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  • Spring can't find a lib and webapp doesn't start up in tomcat 6

    - by gotch4
    I've this problem using STS: I'm building a simple Spring app, just to try out features like MVC and persistence. Now I've created something very simple, out of a bunch of tutorials for Spring 3, that I'm using. The application fails with this, during server startup: Code: org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'org.springframework.web.servlet.mvc.annotation.DefaultAnnotationHandlerMapping#0': Initialization of bean failed; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.factory.CannotLoadBeanClassException: Cannot find class [org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.annotation.AnnotationSessionFactoryBean] for bean with name 'mySessionFactory' defined in ServletContext resource [/WEB-INF/spring/appServlet/servlet-context.xml]; nested exception is java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.annotation.AnnotationSessionFactoryBean but I've org.springframework.orm in web-inf/classes folder (I even tried putting it in web-inf/lib). As I copied these libs there, the came out in Web App Libraries folder. Building this project in STS works fine as this dependency is set up in build path throught project properties, but how do I transfer the libs to the web app? (I'm using Tomcat 6 as it is the server I'm going to use sometime in the future for production). Is this a config problem of my XML? Or am I just missing the right way to put this lib? (I encountered the same problem before, but adding the needed lib in classes worked it out). More than this I that if I browse inside my workspace to the folder where the working folder of tomcat should be, I can't find any work directory and any commo

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  • Animation is slow on iPhone

    - by Anthony Chan
    I'm developing an app that would display images and change them according to the user's action. I've created a subclass of UIView to contain an image, an index number and an array of image names. The code is like this: @interface CustomPic : UIView { UIImageView *pic; NSInteger index; NSMutableArray *picNames; //<-- an array of NSString } And in the implementation part, it has a method to change the image using a dissolve effect. - (void)nextPic { index++; if (index >= [picNames count]) { index = 0; } UIImageView *temp = pic; pic.image = [UIImage imageNamed:[picNames objectAtIndex:index]]; temp.alpha = 0; [UIView beginAnimations:nil context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveEaseOut]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.25]; pic.alpha = 0; temp.alpha = 1; [UIView commitAnimations]; } In the viewController, there are several CustomPic which would change the images depends on users' choice. The images would change as expected with the fade in/out effect, but the animation performance is really bad. I've tested it on an iPhone 3G, the Instruments shows that the animation is only 2-3FPS! I tried many methods to simplify and modify the codes but with no hope. Is there something wrong in my code or in my concept? Thanks for any help. P.S. all the images are 320*480 PNGs with a max size of 15KB.

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  • Skipping the BufferedReader readLine() method in java

    - by DDP
    Is there a easy way to skip the readLine() method in java if it takes longer than, say, 2 seconds? Here's the context in which I'm asking this question: public void run() { boolean looping = true; while(looping) { for(int x = 0; x<clientList.size(); x++) { try { Comm s = clientList.get(x); String str = s.recieve(); // code that does something based on the string in the line above } // other stuff like catch methods } } } Comm is a class I wrote, and the receive method, which contains a BufferedReader called "in", is this: public String recieve() { try { if(active) return in.readLine(); } catch(Exception e) { System.out.println("Comm Error 2: "+e); } return ""; } I've noticed that the program stops and waits for the input stream to have something to read before continuing. Which is bad, because I need the program to keep looping (as it loops, it goes to all the other clients and asks for input). Is there a way to skip the readLine() process if there's nothing to read? I'm also pretty sure that I'm not explaining this well, so please ask me questions if I'm being confusing.

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  • What are the common compliance standards for software products?

    - by Jay
    This is a very generic question about software products. I would like to know what compliance standards are applicable to any software product. I know that question gives away nothing. So, here is an example to what I am referring to. CiSecurity Security Certification/Compliance lists out products ceritified by them to be compliant to the standards published at their website, i.e, cisecurity.org. Compliance could be as simple as answering a questionnaire for your product and approved by a thirdparty like cisecurity or it could apply to your whole organization, for instance, PCI-DSS compliance. I would be very interested in knowing the standards that products you know/designed/created, comply to. To give you the context behind this question: I am the developer of a data-masking tool. The said tool helps mask onscreen html text in a banking web application using filters. So, for instance, if the bank application lists out user information with ssn, my product when integrated with the banking product, automatically identifies ssn pattern and masks it into a pre-defined format.So, I have my product marketing team wanting more buzz words like compliance to be able to sell it to more banking clients. Hence, understanding "compliances that apply to products" is a key research item for me at this point. By which I meant, security compliances. Appreciate all your help and suggestions.

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  • what makes a Tomcat5.5 cannot be "aware" of new Java Web Applications?

    - by Michael Mao
    This is for uni homework, but I reckon it is more a generic problem to the Tomcat Server(version 5.5.27) on my uni. The problem is, I first did a skeleton Java Web Application (Just a simple Servlet and a welcome-file, nothing complicated, no lib included) using NetBeans 6.8 with the bundled Tomcat 6.0.20 (localhost:8084/WSD) Then, to test and prove it is "portable" and "auto-deploy-able", I cleaned and built a WSD.war file and dropped it onto my Xampp Tomcat (localhost:8080/WSD). The war extracted everything accordingly and I can see identical output from this Tomcat. So far, so good. However, after I tried to drop to war onto uni server, funny thing happens: uni server Even though I've changed the war permission to 755, it is simply not "responding". I then copied the extracted files to uni server, the MainServlet cannot be recognized from within its Context Path "/WSD", basically nothing works, expect the static index.jsp. I tried several times to stop and restart uni Tomcat, it doesn't help? I wonder what makes this happen? Is there anything I did wrong with my approach? To be frank I paid no attention to a server not under my control, and I am unfortunately not a real active day-to-day Java Programmer now. I understand the fundamentals of MVC, Servelets, JSPs, JavaBeans, but I really feel frustrated by this, as I cannot see why... Or, should I ask, a Java Web Application, after cleaned and built by NetBeans6.8, is self-contained and self-configured so ready to be deployed to any Java Web Container? I know, I can certainly program everything in plain old JSP, but this is soooo... unacceptable to myself... Update : I am now wondering if there is any free Tomcat Hosting so that I would like to see if my war file and/or my web app can go with them without any configuration at all?

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  • how to handle onclick event of button inside popup window in android

    - by henna
    In my application i have a button initially on the screen and in onclick of the button ,popup window should open. In the popup window i have an imagebutton , now on click of this button i want to start an activity. The popup window opens but i dont understand how to handle the onclick of the imagebtn inside popup window. In main.xml i have a button and in popup_example.xml i have an imagebutton. Hi my Java code is as follows: final LayoutInflater inflater = (LayoutInflater)this.getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); final Button b=(Button)findViewById(R.id.btn); b.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { PopupWindow pw = new PopupWindow(inflater.inflate(R.layout.popup_example,(ViewGroup)findViewById(R.layout.main))); pw.showAtLocation(v, Gravity.LEFT,0,0); pw.update(8,-70,150,270); //if onclick written here, it gives null pointer exception. ImageButton img=(ImageButton)findViewById(R.id.home); img.setOnClickListener(new OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View v) { Intent..... } }); //if onclick is written here it gives runtime exception. }); and i have two xml layouts.........1)main.xml 2)popup_example.xml main.xml popup_example.xml <ImageButton android:id="@+id/home" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:focusable="true" android:src="@drawable/vitalss" android:layout_weight="1" android:background="#8E2323" />

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  • Access 2007 not allowing user to delete record in subform

    - by Todd McDermid
    Good day... The root of my issue is that there's no context menu allowing the user to delete a row from a form. The "delete" button on the ribbon is also disabled. In Access 2003, apparently this function was available, but since our recent "upgrade" to 2007 (file is still in MDB format) it's no longer there. Please keep in mind I'm not an Access dev, nor did I create this app - I inherited support for it. ;) Now for the details, and what I've tried. The form in question is a subform on a larger form. I've tried turning "AllowDeletes" on on both forms. I've checked the toolbar and ribbon properties on the forms to see if they loaded some custom stuff, but no. I've tried changing the "record locks" to "on edit", no joy. I examined the query to see if it was "too complicated" to permit a delete - as far as I can tell, it's a very simple two (linked) table join. Compared to another form in this app that does permit row deletes, it has a much more complicated (multi-join, built on queries) query. Is there a resource that would describe the required conditions for allowing deletes? Thanks in advance...

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  • Printing to different printers using mozilla.

    - by Nick-ACNB
    I am currently creating a web application that will be deployed in an intranet environment. I chose firefox to be the browser that will run it. However, in the application I am building, I need to be able to print to different printers quickly since they use different paper size depending on what client is coming. To avoid many time-wasting mistakes that could occur, for instance someone choosing the wrong printer and wasting paper. Also, the time used to find the right printer for the job and then pressing print is considered too long in the current context. Is there any solution to this problem? I understand the potential security flaw behind this, but please be aware that this is solely an intranet project and that I can reduce the browser's security to the lowest since they don't access internet. I know there could be something doable behind IE (ActiveX or VBScript) but I am using firefox. Also, I guess there could also be something rather tricky that when you press print on the browser, it saves what needs to be printed to a DB and then there is an exe app that runs and fetch that DB every set ammount of time and print to the right printer. Any suggestion would be greatly appreciated. I doubt I am the only one to ever face this issue! :) Thank you very much.

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  • Properly maintain sorted state of Array/Set

    - by Jeff
    I'm trying to get data out of my MOC and then create some new objects based on those objects, and put it all back together, while keeping my sort state. The securities come out of the MOC in proper order. And everything seems to be fine until I do the assignment to the game at the bottom from setWithArray. The documentation says that setWithArray removed the duplicate objects, if there are any. I'm wonder if that's messing up my data, but I don't see a good alternative. The data is ultimately being pulled out into a UITableView. When I add items to the game manually, then they stay sorted, so I don't think the breaking of the sort is beyond the scope of what I've included here. NSError *error; NSArray *allTheSecurities = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:request error:&error]; if (allTheSecurities == nil) { // Handle the error. } [request release]; /**/ NSLog( @"Enumerate..." ); NSEnumerator *enumerator = [allTheSecurities objectEnumerator]; id anObject; NSMutableArray *portfolioStocks = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; while (anObject = [enumerator nextObject]) { NSLog( @"Iteration... %@", [anObject name] ); NSLog( @"Build a stock..." ); PortfolioStocks *this_stock = (PortfolioStocks *)[NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:@"PortfolioStocks" inManagedObjectContext:context]; NSLog( @"Set a value..." ); [this_stock setSecurity:(Security *)anObject]; [this_stock setQuantity:[NSNumber numberWithInt:0]]; NSLog( @"Add to portfolioStocks..." ); [portfolioStocks addObject:this_stock]; } //Sorted properly up to here! NSLog( @"Add to portfolio..." ); [game setPortfolio:[NSSet setWithArray:portfolioStocks]]; // <-- This is where it's not sorted anymore.

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  • SQL Server getdate() to a string like "2009-12-20"

    - by Adam Kane
    In Microsoft SQL Server 2005 and .NET 2.0, I want to convert the current date to a string of this format: "YYYY-MM-DD". For example, December 12th 2009 would become "2009-12-20". How do I do this in SQL. The context of this SQL statement in the table definiton. In other words, this is the default value. So when a new record is created the default value of the current date is stored as a string in the above format. I'm trying: SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD] But SQL server keeps converting that to: ('SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD]') so the result is just: 'SELECT CONVERT(VARCHAR(10), GETDATE(), 102) AS [YYYY.MM.DD]' Here's a screen shot of what the Visual Studio server explorer, table, table definition, properties shows: These wrapper bits are being adding automatically and converting it all to literal string: (N' ') Here's the reason I'm trying to use something other than the basic DATETIME I was using previously: This is the error I get when hooking everything to an ASP.NET GridView and try to do an update via the grid view: Server Error in '/' Application. The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.ArgumentException: The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [ArgumentException: The version of SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date'.] Note: I've added a related question to try to get around the SQL Server in use does not support datatype 'date' error so that I can use a DATETIME as recommended.

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  • MSTest/NUnit Writing BDD style "Given, When, Then" tests

    - by Charlie
    I have been using MSpec to write my unit tests and really prefer the BDD style, I think it's a lot more readable. I'm now using Silverlight which MSpec doesn't support so I'm having to use MSTest but would still like to maintain a BDD style so am trying to work out a way to do this. Just to explain what I'm trying to acheive, here's how I'd write an MSpec test [Subject(typeof(Calculator))] public class when_I_add_two_numbers : with_calculator { Establish context = () => this.Calculator = new Calculator(); Because I_add_2_and_4 = () => this.Calculator.Add(2).Add(4); It should_display_6 = () => this.Calculator.Result.ShouldEqual(6); } public class with_calculator { protected static Calculator; } So with MSTest I would try to write the test like this (although you can see it won't work because I've put in 2 TestInitialize attributes, but you get what I'm trying to do..) [TestClass] public class when_I_add_two_numbers : with_calculator { [TestInitialize] public void GivenIHaveACalculator() { this.Calculator = new Calculator(); } [TestInitialize] public void WhenIAdd2And4() { this.Calculator.Add(2).Add(4); } [TestMethod] public void ThenItShouldDisplay6() { this.Calculator.Result.ShouldEqual(6); } } public class with_calculator { protected Calculator Calculator {get;set;} } Can anyone come up with some more elegant suggestions to write tests in this way with MSTest? Thanks

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  • How to scale JPEG images with a non-standard sampling factor in Java?

    - by HRJ
    I am using Java AWT for scaling a JPEG image, to create thumbnails. The code works fine when the image has a normal sampling factor ( 2x2,1x1,1x1 ) However, an image which has this sampling factor ( 1x1, 1x1, 1x1 ) creates problem when scaled. The colors get corrupted though the features are recognizable. The original and the thumbnail: The code I am using is roughly equivalent to: static BufferedImage awtScaleImage(BufferedImage image, int maxSize, int hint) { // We use AWT Image scaling because it has far superior quality // compared to JAI scaling. It also performs better (speed)! System.out.println("AWT Scaling image to: " + maxSize); int w = image.getWidth(); int h = image.getHeight(); float scaleFactor = 1.0f; if (w > h) scaleFactor = ((float) maxSize / (float) w); else scaleFactor = ((float) maxSize / (float) h); w = (int)(w * scaleFactor); h = (int)(h * scaleFactor); // since this code can run both headless and in a graphics context // we will just create a standard rgb image here and take the // performance hit in a non-compatible image format if any Image i = image.getScaledInstance(w, h, hint); image = new BufferedImage(w, h, BufferedImage.TYPE_INT_RGB); Graphics2D g = image.createGraphics(); g.drawImage(i, null, null); g.dispose(); i.flush(); return image; } (Code courtesy of this page ) Is there a better way to do this? Here's a test image with sampling factor of [ 1x1, 1x1, 1x1 ].

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  • Parallel.Foreach loop creating multiple db connections throws connection errors?

    - by shawn.mek
    Login failed. The login is from an untrusted domain and cannot be used with Windows authentication I wanted to get my code running in parallel, so I changed my foreach loop to a parallel foreach loop. It seemed simple enough. Each loop connects to the database, looks up some stuff, performs some logic, adds some stuff, closes the connection. But I get the above error? I'm using my local sql server and entity framework (each loop uses it's own context). Is there some problem with connecting multiple times using the same local login or something? How did I get around this? I have (before trying to covert to a parallel.foreach loop) split my list of objects that I am foreach looping through into four groups (separate csv files) and run four concurrent instances of my program (which ran faster overall than just one, thus the idea for parallel). So it seems connecting to the db shouldn't be a problem? Any ideas? EDIT: Here's before var gtgGenerator = new CustomGtgGenerator(); var connectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["BioEntities"].ConnectionString; var allAccessionsFromObs = _GetAccessionListFromDataFiles(collectionId); ForEach(cloneIdAndAccessions in allAccessionsFromObs) DoWork(gtgGenerator, taxonId, organismId, cloneIdAndAccessions, connectionString)); after var gtgGenerator = new CustomGtgGenerator(); var connectionString = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["BioEntities"].ConnectionString; var allAccessionsFromObs = _GetAccessionListFromDataFiles(collectionId); Parallel.ForEach(allAccessionsFromObs, cloneIdAndAccessions => DoWork(gtgGenerator, taxonId, organismId, cloneIdAndAccessions, connectionString)); Inside the DoWork I use the BioEntities using (var bioEntities = new BioEntities(connectionString)) {...}

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  • To what extent should code try to explain fatal exceptions?

    - by Andrzej Doyle
    I suspect that all non-trivial software is likely to experience situations where it hits an external problem it cannot work around and thus needs to fail. This might be due to bad configuration, an external server being down, disk full, etc. In these situations, especially if the software is running in non-interactive mode, I expect that all one can really do is log an error and wait for the admin to read the logs and fix the problem. If someone happens to interact with the software in the meantime, e.g. a request comes in to a server that failed to initialize properly, then perhaps an appropriate hint can be given to check the logs and maybe even the error can be echoed (depending on whether you can tell if they're a technical guy as opposed to a business user). For the moment though let's not think too hard about this part. My question is, to what extent should the software be responsible for trying to explain the meaning of the fatal error? In general, how much competence/knowledge are you allowed to presume on administrators of the software, and how much should you include troubleshooting information and potential resolution steps when logging fatal errors? Of course if there's something that's unique to the runtime context this should definitely be logged; but lets assume your software needs to talk to Active Directory via LDAP and gets back an error "[LDAP: error code 49 - 80090308: LdapErr: DSID-0C090334, comment: AcceptSecurityContext error, data 525, vece]". Is it reasonable to assume that the maintainers will be able to Google the error code and work out what it means, or should the software try to parse the error code and log that this is caused by an incorrect user DN in the LDAP config? I don't know if there is a definitive best-practices answer for this, so I'm keen to hear a variety of views.

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  • Any diff/merge tool that provides a report (metrics) of conflicts?

    - by cad
    CONTEXT: I am preparing a big C# merge using visual studio 2008 and TFS. I need to create a report with the files and the number of collisions (total changes and conflicts) for each file (and in total of course) PROBLEM: I cannot do it for two reasons (first one is solved): 1- Using TFS merge I can have access to the file comparison but I cannot export the list of conflicting files... I can only try to resolve the conflicts. (I have solved problem 1 using beyond compare. It allows me to export the file list) 2- Using TFS merge I can only access manually for each file to get the number of conflicts... but I have more than 800 files (and probably will have to repeat it in the close future so is not an option doing it manually) There are dozens of file comparison tools (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Comparison_of_file_comparison_tools ) but I am not sure which one could (if any) give me these metrics. I have also read several forums and questions here but are more general questions (which diff tool is better) and I am looking for a very specific report. So my questions are: Is Visual Studio 2010 (using still TFS2008) capable of doing such reports/exportation? Is there any tool that provide this kind of metrics (Now I am trying Beyond Compare)

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  • How memset initializes an array of integers by -1?

    - by haccks
    The manpage says about memset: #include <string.h> void *memset(void *s, int c, size_t n) The memset() function fills the first n bytes of the memory area pointed to by s with the constant byte c. It is clear that memset can't be used to initialize int array as shown below: int a[10]; memset(a, 1, sizeof(a)); it is because int is represented by 4 bytes (say) and one can not get the desired value for the integers in array a. But I often see the programmers use memset to set the int array elements to either 0 or -1. int a[10]; int b[10]; memset(a, 0, sizeof(a)); memset(b, -1, sizeof(b)); As per my understanding, initializing with integer 0 is OK because 0 can be represented in 1 byte (may be I am wrong in this context). But how it is possible to initialize b with -1 (a 4 bytes value)?

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  • Setting the default stack size on Linux globally for the program

    - by wowus
    So I've noticed that the default stack size for threads on linux is 8MB (if I'm wrong, PLEASE correct me), and, incidentally, 1MB on Windows. This is quite bad for my application, as on a 4-core processor that means 64 MB is space is used JUST for threads! The worst part is, I'm never using more than 100kb of stack per thread (I abuse the heap a LOT ;)). My solution right now is to limit the stack size of threads. However, I have no idea how to do this portably. Just for context, I'm using Boost.Thread for my threading needs. I'm okay with a little bit of #ifdef hell, but I'd like to know how to do it easily first. Basically, I want something like this (where windows_* is linked on windows builds, and posix_* is linked under linux builds) // windows_stack_limiter.c int limit_stack_size() { // Windows impl. return 0; } // posix_stack_limiter.c int limit_stack_size() { // Linux impl. return 0; } // stack_limiter.cpp int limit_stack_size(); static volatile int placeholder = limit_stack_size(); How do I flesh out those functions? Or, alternatively, am I just doing this entirely wrong? Remember I have no control over the actual thread creation (no new params to CreateThread on Windows), as I'm using Boost.Thread.

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  • Request-local storage in ASP.NET (accessible to the code from IHttpModule implementation)

    - by IgorK
    I need to have some object hanging around between two events I'm interested in: PreRequestHandlerExecute (where I create an instance of my object and want to save it) and PostRequestHandlerExecute (where I want to get to the object). After the second event the object is not needed for my purposes and should be discarded either by storage or my explicit action. So the ideal context where my object should be stored is per request (with guaranteed no sharing issues when different threads are serving requests... or processes/servers :) ) Take into account that actual implementation I can do is being made from a HttpModule and is supposed to be a pluggable solution for already written web apps (so the option to provide some state using static/instance variables in Global.asax doesn't look good - I will have to modify Global.asax on every web application). Cache seems to be too broad for this use. I tried to see whether httpContext.Application (of type HttpApplicationState) is good for me or not, but cannot get whether it is exactly per HttpApplication instance or not (AFAIK you can have several instances of HttpApplications used on different threads and therefore serving several requests simultaneously - then using storage shared between threads will not work correctly; otherwise I would use it because one HttpApplication instance serves exactly one request at a time). Something could be done with storing state on the HttpModule instances if I know for sure that it's exactly bound 1-to-1 with every HttpApplication instance running (but again I need a proof that HttpApplication instance is 1-to-1 with my HttpModule's instance). Any valuable and reputable links on these topics are much appreciated... Would be great to find something particularly well-suited for per request situation (because otherwise I may end up with something ulgy... probably either some 'broader' scoped storage and some hacks to have different keys in the storage for different requests, OR using a thread-local thing and in this way commit to the theory that IIS/ASP.NET will not ever serve first event from one thread and the second event from the other thread and so on)

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  • What does the windbg command "kd" do?

    - by Oskar
    I ran kd by mistake and got some output that inteerested me, a reference to a line of code in my module that I can't see on the call stack of any thread. The lines weren't the beginnning of the method so I don't think the reference is to a function pointer, but possibly the result of an exception being stored in memory??? Of course, that happens to be what I'm looking for... Update: The stack trace of the exception is: 0:000> kb *** Stack trace for last set context - .thread/.cxr resets it ChildEBP RetAddr Args to Child 0174f168 734ea84f 2cb9e950 00000000 2cb9e950 kernel32!LoadTimeZoneInformation+0x2b 0174f1c4 734ead92 00000022 00000001 000685d0 msvbvm60! RUN_INSTMGR::ExecuteInitTerm+0x178 0174f1f8 734ea9ee 00000000 0000002f 2dbc2abc msvbvm60! RUN_INSTMGR::CreateObjInstanceWithParts+0x1e4 0174f278 7350414e 2cb9e96c 00000000 0174f2f0 msvbvm60! RUN_INSTMGR::CreateObjInstance+0x14d 0174f2e4 734fa071 00000000 2cb9e96c 0174f2fc msvbvm60!RcmConstructObjectInstance+0x75 0174f31c 00976ef1 2cb9e950 00591bc0 0174fddc msvbvm60!__vbaNew+0x21 and into our code (create a new Form derived class) the dds output: 0:000> dds esp-0x40 esp+0x100 0174f05c 00000000 0174f060 00000000 0174f064 00000000 0174f068 00000000 0174f06c 00000000 0174f070 00000000 0174f074 00000000 0174f078 00000000 0174f07c 00000000 0174f080 00000000 0174f084 00000000 0174f088 00000000 0174f08c 00000000 0174f090 00000000 0174f094 00000000 0174f098 00000000 0174f09c 007f4f9b ourDll!formDerivedClass::Form_Initialize+0x10b [C:\Buildbox\formDerivedClass.frm @ 1452] etc which seems to indicate that Initialize is being called even though it isn't on the stack trace of either this exception or any of the threads. As suggested, it might all be a mismatch between pdbs and dlls, but it seems a coincidence that we end up in the right classes and methods

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  • C# custom control to get internal text as string

    - by Ed Woodcock
    ok, I'm working on a custom control that can contain some javascript, and read this out of the page into a string field. This is a workaround for dynamic javascript inside an updatepanel. At the moment, I've got it working, but if I try to put a server tag inside the block: <custom:control ID="Custom" runat="server"> <%= ControlName.ClientID %> </custom:control> The compiler does not like it. I know these are generated at runtime, and so might not be compatible with what I'm doing, but does anyone have any idea how I can get that working? EDIT Error message is: Code blocks are not supported in this context EDIT 2 The control: [DataBindingHandler("System.Web.UI.Design.TextDataBindingHandler, System.Design, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b03f5f7f11d50a3a"), ControlValueProperty("Text"), DefaultProperty("Text"), ParseChildren(true, "Text"), AspNetHostingPermission(SecurityAction.LinkDemand, Level = AspNetHostingPermissionLevel.Minimal), AspNetHostingPermission(SecurityAction.InheritanceDemand, Level = AspNetHostingPermissionLevel.Minimal)] public class CustomControl : Control, ITextControl { [DefaultValue(""), Bindable(true), Localizable(true)] public string Text { get { return (string)(ViewState["Text"] ?? string.Empty); } set { ViewState["Text"] = value; } } }

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  • asses resouces from another apk for widget(like theme apk)

    - by Diljeet
    asses resouces from another apk for widget(like theme apk) Hello i made a theme with drawables and strings, i can access the theme's resources by following commands String packagename="com....."; Resources res = context.getPackageManager().getResourcesForApplication(packagename); int strid = res.getIdentifier(packagename+":string/"+name, "string", packagename); int drawableid = res.getIdentifier(packagename+":drawable/"+name, "drawable", packagename); String name = res.getString(resid); Bitmap bmp = BitmapFactory.decodeResource(res, resid); //or Drawable dr=res.getDrawable(resid); I can get the drawables, but i don't know how to set the drawables in xml to a widget. I only can set setImageViewResource(int viewid, int resId); So i am asking that how to access xml resources from another apk and set widget drawables from it. I want to access a resource like this from another theme apk, but i can only access the drawable(so can't use it for widgets) <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <selector xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <item android:state_pressed="true" android:drawable="@drawable/wplayh" /> <item android:drawable="@drawable/wplay" /> </selector>

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  • Weird onclick behavior of images on home screen widget

    - by kknight
    I wrote a home screen widget with one image on it. When the image is clicked, browser will be opened for a url link. Generally, it is working. But a weird thing is that, when I click background, then click the picture, the browser will not be open. Until I click the second time on the picture, the browser opens. The steps to reproduce is below: Click on the home screen widget background. Click on the image on the home screen. The browser is not opened. Click on the image again. The browser is opened. If I didn't click on the background, the image will react to click very well, i.e. browser will be open when the image is clicked the first time. The widget XML file is as below: <RelativeLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:id="@+id/widget" android:layout_width="320dip" android:layout_height="200dip" android:background="@drawable/prt_base" > <ImageView android:id="@+id/picture1" android:layout_width="134dip" android:layout_height="102dip" android:layout_marginLeft="62dip" android:layout_marginTop="6dip" android:scaleType="center" android:src="@drawable/picture1" /> </RelativeLayout> The code to set OnClick on the picture1 ImageView is as below: defineIntent = new Intent(Intent.ACTION_VIEW, Uri .parse("http://www.google.com")); pendingIntent = PendingIntent .getActivity(context, 0 /* no requestCode */, defineIntent, 0 /* no flags */); updateViews.setOnClickPendingIntent( picId, pendingIntent); Anyone knows what's wrong? Thanks.

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  • Node-webkit works on Mac, crashes and can't load module on Windows

    - by user756201
    I've created a full node-webkit app that works fine on the Mac OSX version of node-webkit. Everything works, it loads a key external nodeJS module (marked), and the world is good. However, when I try to run the app on the Windows version of Node-webkit as described in the Wiki, the app crashes immediately (in fact, it crashes immediately when I try all the options: dragging a folder onto nw.exe, dragging an app.nw compressed folder, and running both from the command line). The only thing that gets me closer is opening nw.exe and then pointing the node-webkit location bar to the index file. Then I get this error: Uncaught node.js Error Error: Cannot find module 'marked' I tried commenting out the code that requires marked: var marked = require('marked'); That returns the app to crashing immediately. I assumed it was because of context issues between node.js and the node-webkit browser, but those seem to not be at fault since I tried this suggestion to make sure it finds the correct file for the marked module...went right back to immediate crashing. I'm out of ideas because the crashes don't seem to leave me any way of knowing what the error was.

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  • IIS URL Rewriting: How can I reliably keep relative paths when serving multiple files?

    - by NVRAM
    My WebApp is part CMS, and when I serve up an HTML page to the user it typically contains relative paths in a.href and img.src attributes. I currently have them accessed by urls like: ~/get-data.aspx/instance/user/page.html -- where instance indicates the particular instance for the report and "user/page.html" is a path created by an external application that generates the content. This works pretty reliably with code in the application's BeginRequest method that translates the text after ".aspx" into a query string, then uses Context.RewritePath(). So far so good, but I've just tripped over something that took me by surprise: it appears that if any of the query string ("instance/user/page.html") happens to contain a plus sign ("+") the BeginRequest method is never called, and a 404 is immediately returned to the user. So my question is two-fold: Am I correct in my belief that a "+" would cause the 404, and if so are there other things that could cause similar problems? Is there a way around that problem (perhaps a different method than BeginRequest)? Is there a better way to preserve relative URL paths for generated content than what I'm using? I'd rather not require site admins to install a 3rd party rewrite tool if I can help it.

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  • Android - overlay small check icon over specific image in gridview or change border

    - by oscar
    I've just asked a question about an hour ago, while waiting for replies, I've thought maybe I can achieve what I want differently. I was thinking of changing the image but it would be better if I could perhaps overlay something over the top of complete levels in the gridview i.e a small tick icon At the moment, when a level has been completed I am storing that with sharedpreferences So I have a gridView layout to display images that represent levels. Let's just say for this example I have 20 levels. When one level is complete is it possible to overlay the tick icon or somehow highlight the level image. Maybe change the border of the image?? Here are the image arrays I use int[] imageIDs = { R.drawable.one, R.drawable.two, R.drawable.three, R.drawable.four, R.drawable.five, R.drawable.six etc....... and then I have my code to set the images in gridView. Obviously there is more code in between. public View getView(int position, View convertView, ViewGroup parent) { ImageView imageView; if (convertView == null) { imageView = new ImageView(context); imageView.setLayoutParams(new GridView.LayoutParams(140, 140)); imageView.setScaleType(ImageView.ScaleType.CENTER_CROP); imageView.setPadding(5, 5, 5, 5); } else { imageView = (ImageView) convertView; } imageView.setImageResource(imageIDs[position]); return imageView; would it be possible to do any of the above, even the border method would be fine. Thanks for any help

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