tried taking advantage of the 'context' option but still nothing. Here is the script block that I am trying to use: <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> $j = jQuery.noConflict(); function getImages(urlValue, selectBox) { $j.ajax({ type: "GET", url: $j(urlValue).val(), dataType: "jsonp", context: selectBox, success:function(data){ loadImagesInSelect(data, $j(this)) } , error:function (xhr, ajaxOptions, thrownError) { alert(xhr.status); alert(thrownError); } }); } function loadImagesInSelect(data, selectBox) { //var select = $j('[name=single_input.<?cs var:op_unique_name ?>.selImageList]'); var select = selectBox; select.empty(); $j(data).each(function() { var theValue = $j(this)[0]["@value"]; var theId = $j(this)[0]["@name"]; select.append("<option value='" + theId + "'>" + theValue + "</option>"); }); select.children(":first").attr("selected", true); } From what I have read, I feel I am close but I just cant put my finger on the missing link. Please help in your typical ninja stealthy ways. TIA

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  • How to get HTTP status code in HTTPService fault handler

    - by Ankur
    I am calling a server method through HTTPService from client side. The server is a RestFul web service and it might respond with one of many HTTP error codes (say, 400 for one error, 404 for another and 409 for yet another). I have been trying to find out the way to determine what was the exact error code sent by the server. I have walked teh entire object tree for the FaultEvent populated in my fault handler, but no where does it tell me the error code. Is this missing functionality in Flex? My code looks like this: The HTTP Service declaration: <mx:HTTPService id="myServerCall" url="myService" method="GET" resultFormat="e4x" result="myServerCallCallBack(event)" fault="faultHandler(event)"> <mx:request> <action>myServerCall</action> <docId>{m_sDocId}</docId> </mx:request> </mx:HTTPService> My fault handler code is like so: private function faultHandler(event : FaultEvent):void { Alert.show(event.statusCode.toString() + " / " + event.fault.message.toString()); }

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  • How to group data changes by operation with MySQL triggers

    - by Jan-Henk
    I am using triggers in MySQL to log changes to the data. These changes are recorded on a row level. I can now insert an entry in my log table for each row that is changed. However, I also need to record the operation to which the changes belong. For example, a delete operation like "DELETE * FROM table WHERE type=x" can delete multiple rows. With the trigger I can insert an entry for each deleted row into the log table, but I would like to also provide a unique identifier for the operation as a whole, so that the log table looks something like: log_id operation_id tablename fieldname oldvalue newvalue 1 1 table id 1 null 2 1 table type a null 3 1 table id 2 null 4 1 table type a null 5 2 table id 3 null 6 2 table type b null 7 2 table id 4 null 8 2 table type b null Is there a way in MySQL to identify the higher level operation to which the row changes belong? Or is this only possible by means of application level code? In the future it would also be nice to be able to record the transaction to which an operation belongs. Another question is if it is possible to capture the actual SQL query, besides using the query log. I don't think so myself, but maybe I am missing something. It is of course possible to capture these at the application level, but the goal is to keep intrusions to the application level code as minimal as possible. When this is not possible with MySQL, how is this with other database systems? For the current project it is not an option to use something other than MySQL, but it would be nice to know for future projects.

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  • How do I setup NInject? (I'm getting can't resolve "Bind", in the line "Bind<IWeapon>().To<Sword>()

    - by Greg
    Hi, I'm getting confused in the doco how I should be setting up Ninject. I'm seeing different ways of doing it, some v2 versus v1 confusion probably included... Question - What is the best way in my WinForms application to set things up for NInject (i.e. what are the few lines of code required). I'm assuming this would go into the MainForm Load method. In other words what code do I have to have prior to getting to: Bind<IWeapon>().To<Sword>(); I have the following code, so effectively I just want to get clarification on the setup and bind code that would be required in my MainForm.Load() to end up with a concrete Samurai instance? internal interface IWeapon { void Hit(string target); } class Sword : IWeapon { public void Hit(string target) { Console.WriteLine("Chopped {0} clean in half", target); } } class Samurai { private IWeapon _weapon; [Inject] public Samurai(IWeapon weapon) { _weapon = weapon; } public void Attack(string target) { _weapon.Hit(target); } } thanks PS. I've tried the following code, however I can't resolve the "Bind". Where does this come from? what DLL or "using" statement would I be missing? private void MainForm_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Bind<IWeapon>().To<Sword>(); // <== *** CAN NOT RESOLVE Bind *** IKernel kernel = new StandardKernel(); var samurai = kernel.Get<Samurai>();

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  • Why avoid increment ("++") and decrement ("--") operators in JavaScript?

    - by artlung
    I'm a big fan of Douglas Crockford's writing on JavaScript, particularly his book JavaScript: The Good Parts. It's made me a better JavaScript programmer and a better programmer in general. One of his tips for his jslint tool is this : ++ and -- The ++ (increment) and -- (decrement) operators have been known to contribute to bad code by encouraging excessive trickiness. They are second only to faulty architecture in enabling to viruses and other security menaces. There is a plusplus option that prohibits the use of these operators. This has always struck my gut as "yes, that makes sense," but has annoyed me when I've needed a looping condition and can't figure out a better way to control the loop than a while( a < 10 )do { a++ } or for (var i=0;i<10;i++) { } and use jslint. It's challenged me to write it differently. I also know in the distant past using things, in say PHP like $foo[$bar++] has gotten me in trouble with off-by-one errors. Are there C-like languages or other languages with similarities that that lack the "++" and "--" syntax or handle it differently? Are there other rationales for avoiding "++" and "--" that I might be missing? UPDATE -- April 9, 2010: In the video Crockford on JavaScript -- Part 5: The End of All Things, Douglas Crockford addresses the ++ issue more directly and with more detail. It appears at 1:09:00 in the timeline. Worth a watch.

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  • Custom UIButton for Iphone.

    - by Amal
    I have an view in my App which has a number of buttons based on the number of items returned by the server. So if the server returns say 10 items, there should be 10 buttons and clicking on each button should call a different person. For the above purpose I created a custom button class deriving from UIButton. @implementation HopitalButton @synthesize index; @synthesize button_type; - (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame { if (self = [super initWithFrame:frame]) { UIImage* img = [UIImage imageNamed:@"dr_btn.png"]; [img stretchableImageWithLeftCapWidth:10 topCapHeight:10]; [self setBackgroundImage:img forState:UIControlStateNormal]; [self setTitleColor:[UIColor colorWithRed:0.698 green:0.118 blue:0.376 alpha:1] forState:UIControlStateNormal] ; [self setFont:[UIFont fontWithName:@"Helvetica Bold" size:13]]; self.titleLabel.textColor = [UIColor colorWithRed:178 green:48 blue:95 alpha:1]; self.adjustsImageWhenHighlighted = YES; } return self; } - (void)dealloc { [super dealloc]; } @end Now the problem with the above code is that it does not create buttons that look similar to the buttons created by default in Interface builder. The borders are missing. And I create buttons of the above type by the following code: HopitalButton* hb = [[HopitalButton alloc] init]; hb.button_type = @"call"; hb.frame = CGRectMake(50, 50 + i * 67, 220, 40); [self.scroll_view addSubview:hb]; [hb setTitle:[[[self.office_full_list objectAtIndex:i] objectForKey:@"Staff" ]objectForKey:@"FullName"] forState:UIControlStateNormal]; hb.index = [NSNumber numberWithInt:[self.button_items count]]; [self.button_items insertObject:hb atIndex:[self.button_items count]]; [hb addTarget:self action:@selector(buttonClicked:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; I am not finding a way to set the button type for this custom button. Is there a way i can do it ? Or is there a better way to design the code.

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  • How do I associate Parameters to Command objects in ADO with VBScript?

    - by Krashman5k
    I have been working an ADO VBScript that needs to accept parameters and incorporate those parameters in the Query string that gets passed the the database. I keep getting errors when the Record Set Object attempts to open. If I pass a query without parameters, the recordset opens and I can work with the data. When I run the script through a debugger, the command object does not show a value for the parameter object. It seems to me that I am missing something that associates the Command object and Parameter object, but I do not know what. Here is a bit of the VBScript Code: ... 'Open Text file to collect SQL query string' Set fso = CreateObject("Scripting.FileSystemObject") fileName = "C:\SQLFUN\Limits_ADO.sql" Set tso = fso.OpenTextFile(fileName, FORREADING) SQL = tso.ReadAll 'Create ADO instance' connString = "DRIVER={SQL Server};SERVER=myserver;UID=MyName;PWD=notapassword; Database=favoriteDB" Set connection = CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Set cmd = CreateObject("ADODB.Command") connection.Open connString cmd.ActiveConnection = connection cmd.CommandText = SQL cmd.CommandType = adCmdText Set paramTotals = cmd.CreateParameter With paramTotals .value = "tot%" .Name = "Param1" End With 'The error occurs on the next line' Set recordset = cmd.Execute If recordset.EOF then WScript.Echo "No Data Returned" Else Do Until recordset.EOF WScript.Echo recordset.Fields.Item(0) ' & vbTab & recordset.Fields.Item(1) recordset.MoveNext Loop End If The SQL string that I use is fairly standard except I want to pass a parameter to it. It is something like this: SELECT column1 FROM table1 WHERE column1 IS LIKE ? I understand that ADO should replace the "?" with the parameter value I assign in the script. The problem I am seeing is that the Parameter object shows the correct value, but the command object's parameter field is null according to my debugger.

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  • Dismissing UIImagePickerController from UITabBarController

    - by Dave
    I have a tab bar application whereby one tab uses a navigation controller to move through a series of views. On the final view, there is a button to add a photo, which presents a UIImagePickerController. So far, so good - however when I finish picking the image, or cancel the operation, the previous view is loaded, but without the tab bar. I'm sure I'm missing something elementary, but any suggestions on how to properly release the UIImagePickerController would be much appreciated. The code is as follows: ImagePickerViewController *aController = [[ImagePickerViewController alloc]; initWithNibName:@"ImagePickerViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; [self presentModalViewController:aController animated:YES]; [aController release]; //viewDidLoad self.window = [[[UIWindow alloc] initWithFrame:[[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds]] autorelease]; imagePickerController = [[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; imagePickerController.delegate = self; if([UIImagePickerController isSourceTypeAvailable: UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera]){ imagePickerController.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera; } else { imagePickerController.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypePhotoLibrary; } [window addSubview:imagePickerController.view]; //ImagePickerViewController imagePickerControllerDidCancel - FinalViewController is the last view in the stack controlled by a navigation controller which contains the button to present the UIImagePickerController [picker dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; FinalViewController *aController = [[FinalViewController alloc initWithNibName:@"FinalViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; [picker presentModalViewController:aController animated:YES]; [aController release];

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  • Entity Framework - Foreign key constraints not added for inherited entity

    - by Tri Q
    Hello, It appears to me that a strange phenomenon is occurring with inherited entities (TPT) in EF4. I have three entities. 1. Asset 2. Property 3. Activity Property is a derived-type of Asset. Property has many activities (many-to-many) When modeling this in my EDMX, everything seems fine until I try to insert a new Property into the database. If the property does not contain any Activity, it works, but all hell breaks loose when I add some new activities to the new Property. As it turns out after 2 days of crawling the web and fiddling around, I noticed that in the EF store (SSDL) some of the constraints between entities were not picked up during the update process. Property_Activity table which links properties and activities show only one constraint FK_Property_Activity_Activity but FK_Property_Activity_Property was missing. I knew this is an Entity Framework anomoly because when I switched the relationship in the database to: Asset <-- Asset_Activity <-- Activity After an update, all foreign key constraints are picked up and the save is successful, with or without activities in the new property. Is this intended or a bug in EF? How do I get around this problem? Should I abandon inheritance altogether?

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  • How do I label a group of radio boxes for WCAG / 508 Compliance? Is ASP.NET doing it wrong?

    - by Mark Brittingham
    I am trying to bring an existing web site into greater conformance with WCAG 2.0 Guidelines and am a bit confused over the output emitted by Microsoft (ASP.NET 4.0 although it was the same in 3.5). Suppose you have a question like: "How would you rate your health?" and a set of 5 answers created using an ASP.NET RadioButtonList. I place the question in an asp:Label with an "AssociatedControlID" that matches the ID of the RadioButtonList (e.g. "SelfRatingBox"). Seems pretty easy... Only the output that is generated has an html "label" with a "For" that is equal to the ID of a table that wraps up the RadioButtons. I assumed that this would work with page readers but our 508 compliance guy is saying that the reader isn't associating the label with the radio controls. The WCAG guidelines indicate that you have to use a fieldset around the entire group and a legend to capture the associated text (the question). So what gives? It would be ideal if MS could take my label and the radiobuttonlist and generate the appropriate fieldset and legend tags but it seems pretty clear that to achieve WCAG compliance, I'll have to roll my own. Is this correct or am I missing something?

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  • Users in database server or database tables

    - by Batcat
    Hi all, I came across an interesting issue about client server application design. We have this browser based management application where it has many users using the system. So obvisously within that application we have an user management module within it. I have always thought having an user table in the database to keep all the login details was good enough. However, a senior developer said user management should be done in the database server layer if not then is poorly designed. What he meant was, if a user wants to use the application then a user should be created in the user table AND in the database server as a user account as well. So if I have 50 users using my applications, then I should have 50 database server user logins. I personally think having just one user account in the database server for this database was enough. Just grant this user with the allowed privileges to operate all the necessary operation need by the application. The users that are interacting with the application should have their user accounts created and managed within the database table as they are more related to the application layer. I don't see and agree there is need to create a database server user account for every user created for the application in the user table. A single database server user should be enough to handle all the query sent by the application. Really hope to hear some suggestions / opinions and whether I'm missing something? performance or security issues? Thank you very much.

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  • Matlab and .net problem with character string function input

    - by Peter
    I have a MATLAB function that I've compiled into a .net library. The function is a simple one that takes a character array as an input and a numeric array as output: function insert = money(dateLimit) .. insert = [1 2]; The function works fine when no function arguments are specified (a default argument is provided inside the function) Dim sf As New SpreadFinder.SpreadFinder Dim output = sf.money() As soon as an argument is specified .net complains. I'm thinking this should be easy and has been done before but searching through MATLAB documentation doesn't offer much help. Here's what I've tried. The sf.money() overload for the function with arguments is (numArgsOut as Integer, argsOut as MWArray, argsIn as MWArray) and hence that's what I've tried. What am I missing? Dim sf As New SpreadFinder.SpreadFinder Dim inputArgs(1) As Arrays.MWCharArray Dim dateLimitString As String = "some string" inputArgs(0) = New Arrays.MWCharArray(dateLimitString) Dim outputArgs(1) As Arrays.MWNumericArray outputArgs(0) = New Arrays.MWNumericArray() sf.money(1, outputArgs, inputArgs) Gives System.NullReferenceException : Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at MathWorks.MATLAB.NET.Utility.MWMCR.EvaluateFunction(String functionName, Int32 numArgsOut, Int32 numArgsIn, MWArray[] argsIn) at MathWorks.MATLAB.NET.Utility.MWMCR.EvaluateFunction(String functionName, Int32 numArgsOut, MWArray[]& argsOut, MWArray[] argsIn) at SpreadFinder.SpreadFinder.money(Int32 numArgsOut, MWArray[]& argsOut, MWArray[] argsIn)

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  • Extension Method for copying properties form object to another, with first attempt

    - by James
    Hi All, Im trying to write an extension method that I can use to copy values from one object property to another object of a different type, as long as the property names and types match exactly. This is what I have: public static T CopyFrom<T>(this T toObject, object fromObject) { var fromObjectType = fromObject.GetType(); var fromProperties = fromObjectType.GetProperties(); foreach (PropertyInfo toProperty in toObject.GetType().GetProperties()) { PropertyInfo fromProperty = fromObjectType.GetProperty(toProperty.Name); if (fromProperty != null) // match found { // check types var fromType = fromProperty.PropertyType.UnderlyingSystemType; var toType = toProperty.PropertyType.UnderlyingSystemType; if (toType.IsAssignableFrom(fromType)) { toProperty.SetValue(toObject, fromProperty.GetValue(fromObject, null), null); } } } return toObject; } This is working great for non boxed types, but Nullable<T> returns false when I call toType.IsAssignableFrom(fromType) because its type is Nullable<T> and is not the underlying type T. I read here that GetType() should unbox the Nullable<T> so it returns T but if I call that on PropertyInfo.PropertyType I get ReflectedMemberInfo and not the type T im looking for. I think im missing something obvious here, so I thought I would throw it open to SO to get some advice. Anyone have any ideas? Thanks, Jamee

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  • Enable cross app redirects

    - by Gogster
    Hi all, We have load balancing set up on out two web server, however, a few users are being asked to login when they are being re-directed to a particular server to upload a document (we are trying to keep all uploaded documents on one server only), here is the code from web.config: <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms name="EAAAuthCookie" loginUrl="/login" defaultUrl="/members/home" protection="All" path="/" timeout="60000" slidingExpiration="true" enableCrossAppRedirects="true" /> </authentication> <machineKey decryption="AES" validation="SHA1" decryptionKey="7B4EC5B0C83631DF25D5B179EDDBF91B1C175B81C6F52102267D3D097FBF272A" validationKey="7D1F50788629CC342EE4985D85DE3D14F10654695912C0FFD439F54BED64F76A57A2D5E8180BC6FF052E0385C30558F5527D6C197C577A7F32DD8FF1CAC9F794" /> Here is the transfer code to the upload form: $('#addReport').click(function() { if ($.cookie('TransferURL') != '') { $("#iframeUploadReport").attr('src', $.cookie('TransferURL')); }; $('#overlay').fadeIn('slow'); }); <script type="text/C#" runat="server"> void Page_Load() { string cookieName = FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName; string userName = Request.Cookies["HiddenUsername"].ToString(); string cookieValue = FormsAuthentication.GetAuthCookie(userName, false).Value; Response.Cookies["TransferURL"].Value = "http://eaa.cms.necinteractive.net/members/media-upload" + String.Format("?{0}={1}", cookieName, cookieValue); } </script> <iframe id="iframeUploadReport" src="http://eaa.cms.necinteractive.net/members/media-upload" width="500px" height="336px" frameborder="0" scrolling="no"></iframe> Can you see any obvious step we are missing? Thanks

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  • Javascript and webshop tracking/affiliate across websites, how to do?

    - by H4mm3rHead
    Hi, I have a small front end to a webshop. All customers that go through my website and buy an item from the webshop I get back 5% of the amount. I need to find a way af tracking the customers i forward from my webshop to the other webshop. And then get the webshop to reply to me when the purchase has been made. In my webshop i have made a small page: collect.aspx that requests and saves the values passed in the querystring, something like this pseudo code: string orderid = Request["orderid"]; string amount = Request["amount"]; ..save to database On the webshop i forward customers to i get to insert a javascript on the last page in the purchase flow. I have tried a lot of things but it seems that the only thing that works is to fool the browser into thinking im referring a javascript, like this: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://domain.com/mypage.aspx?orderid=4&amount=45/> I saw how other trackers did their bit, and this seems to be the general way of doing it. With this script however, i get all the orders, i only want to log those that belong tome, those who entered through my website. Here is my big problem, how to do this? I added a cookie when the user opens my page, and i want to check for this cookie again when the purchase page make the callback. It weems that i cant get the cookie from the browser when it makes the "" call. This is really buggin me now. Could anyone please tell me how this is generally done, this tracking. And what am i missing in regards to this cookie thing? All ideas on how to do this is very welcome.

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  • Making a 64 bit shared library that dynamically links to a 32 bit library on Mac OS X Snow Leopard

    - by carneades
    Update: After some more reading I see that this problem is totally general, you can't mix architectures in the same process, so 64 bit Java cannot dlopen() a 32 bit library like FMOD. Is there any possible workaround for this, keeping in mind I'm writing my own C interface to the FMOD library? I need to make a 64-bit dylib on Max OS X because Java Native Access only likes 64-bit libraries on 64-bit machines. The problem is, my C source code dynamically includes FMOD which on Mac only provides 32-bit dylibs. When I try to compile without the -m32 option (since I must output a 64-bit dylib) I get the following error: gcc -dynamiclib -std=c99 -pedantic -Wall -O3 -fPIC -pthread -o ../bin/libpenntotalrecall_fmod.dylib ../../src/libpenntotalrecall_fmod.c -lfmodex -L../../lib/osx/ ld: warning: in /usr/lib/libfmodex.dylib, missing required architecture x86_64 in file Undefined symbols: "_FMOD_System_CreateSound", referenced from: _startPlayback in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_Channel_GetPosition", referenced from: _streamPosition in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_System_Create", referenced from: _startPlayback in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_System_PlaySound", referenced from: _startPlayback in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_Sound_Release", referenced from: _stopPlayback in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_Channel_IsPlaying", referenced from: _playbackInProgress in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_System_Update", referenced from: _streamPosition in ccJnlwrd.o _startPlayback in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_Channel_SetPaused", referenced from: _startPlayback in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_System_Release", referenced from: _stopPlayback in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_System_Init", referenced from: _startPlayback in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_Channel_SetVolume", referenced from: _startPlayback in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_System_Close", referenced from: _stopPlayback in ccJnlwrd.o "_FMOD_Channel_SetCallback", referenced from: _startPlayback in ccJnlwrd.o ld: symbol(s) not found collect2: ld returned 1 exit status make: *** [all] Error 1 Shouldn't it be possible to get a 64 bit dylib from my source code that dynamically includes 32 bit libraries?!

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  • problem drawing gRaphaeljs pie chart

    - by Aswad
    Hi, I was trying to draw the raphaeljs piechart. I used the same example as shown on "http://g.raphaeljs.com/piechart2.html". It renders me the text but the pie charts goes missing.Can someone please help? please find the code below. g·Raphaël Dynamic Pie Chart Demo window.onload = function () { var r = Raphael("holder"); r.g.txtattr.font = "12px 'Fontin Sans', Fontin-Sans, sans-serif"; r.g.text(320, 100, "Interactive Pie Chart Demo").attr({"font-size": 20}); var pie = r.g.piechart(320, 240, 100, [55, 20, 13, 32, 5, 1, 2, 10], {legend: ["%%.%% – Enterprise Users", "IE Users"], legendpos: "west", href: ["http://raphaeljs.com", "http://g.raphaeljs.com"]}); pie.hover(function () { this.sector.stop(); this.sector.scale(1.1, 1.1, this.cx, this.cy); if (this.label) { this.label[0].stop(); this.label[0].scale(1.5); this.label[1].attr({"font-weight": 800}); } }, function () { this.sector.animate({scale: [1, 1, this.cx, this.cy]}, 500, "bounce"); if (this.label) { this.label[0].animate({scale: 1}, 500, "bounce"); this.label[1].attr({"font-weight": 400}); } }); }; </script> </head> <body class="raphael" id="g.raphael.dmitry.baranovskiy.com"> <div id="holder"></div> <p> Pie chart with legend, hyperlinks on two first sectors and hover effect. </p> <p> Demo of <a href="http://g.raphaeljs.com/">g·Raphaël</a> JavaScript library. </p> </body>

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  • Erlang OTP application design

    - by Toby Hede
    I am struggling a little coming to grips with the OTP development model as I convert some code into an OTP app. I am essentially making a web crawler and I just don't quite know where to put the code that does the actual work. I have a supervisor which starts my worker: -behaviour(supervisor). -define(CHILD(I, Type), {I, {I, start_link, []}, permanent, 5000, Type, [I]}). init(_Args) -> Children = [ ?CHILD(crawler, worker) ], RestartStrategy = {one_for_one, 0, 1}, {ok, {RestartStrategy, Children}}. In this design, the Crawler Worker is then responsible for doing the actual work: -behaviour(gen_server). start_link() -> gen_server:start_link(?MODULE, [], []). init([]) -> inets:start(), httpc:set_options([{verbose_mode,true}]), % gen_server:cast(?MODULE, crawl), % ok = do_crawl(), {ok, #state{}}. do_crawl() -> % crawl! ok. handle_cast(crawl}, State) -> ok = do_crawl(), {noreply, State}; do_crawl spawns a fairly large number of processes and requests that handle the work of crawling via http. Question, ultimately is: where should the actual crawl happen? As can be seen above I have been experimenting with different ways of triggering the actual work, but still missing some concept essential for grokering the way things fit together. Note: some of the OTP plumbing is left out for brevity - the plumbing is all there and the system all hangs together

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  • How to get SQL Function run a different query and return value from either query?

    - by RoguePlanetoid
    I need a function, but cannot seem to get it quite right, I have looked at examples here and elsewhere and cannot seem to get this just right, I need an optional item to be included in my query, I have this query (which works): SELECT TOP 100 PERCENT SKU, Description, LEN(CONVERT(VARCHAR (1000),Description)) AS LenDesc FROM tblItem WHERE Title = @Title AND Manufacturer = @Manufacturer ORDER BY LenDesc DESC This works within a Function, however the Manufacturer is Optional for this search - which is to find the description of a similar item, if none is present, the other query is: SELECT TOP 100 PERCENT SKU, Description, LEN(CONVERT(VARCHAR (1000),Description)) AS LenDesc FROM tblItem WHERE Title = @Title ORDER BY LenDesc DESC Which is missing the Manufacturer, how to I get my function to use either query based on the Manufacturer Value being present or not. The reason is I will have a function which first checks an SKU for a Description, if it is not present - it uses this method to get a Description from a Similar Product, then updates the product being added with the similar product's description. Here is the function so far: ALTER FUNCTION [dbo].[GetDescriptionByTitleManufacturer] ( @Title varchar(400), @Manufacturer varchar(160) ) RETURNS TABLE AS RETURN ( SELECT TOP 100 PERCENT SKU, Description, LEN(CONVERT(VARCHAR (1000),Description)) AS LenDesc FROM tblItem WHERE Title = @Title AND Manufacturer = @Manufacturer ORDER BY LenDesc DESC ) I've tried adding BEGINs and IF...ELSEs but get errors or syntax problems each way I try it, I want to be able to do something like this pseudo-function (which does not work): ALTER FUNCTION [dbo].[GetDescriptionByTitleManufacturer] ( @Title varchar(400), @Manufacturer varchar(160) ) RETURNS TABLE AS BEGIN IF (@Manufacturer = Null) RETURN ( SELECT TOP 100 PERCENT SKU, Description, LEN(CONVERT(VARCHAR (1000),Description)) AS LenDesc FROM tblItem WHERE Title = @Title ORDER BY LenDesc DESC ) ELSE RETURN ( SELECT TOP 100 PERCENT SKU, Description, LEN(CONVERT(VARCHAR (1000),Description)) AS LenDesc FROM tblItem WHERE Title = @Title AND Manufacturer = @Manufacturer ORDER BY LenDesc DESC ) END

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  • Updating a Minimum spanning tree when a new edge is inserted

    - by Lynette
    Hello, I've been presented the following problem in University: Let G = (V, E) be an (undirected) graph with costs ce = 0 on the edges e € E. Assume you are given a minimum-cost spanning tree T in G. Now assume that a new edge is added to G, connecting two nodes v, tv € V with cost c. a) Give an efficient algorithm to test if T remains the minimum-cost spanning tree with the new edge added to G (but not to the tree T). Make your algorithm run in time O(|E|). Can you do it in O(|V|) time? Please note any assumptions you make about what data structure is used to represent the tree T and the graph G. b)Suppose T is no longer the minimum-cost spanning tree. Give a linear-time algorithm (time O(|E|)) to update the tree T to the new minimum-cost spanning tree. This is the solution I found: Let e1=(a,b) the new edge added Find in T the shortest path from a to b (BFS) if e1 is the most expensive edge in the cycle then T remains the MST else T is not the MST It seems to work but i can easily make this run in O(|V|) time, while the problem asks O(|E|) time. Am i missing something? By the way we are authorized to ask for help from anyone so I'm not cheating :D Thanks in advance

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  • Delphi Mock Wizard

    - by Todd
    Let me preface this by saying I'm fairly new to Unit Testing, Mocks, Stubs, Etc... I've installed Delphi-Mock-Wizard. When I select a unit and "Generate Mock", a new unit is created but it's very basic and not anything what I understand Mocks to be. unit Unit1; (** WARNING - AUTO-GENERATED MOCK! Change this unit if you want to, but be aware that any changes you make will be lost if you regenerate the mock object (for instance, if the interface changes). My advice is to create a descendent class of your auto-generated mock - in a different unit - and override things there. That way you get to keep them. Also, the auto-generate code is not yet smart enough to generate stubs for inherited interfaces. In that case, change your mock declaration to inherit from a mock implementation that implements the missing interface. This, unfortunately, is a violation of the directive above. I'm working on it. You may also need to manually change the unit name, above. Another thing I am working on. **) interface uses PascalMock, TestInterfaces; type IThingy = interface; implementation end. Looking at the source there seems to be quite a bit commented out. I'm wondering, has anyone gotten this to work? My IDE is D2010. Thanks.

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  • How to access empty ASP.NET ListView.ListViewItem to apply a style after all databinding is done?

    - by Caroline S.
    We're using a ListView with a GroupTemplate to create a three-column navigation menu with six items in each column, filling in two non-data-bound rows in the last column with an EmptyItemTemplate that contains an empty HTML list item. That part works fine, but I also need to programmatically add a CSS class to the sixth (last) item in each column. That part is also working fine for the first two columns because I'm assigning the CSS class in the DataBound event, where I can iterate through the ListView.Items collection and access the sixth item in the first two columns by using a modulus operator and counter. The problem comes in the last column, where the EmptyItemTemplate has correctly filled in two empty list items, to the last of which I also need to add this CSS class. The empty items are not included in the ListView.Items collection (that's just ListViewDataItems, and the empty items are ListViewItems). I cannot find a way to access the entire collection of ListViewItems after binding. Am I missing something? I know I can access the empty items during ItemCreated, but I can't figure out how to determine where the item I'm creating falls in the flow, and whether it's the last one. Any help would be appreciated, if this can even be done -- I'm a bit stuck.

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  • Simple CalendarStore query puts application into infinite loop!?

    - by Frank R.
    Hi, I've been looking at adding iCal support to my new application and everything seemed just fine and worked on my Mac OS X 10.6 Snow Leopard development machine without a hitch. Now it looks like depending on what is in your calendar the very simple query below: - (NSArray*) fetchCalendarEventsForNext50Minutes { NSLog(@"fetchCalendarEventsForNext50Minutes"); NSTimeInterval start = [NSDate timeIntervalSinceReferenceDate]; NSDate* startDate = [[NSDate alloc] init]; NSDate* endDate = [startDate addTimeInterval: 50.0 * 60.0]; NSPredicate *eventsForTheNext50Minutes = [CalCalendarStore eventPredicateWithStartDate:startDate endDate:endDate calendars:[[CalCalendarStore defaultCalendarStore] calendars]]; // Fetch all events for this year NSArray *events = [[CalCalendarStore defaultCalendarStore] eventsWithPredicate: eventsForTheNext50Minutes]; NSLog( @"fetch took: %f seconds", [NSDate timeIntervalSinceReferenceDate] - start ); return events; } produces a beachball thrash even with quite limited events in the calendar store. Am I missing something crucial here? The code snippet is pretty much exactly from the documentation at: // Create a predicate to fetch all events for this year NSInteger year = [[NSCalendarDate date] yearOfCommonEra]; NSDate *startDate = [[NSCalendarDate dateWithYear:year month:1 day:1 hour:0 minute:0 second:0 timeZone:nil] retain]; NSDate *endDate = [[NSCalendarDate dateWithYear:year month:12 day:31 hour:23 minute:59 second:59 timeZone:nil] retain]; NSPredicate *eventsForThisYear = [CalCalendarStore eventPredicateWithStartDate:startDate endDate:endDate calendars:[[CalCalendarStore defaultCalendarStore] calendars]]; // Fetch all events for this year NSArray *events = [[CalCalendarStore defaultCalendarStore] eventsWithPredicate:eventsForThisYear]; It looks like it has something to do with the recurrence rules, but as far as I can see there are no other ways of fetching events from the calendar store anyway. Has anybody else come across this? Best regards, Frank

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  • WPF: Invert OpacityMask

    - by Meleak
    Consider the following piece of Xaml <Grid Background="Blue"> <Border Width="100" Height="60" BorderBrush="Black" BorderThickness="2"> <Border Background="Red"> <Border.OpacityMask> <VisualBrush> <VisualBrush.Visual> <TextBlock Text="Text" Foreground="#FF000000" Background="#00000000"/> </VisualBrush.Visual> </VisualBrush> </Border.OpacityMask> </Border> </Border> </Grid> It will look like this because of the OpacityMask whos only non-transparent part is the Foreground of the TextBlock. Now if I switch the Colors for Foreground and Background in the TextBlock like this <TextBlock Text="Text" Foreground="#00000000" Background="#FF000000"/> I get this because the even though the Foreground is transparent the Background behind it is not, resulting in a useless OpacityMask :) Is there anyway I can get this? Basically an inverted OpacityMask The reason I'm asking this is because of the answer I made in this question, using the approach from this link. Even though it works, it feels very "hacky". Am I missing some other way to do this here? Update To clarify, even though my example is about a TextBlock, it could be anything. Ellipse/Image/Path etc. The feature I'm after is "Invert OpacityMask"

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