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• TFS Solution build cascading to several other builds even when common components were not modified

  - by Bob Palmer

  Hey all, here is the issue I am currently trying to work through. We are using Team Foundation Server 2008, and utilizing the automated build support out of the box. We have one very large project that encompasses a number of interrelated components and web sites, each of which is set up as a Visual Studio solution file. Many of these solutions are highly interrelated since they may contain applications, or contain common libraries or shared components. We have roughly 20 or so applications, three large web sites, and about 20 components. Each solution may include projects from other solutions. For example, a solution for a console app would also include the project files for all of the components it utilizes, since we need to ensure that when someone changes a component and rebuilds it, it is reflected in all of the projects that consume that component, and we can make sure nothing was broken. We have build projects for each solution, whether that's an application, component, or web site. For this example, we will call them solutions 01, 02, and 03. These reference multiple projects (both their own core project and test projects, plus the projects relating to various components). Solution 01 has projects A, B, and C. Solution 02 has projects C, D, and E. Solution 03 has projects E, F, and G. Now, for the problem. If I modify project A, the system will end up rebuilding all three solutions. Worse, all thirty solutions reference common projects used for data access (let's call it project H). Because they all share one project in common, if I modify any solution in my stack, even if it does not touch project H, I still end up kicking off every single build script. Any thoughts on how to address this? Ideally I would only want to kick off builds where their constituant projects were directly modified - i.e in the example below, if I modified project C, I would only rebuild solutions 01 and 02. Thanks!

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• SHGetFolderPath returns path with question marks in it

  - by Colen

  Hi, Our application calls ShGetFolderPath when it runs, to get the My Documents folder. This normally works great. However, for three users - ???????, Jörg and Jörgen (see if you can spot the pattern!) - the call returns some very strange results. For example, for ???????, the call returns: c:\Users\???????\Documents I assume there's some sort of character encoding shenanigan going on here, possibly related to Unicode, but I don't have any experience with that sort of thing. How can I get a useful path to the folder (and other related folders) out of windows, without grovelling through registry keys for the information? In an email to me, ??????? ("Dmitry"), told me his "my documents" folder was actually located here: C:\Users\43D6~1\Documents So I know there's a way to get a "normal" version of the path out of Windows, I just don't know what it is. Background: Our application is not unicode-aware, and uses standard "char *" strings. How can we get the "normal" path? I'm not opposed to calling the "unicode" version of the function, then converting it to "normal" text, if that's possible. Converting the application entirely to use unicode is not an option here (we don't have the time). Thanks.

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• [OpenGL] I'm having an issue to use GLshort for representing Vertex, and Normal.

  - by Xylopia

  As my project gets close to optimization stage, I notice that reducing Vertex Metadata could vastly improve the performance of 3D rendering. Eventually, I've dearly searched around and have found following advices from stackoverflow. Using GL_SHORT instead of GL_FLOAT in an OpenGL ES vertex array How do you represent a normal or texture coordinate using GLshorts? Advice on speeding up OpenGL ES 1.1 on the iPhone Simple experiments show that switching from "FLOAT" to "SHORT" for vertex and normal isn't tough, but what troubles me is when you're to scale back verticies to their original size (with glScalef), normals are multiplied by the reciprocal of the scale. Then how do you use "short" for both vertex and normal at the same time? I've been trying this and that for about a full day, but I could only go for "float vertex w/ byte normal" or "short vertex w/ float normal" so far. Your help would be truly appreciated.

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• VBScript: Disable caching of response from server to HTTP GET URL request

  - by Rob

  I want to turn off the cache used when a URL call to a server is made from VBScript running within an application on a Windows machine. What function/method/object do I use to do this? When the call is made for the first time, my Linux based Apache server returns a response back from the CGI Perl script that it is running. However, subsequent runs of the script seem to be using the same response as for the first time, so the data is being cached somewhere. My server logs confirm that the server is not being called in those subsequent times, only in the first time. This is what I am doing. I am using the following code from within a commercial application (don't wish to mention this application, probably not relevant to my problem): With CreateObject("MSXML2.XMLHTTP") .open "GET", "http://myserver/cgi-bin/nsr/nsr.cgi?aparam=1", False .send nsrresponse =.responseText End With Is there a function/method on the above object to turn off caching, or should I be calling a method/function to turn off the caching on a response object before making the URL? I looked here for a solution: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms535874(VS.85).aspx - not quite helpful enough. And here: http://www.w3.org/TR/XMLHttpRequest/ - very unfriendly and hard to read. I am also trying to force not using the cache using http header settings and html document header meta data: Snippet of server-side Perl CGI script that returns the response back to the calling client, set expiry to 0. print $httpGetCGIRequest-header( -type = 'text/html', -expires = '+0s', ); Http header settings in response sent back to client: <html><head><meta http-equiv="CACHE-CONTROL" content="NO-CACHE"></head> <body> response message generated from server </body> </html> The above http header and html document head settings haven't worked, hence my question.

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• Invalid argument in sendfile() with two regular files

  - by Daniel Hershcovich

  I'm trying to test the sendfile() system call under Linux 2.6.32 to zero-copy data between two regular files. As far as I understand, it should work: ever since 2.6.22, sendfile() has been implemented using splice(), and both the input file and the output file can be either regular files or sockets. The following is the content of sendfile_test.c: #include <sys/sendfile.h> #include <fcntl.h> #include <stdio.h> int main(int argc, char **argv) { int result; int in_file; int out_file; in_file = open(argv[1], O_RDONLY); out_file = open(argv[2], O_WRONLY | O_CREAT | O_TRUNC, 0644); result = sendfile(out_file, in_file, NULL, 1); if (result == -1) perror("sendfile"); close(in_file); close(out_file); return 0; } And when I'm running the following commands: $ gcc sendfile_test.c $ ./a.out infile The output is sendfile: Bad file descriptor Which means that the system call resulted in errno = -EINVAL, I think. What am I doing wrong?

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• How to associate static entity instances in a Session without database retrieval

  - by Michael Hedgpeth

  I have a simple Result class that used to be an Enum but has evolved into being its own class with its own table. public class Result { public static readonly Result Passed = new Result(StatusType.Passed) { Id = [Predefined] }; public static readonly Result NotRun = new Result(StatusType.NotRun) { Id = [Predefined] }; public static readonly Result Running = new Result(StatusType.Running) { Id = [Predefined] }; } Each of these predefined values has a row in the database at their predefined Guid Id. There is then a failed result that has an instance per failure: public class FailedResult : Result { public FailedResult(string description) : base(StatusType.Failed) { . . . } } I then have an entity that has a Result: public class Task { public Result Result { get; set; } } When I save a Task, if the Result is a predefined one, I want NHibernate to know that it doesn't need to save that to the database, nor does it need to fetch it from the database; I just want it to save by Id. The way I get around this is when I am setting up the session, I call a method to load the static entities: protected override void OnSessionOpened(ISession session) { LockStaticResults(session, Result.Passed, Result.NotRun, Result.Running); } private static void LockStaticResults(ISession session, params Result[] results) { foreach (var result in results) { session.Load(result, result.Id); } } The problem with the session.Load method call is it appears to be fetching to the database (something I don't want to do). How could I make this so it does not fetch the database, but trusts that my static (immutable) Result instances are both up to date and a part of the session?

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• Objective-C function dispatch collisions; Or, how to achieve "namespaces"?

  - by fbrereto

  I have an application for Mac OS X that supports plugins that are intended to be loaded at the same time. Some of these plugins are built on top of a Cocoa framework that may receive updates in one plugin but not another. Given Objective-C's current method for function dispatching, any call from any plugin to a given Objective-C routine will go to the same routine every time. That means plugin A can find itself inside plugin B with a trivial Objective-C call! Obviously what we're looking for is for each plugin to interact with its own version of the framework upon which it was built. I have been reading some on Objective-C and this particular need, but haven't found a definitive solution for it yet. Update: My use of the word "framework" above is misleading: the framework is a statically-linked library, built into the plugin(s) that need it. The way Objective-C handles dispatching, however, even these statically linked pieces of disparate code will co-mingle in the Objective-C dispatcher, leading to unintended consequences. Update 2: I'm still a bit fuzzy on the answer provided here, as it doesn't seem to propose a solution as much as an unproven hypothesis.

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• Is there any Java Decompiler that can correctly decompile calls to overloaded methods?

  - by mihi

  Consider this (IMHO simple) example: public class DecompilerTest { public static void main(String[] args) { Object s1 = "The", s2 = "answer"; doPrint((Object) "You should know:"); for (int i = 0; i < 2; i++) { doPrint(s1); doPrint(s2); s1 = "is"; s2 = new Integer(42); } System.out.println(); } private static void doPrint(String s1) { System.out.print("Wrong!"); } private static void doPrint(Object s1) { System.out.print(s1 + " "); } } Compile it with source/target level 1.1 without debug information (i.e. no local variable information should be present) and try to decompile it. I tried Jad, JD-GUI and Fernflower, and all of them got at least one of the call wrong (i. e. the program printed "Wrong!" at least once) Is there really no java decompiler that can infer the right casts so that it will not call the wrong overload?

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• Why do pure virtual base classes get direct access to static data members while derived instances do

  - by Shamster

  I've created a simple pair of classes. One is pure virtual with a static data member, and the other is derived from the base, as follows: #include <iostream> template <class T> class Base { public: Base (const T _member) { member = _member; } static T member; virtual void Print () const = 0; }; template <class T> T Base<T>::member; template <class T> void Base<T>::Print () const { std::cout << "Base: " << member << std::endl; } template <class T> class Derived : public Base<T> { public: Derived (const T _member) : Base<T>(_member) { } virtual void Print () const { std::cout << "Derived: " << this->member << std::endl; } }; I've found from this relationship that when I need access to the static data member in the base class, I can call it with direct access as if it were a regular, non-static class member. i.e. - the Base::Print() method does not require a this- modifier. However, the derived class does require the this-member indirect access syntax. I don't understand why this is. Both class methods are accessing the same static data, so why does the derived class need further specification? A simple call to test it is: int main () { Derived<double> dd (7.0); dd.Print(); return 0; } which prints the expected "Derived: 7"

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• updating system's time using .Net

  - by user62958

  I am trying to update my system time using the following: [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] private struct SYSTEMTIME { public ushort wYear; public ushort wMonth; public ushort wDayOfWeek; public ushort wDay; public ushort wHour; public ushort wMinute; public ushort wSecond; public ushort wMilliseconds; } [DllImport("kernel32.dll", EntryPoint = "GetSystemTime", SetLastError = true)] private extern static void Win32GetSystemTime(ref SYSTEMTIME lpSystemTime); [DllImport("kernel32.dll", EntryPoint = "SetSystemTime", SetLastError = true)] private extern static bool Win32SetSystemTime(ref SYSTEMTIME lpSystemTime); public void SetTime() { TimeSystem correctTime = new TimeSystem(); DateTime sysTime = correctTime.GetSystemTime(); // Call the native GetSystemTime method // with the defined structure. SYSTEMTIME systime = new SYSTEMTIME(); Win32GetSystemTime(ref systime); // Set the system clock ahead one hour. systime.wYear = (ushort)sysTime.Year; systime.wMonth = (ushort)sysTime.Month; systime.wDayOfWeek = (ushort)sysTime.DayOfWeek; systime.wDay = (ushort)sysTime.Day; systime.wHour = (ushort)sysTime.Hour; systime.wMinute = (ushort)sysTime.Minute; systime.wSecond = (ushort)sysTime.Second; systime.wMilliseconds = (ushort)sysTime.Millisecond; Win32SetSystemTime(ref systime); } When I debug everything looks good and all the values are correct but when it calles the Win32SetSystemTime(ref systime) th actual time of system(display time) doesn't change and stays the same. The strange part is that when I call the Win32GetSystemTime(ref systime) it gives me the new updated time. Can someone give me some help on this?

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• Symfony 1.2 to 2.3 migration

  - by Bonswouar

  I've got a pretty big Symfony 1.2 project to migrate. First, I modified my .htaccess so I can have some pages handled by Symfony 2. What I'd like to do, to make the migration smoother, is to be able to render some SF2 action/templates/methods/... inside SF1. I added the autoloader to the SF1 app, so I can access to twig rendering methods and other stuff. But how can I call a SF2 action ? For example, if I want to migrate only the footer first, I would also need some php methods, not only rendering. That was previously in SF1 component, where should it be now ? If you've got any suggestion about the way of migrating, don't hesitate ! EDIT 1 : Apparently, the only way to do something like that is to render a full twig template, and/or in this template call some other partial twig templates with render(url, params). Here is my SF1 code to be able to render twig templates : public static function getTwig() { require_once __DIR__.'SF2_PATH/vendor/twig/extensions/lib/Twig/Extensions/Autoloader.php'; Twig_Autoloader::register(); $loader = new Twig_Loader_Filesystem( __DIR__.'SF2_PATH/sf2/src/VENDOR/BUNDLE/'); $twig = new Twig_Environment($loader, array( 'cache' => __DIR__.'SF2_PATH/sf2/app/cache/dev/twig', )); return $twig; } And so : $twig->loadTemplate('header.html.twig'); EDIT 2 : That doesn't seem to work, if in a twig template I try to render an other one with {{render(controller('BUNDLE:CONTROLER:ACTION', {})) }} for example Twig_Error : The function "controller" does not exist. And if I try to render the url Unknown tag name "render". I guess Symfony 2 twig functionalities are not loaded, how can I do that ? EDIT 3 : Ok, now I can do it, but I've got the following message... Twig_Error_Runtime An exception has been thrown during the rendering of a template ("Rendering a fragment can only be done when handling a master Request.") in ...

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• ASP.NET MVC: How to create a usable UrlHelper instance?

  - by Marek

  I am using quartz.net to schedule regular events within asp.net mvc application. The scheduled job should call a service layer script that requires a UrlHelper instance (for creating Urls based on correct routes (via urlHelper.Action(..)) contained in emails that will be sent by the service). I do not want to hardcode the links into the emails - they should be resolved using the urlhelper. The job: public class EvaluateRequestsJob : Quartz.IJob { public void Execute(JobExecutionContext context) { // where to get a usable urlHelper instance? ServiceFactory.GetRequestService(urlHelper).RunEvaluation(); } } Please note that this is not run within the MVC pipeline. There is no current request being served, the code is run by the Quartz scheduler at defined times. How do I get a UrlHelper instance usable on the indicated place? If it is not possible to construct a UrlHelper, the other option I see is to make the job "self-call" a controller action by doing a HTTP request - while executing the action I will of course have a UrlHelper instance available - but this seems a little bit hacky to me.

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• Python csv reader acting weird

  - by PylonsN00b

  So OK if I run this wrong code: csvReader1 = csv.reader(file('new_categories.csv', "rU"), delimiter=',') for row1 in csvReader1: print row1[0] print row1[8] category_sku = str(row[8]) if category_sku == sku: classifications["Craft"] = row[0] classifications["Theme"] = row[1] I get: Knitting 391 Traceback (most recent call last): File "upload_all_inventory_ebay.py", line 403, in <module> inventory_item_list = get_item_list(product) File "upload_all_inventory_ebay.py", line 294, in get_item_list category_sku = str(row[8]) NameError: global name 'row' is not defined Where Knitting and 391 are exactly right, of course I need to refer to row[8] as row1[8]...k so I do this: csvReader1 = csv.reader(file('new_categories.csv', "rU"), delimiter=',') for row1 in csvReader1: print row1[0] print row1[8] category_sku = str(row1[8]) if category_sku == sku: classifications["Craft"] = row1[0] classifications["Theme"] = row1[1] And I get this: ........... Crochet 107452 Knitting 107454 Knitting 107455 Knitting 107456 Knitting 107457 Crochet 108200 Crochet 108201 Crochet 108205 Crochet 108213 Crochet 108214 Crochet 108217 108432 Quilt 108451 108482 108488 Scrapbooking 108711 Knitting 122363 Needlework Beading Crafts & Decorating Crochet Crochet Crochet Traceback (most recent call last): File "upload_all_inventory_ebay.py", line 403, in <module> inventory_item_list = get_item_list(product) File "upload_all_inventory_ebay.py", line 292, in get_item_list print row1[0] IndexError: list index out of range Where the output you see there is every effing thing in column 0 and column 1 !!!!!!!!!! Why? And WHY is row1[0] out of range if it wasn't before. YAY Fridays!

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• Flex build error

  - by incrediman

  I'm totally new to flex. I'm getting a build error when using flex. That is, I've generated a .c file using flex, and, when running it, am getting this error: 1>lextest.obj : error LNK2001: unresolved external symbol "int __cdecl isatty(int)" (?isatty@@YAHH@Z) 1>C:\...\lextest.exe : fatal error LNK1120: 1 unresolved externals here is the lex file I'm using (grabbed from here): /*** Definition section ***/ %{ /* C code to be copied verbatim */ #include <stdio.h> %} /* This tells flex to read only one input file */ %option noyywrap %% /*** Rules section ***/ /* [0-9]+ matches a string of one or more digits */ [0-9]+ { /* yytext is a string containing the matched text. */ printf("Saw an integer: %s\n", yytext); } . { /* Ignore all other characters. */ } %% /*** C Code section ***/ int main(void) { /* Call the lexer, then quit. */ yylex(); return 0; } As well, why do I have to put a 'main' function in the lex syntax code? What I'd like is to be able to call yylex(); from another c file.

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• use proxy in python to fetch a webpage

  - by carmao

  I am trying to write a function in Python to use a public anonymous proxy and fetch a webpage, but I got a rather strange error. The code (I have Python 2.4): import urllib2 def get_source_html_proxy(url, pip, timeout): # timeout in seconds (maximum number of seconds willing for the code to wait in # case there is a proxy that is not working, then it gives up) proxy_handler = urllib2.ProxyHandler({'http': pip}) opener = urllib2.build_opener(proxy_handler) opener.addheaders = [('User-agent', 'Mozilla/5.0')] urllib2.install_opener(opener) req=urllib2.Request(url) sock=urllib2.urlopen(req) timp=0 # a counter that is going to measure the time until the result (webpage) is # returned while 1: data = sock.read(1024) timp=timp+1 if len(data) < 1024: break timpLimita=50000000 * timeout if timp==timpLimita: # 5 millions is about 1 second break if timp==timpLimita: print IPul + ": Connection is working, but the webpage is fetched in more than 50 seconds. This proxy returns the following IP: " + str(data) return str(data) else: print "This proxy " + IPul + "= good proxy. " + "It returns the following IP: " + str(data) return str(data) # Now, I call the function to test it for one single proxy (IP:port) that does not support user and password (a public high anonymity proxy) #(I put a proxy that I know is working - slow, but is working) rez=get_source_html_proxy("http://www.whatismyip.com/automation/n09230945.asp", "93.84.221.248:3128", 50) print rez The error: Traceback (most recent call last): File "./public_html/cgi-bin/teste5.py", line 43, in ? rez=get_source_html_proxy("http://www.whatismyip.com/automation/n09230945.asp", "93.84.221.248:3128", 50) File "./public_html/cgi-bin/teste5.py", line 18, in get_source_html_proxy sock=urllib2.urlopen(req) File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 130, in urlopen return _opener.open(url, data) File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 358, in open response = self._open(req, data) File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 376, in _open '_open', req) File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 337, in _call_chain result = func(*args) File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 573, in lambda r, proxy=url, type=type, meth=self.proxy_open: \ File "/usr/lib64/python2.4/urllib2.py", line 580, in proxy_open if '@' in host: TypeError: iterable argument required I do not know why the character "@" is an issue (I have no such in my code. Should I have?) Thanks in advance for your valuable help.

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• How to fetch and populate backbone model for Google Places JS API?

  - by code-gijoe

  I'm implementing a system that require access to Google Places JS API. I've been using rails for most of the project, but now I want to inject a bit of AJAX in one of my views. Basically it is a view that displays places near your location. For this, I'm using the JS API of Google places. A quick workflow would be: 1- The user inputs a text query and hits enter. 2- There is an AJAX call to request data from Google Places API. 3- The successful result is presented to the user. The problem is primarily in step 2. I want to use backbone for this but when I create a backbone model, it requests to the 'rootURL'. This wouldn't be a problem if the requests to Places was done from the server but it is not. A place call is done like this: service = new google.maps.places.PlacesService(map); service.nearbySearch(request, callback); Passing a callback function: function callback(results, status) { if (status == google.maps.places.PlacesServiceStatus.OK) { for (var i = 0; i < results.length; i++) { var place = results[i]; createMarker(results[i]); } } } Is it possible to override the 'fetch' method in backbone model and populate the model with the successful Places result? Is this a bad idea?

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• JSESSIONID collision between two servers on same ip but different ports

  - by Steve Armstrong

  I've got a situation where I have two different webapps running on a single server, using different ports. They're both running Java's Jetty servlet container, so they both use a cookie parameter named JSESSIONID to track the session id. These two webapps are fighting over the session id. Open a Firefox tab, and go to WebApp1 WebApp1's HTTP response has a set-cookie header with JSESSIONID=1 Firefox now has a Cookie header with JSESSIONID=1 in all it's HTTP requests to WebApp1 Open a second Firefox tab, and go to WebApp2 The HTTP reqeust to WebApp2 also has a Cookie header with JSESSIONID=1, but in the doGet, when I call req.getSession(false); I get null. And if I call req.getSession(true) I get a new Session object, but then the HTTP response from WebApp2 has a set-cookie header with JSESSIONID=20 Now, WebApp2 has a working Session, but WebApp1's session is gone. Going to WebApp1 will give me a new session, blowing away WebApp2's session. Continue forever So the Sessions are thrashing between each web app. I'd really like for the req.getSession(false) to return a valid session if there's already a JSESSIONID cookie defined. One option is to basically reimplement the Session framework with a HashMap and cookies called WEBAPP1SESSIONID and WEBAPP2SESSIONID, but that sucks, and means I'll have to hack the new Session stuff into ActionServlet and a few other places. This must be a problem others have encountered. Is Jetty's HttpServletRequest.getSession(boolean) just crappy?

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• How do I add and remove an event listener using a function with parameters?

  - by Bungle

  Sorry if this is a common question, but I couldn't find any answers that seemed pertinent through searching. If I attach an event listener like this: window.addEventListener('scroll', function() { check_pos(box); }, false); it doesn't seem to work to try to remove it later, like this: window.removeEventListener('scroll', function() { check_pos(box); }, false); I assume this is because the addEventListener and removeEventListener methods want a reference to the same function, while I've provided them with anonymous functions, which, while identical in code, are not literally the same. How can I change my code to get the call to removeEventListener to work? The "box" argument refers to the name of an <iframe> that I'm tracking on the screen; that is, I want to be able to subscribe to the scroll event once for each <iframe> that I have (the quantity varies), and once the check_pos() function measures a certain position, it will call another function and also remove the event listener to free up system resources. My hunch is that the solution will involve a closure and/or naming the anonymous function, but I'm not sure exactly what that looks like, and would appreciate a concrete example. Hope that makes sense. Thanks for any help!

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• How can I prevent default_environment variables from getting set by Capistrano's sudo action?

  - by Logan Koester

  My deploy.rb sets some environment variables to use the regular user's local Ruby rather than the system-wide one. set :default_environment, { :PATH => '/home/myapp/.rvm/bin:/home/myapp/.rvm/bin:/home/myapp/.rvm/rubies/ruby-1.9.1-p378/bin:/home/myapp/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378/bin:/home/myapp/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378%global/bin:/home/myapp/bin:/usr/bin:/opt/local/bin:/opt/local/sbin:/usr/local/bin:/usr/local/sbin:/usr/sbin:/sbin:/bin:/usr/games', :RUBY_VERSION => 'ruby-1.9.1-p378', :GEM_HOME => '/home/myapp/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378', :GEM_PATH => '/home/myapp/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378:/home/myapp/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378%global' } Naturally, when a task is using sudo, I would expect the system-wide ruby to be used instead. But it seems the environment variables are being set anyway, which is obviously invalid for the root user and returns an error: executing "sudo -p 'sudo password: ' /etc/init.d/god stop" servers: ["myapp.com"] [myapp.com] executing command command finished failed: "env PATH=/home/myapp/.rvm/bin:/home/myapp/.rvm/bin:/home/myapp/.rvm/rubies/ruby-1.9.1-p378/bin:/home/myapp/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378/bin:/home/myapp/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378%global/bin:/home/myapp/bin:/usr/bin:/opt/local/bin:/opt/local/sbin:/usr/local/bin:/usr/local/sbin:/usr/sbin:/sbin:/bin:/usr/games RUBY_VERSION=ruby-1.9.1-p378 GEM_HOME=/home/myapp/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378 GEM_PATH=/home/myapp/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378:/home/myapp/.rvm/gems/ruby-1.9.1-p378%global sh -c 'sudo -p '\\''sudo password: '\\'' /etc/init.d/god stop'" on myapp.com It makes no difference whether I use capistrano's sudo "system call" or the regular run "sudo system call". How can I avoid this?

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• Disposing underlying object from finalizer in an immutable object

  - by Juan Luis Soldi

  I'm trying to wrap around Awesomium and make it look to the rest of my code as close as possible to NET's WebBrowser since this is for an existing application that already uses the WebBrowser. In this library, there is a class called JSObject which represents a javascript object. You can get one of this, for instance, by calling the ExecuteJavascriptWithResult method of the WebView class. If you'd call it like myWebView.ExecuteJavascriptWithResult("document", string.Empty).ToObject(), then you'd get a JSObject that represents the document. I'm writing an immutable class (it's only field is a readonly JSObject object) called JSObjectWrap that wraps around JSObject which I want to use as base class for other classes that would emulate .NET classes such as HtmlElement and HtmlDocument. Now, these classes don't implement Dispose, but JSObject does. What I first thought was to call the underlying JSObject's Dispose method in my JSObjectWrap's finalizer (instead of having JSObjectWrap implement Dispose) so that the rest of my code can stay the way it is (instead of having to add using's everywhere and make sure every JSObjectWrap is being properly disposed). But I just realized if more than two JSObjectWrap's have the same underlying JSObject and one of them gets finalized this will mess up the other JSObjectWrap. So now I'm thinking maybe I should keep a static Dictionary of JSObjects and keep count of how many of each of them are being referenced by a JSObjectWrap but this sounds messy and I think could cause major performance issues. Since this sounds to me like a common pattern I wonder if anyone else has a better idea.

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• Passing Object to Service in WCF

  - by hgulyan

  Hi, I have my custom class Customer with its properties. I added DataContract mark above the class and DataMember to properties and it was working fine, but I'm calling a service class's function, passing customer instance as parameter and some of my properties get 0 values. While debugging I can see my properties values and after it gets to the function, some properties' values are 0. Why it can be so? There's no code between this two actions. DataContract mark workes fine, everything's ok. Any suggestions on this issue? I tried to change ByRef to ByVal, but it doesn't change anything. Why it would pass other values right and some of integer types just 0? Maybe the answer is simple, but I can't figure it out. Thank You. <DataContract()> Public Class Customer Private Type_of_clientField As Integer = -1 <DataMember(Order:=1)> Public Property type_of_client() As Integer Get Return Type_of_clientField End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) Type_of_clientField = value End Set End Property End Class <ServiceContract(SessionMode:=SessionMode.Allowed)> <DataContractFormat()> Public Interface CustomerService <OperationContract()> Function addCustomer(ByRef customer As Customer) As Long End Interface type_of_client properties value is 6 before I call addCustomer function. After it enters that function the value is 0. UPDATE: The issue is in instance creating. When I create an instance of a class on client side, that is stored on service side, some of my properties pass 0 or nothing, but when I call a function of a service class, that returns a new instance of that class, it works fine. What's is the difference? Could that be serialization issue?

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• comparing strings from two different sources in javascript

  - by andy-score

  This is a bit of a specific request unfortunately. I have a CMS that allows a user to input text into a tinymce editor for various posts they have made. The editor is loaded via ajax to allow multiple posts to be edited from one page. I want to be able to check if there were edits made to the main text if cancel is clicked. Currently I get the value of the text from the database during the ajax call, json_encode it, then store it in a javascript variable during the callback, to be checked against later. When cancel is clicked the current value of the hidden textarea (used by tinymce to store the data for submission) is grabbed using jquery.val() and checked against the stored value from the previous ajax call like this: if(stored_value!=textarea.val()) { return true } It currently always returns true, even if no changes have been made. The issue seems to be that the textarea.val() uses html entities, whereas the ajax jsoned version doesn't. the response from ajax in firebug looks like this: <p>some text<\/p>\r\n<p>some more text<\/p> the textarea source code looks like this: &lt;p&gt;some text&lt;/p&gt; &lt;p&gt;some more text&lt;/p&gt; these are obviously different, but how can I get them to be treated as the same when evaluated? Is there a function that compares the final output of a string or a way to convert one string to the other using javascript? I tried using html entities in the ajax page, but this returned the string with html entities intact when alerted, I assume because json_encoding it turned them into characters. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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• Objective-C: How to access methods in other classes

  - by Adam

  I have what I know is a simple question, but after many searches in books and on the Internet, I can't seem to come up with a solution. I have a standard iPhone project that contains, among other things, a ViewController. My app works just fine at this point. I now want to create a generic class (extending NSObject) that will have some basic utility methods. Let's call this class Util.m (along with the associated .h file). I create the Util class (and .h file) in my project, and now I want to access the methods contained in that class class from my ViewController. Here's an example of a simple version of Util.h #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> @interface Util : NSObject { } - (void)myMethod; @end Then the Util.m file would look something like this: #import "Util.h" @implementation Util - (void)myMethod { NSLog(@"myMethod Called"); } @end Now that my Util class is created, I want to call the "myMethod" method from my ViewController. In my ViewController's .h file, I do the following: #import "Util.h" @interface MyViewController : UIViewController { Util *utils; } @property (assign) Util *utils; @end Finally, in the ViewController.m, I do the following: #import "Util.h" @implementation MyViewController @synthesize utils; - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; utils.myMethod; //this doesn't work [utils myMethod]; //this doesn't work either NSLog(@"utils = %@", utils); //in the console, this prints "utils = (null)" } What am I doing wrong? I'd like to not only be able to directly reference other classes/methods in a simple util class like this, but I'd also like to directly reference other ViewControllers and their properties and methods as well. I'm stumped! Please Help.

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• Strange Problem with Webservice and IIS

  - by Rene

  Hello there, I have a Problem which confuses me a little bit, resp. where I don't have any Idea about what it could be. The System I'm using is Windows Vista, IIS 7.0, VS2008, Windows Software Factory, Entity Framework, WCF. The Binding for all Webservices is wshttpbinding. I'm using a Webservice hosted in IIS. This Webservice uses/calls another Webservice (also installed in the IIS). If I use a client calling the first Webservice (which calls the second Webservice) it works fine for about 4-10 Times. And then (it is repeatable to get this Problem, but sometimes it happens after 4, sometimes after 10 Time, but it always will happen), the Service and the IIS gets stuck. Stuck means, that this Webservice isn't callable anymore and generates an timeout after 1 minute. Even increasing Timeout doesn't change anything. If i try to restart the IIS I get an timeout error. So the IIS is also "stuck" (it is not really stuck, but I can't restart it). Only if I kill the w3wp.exe IIS is restartable and the Webservice will work again (until i again call this service several times). The logfiles (i'm no expert in things like logging or where to find/enable such logs, so to say : i'm a newbie) like http-logging, Event Viewer or WCF-Message Logging don't show any hints upon the source of the problem. I don't have this problem when I'm using a Webservice which doesn't call another Service. Calling a Webservice is done by Service Reference (I'm using no Proxy-Classes), but I think this should be no Problem. I have no idea of what is happening, nor how to solve this Problem. Regards Rene

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• iPhone Rendering Question

  - by slythic

  Hi all, I'm new to iPhone/Objective-C development. I "jumped the gun" and started reading and implementing some chapters from O'Reilly's iPhone Development. I was following the ebook's code exactly and my code was generating the following error: CGContextSetFillColorWithColor: invalid context CGContextFillRects: invalid context CGContextSetFillColorWithColor: invalid context CGContextGetShouldSmoothFonts: invalid context However, when I downloaded the sample code for the same chapter the code is different. Book Code: - (void) Render { CGContextRef g = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); //fill background with gray CGContextSetFillColorWithColor(g, [UIColor grayColor].CGColor); CGContextFillRect(g, CGRectMake(0, 0, self.frame.size.width, self.frame.size.height)); //draw text in black. CGContextSetFillColorWithColor(g, [UIColor blackColor].CGColor); [@"O'Reilly Rules!" drawAtPoint:CGPointMake(10.0, 20.0) withFont:[UIFont systemFontOfSize:[UIFont systemFontSize]]]; } Actual Project Code from the website (works): - (void) Render { [self setNeedsDisplay]; //this sets up a deferred call to drawRect. } - (void)drawRect:(CGRect)rect { CGContextRef g = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); //fill background with gray CGContextSetFillColorWithColor(g, [UIColor grayColor].CGColor); CGContextFillRect(g, CGRectMake(0, 0, self.frame.size.width, self.frame.size.height)); //draw text in black. CGContextSetFillColorWithColor(g, [UIColor blackColor].CGColor); [@"O'Reilly Rules!" drawAtPoint:CGPointMake(10.0, 20.0) withFont:[UIFont systemFontOfSize:[UIFont systemFontSize]]]; } What is it about these lines of code that make the app render correctly? - (void) Render { [self setNeedsDisplay]; //this sets up a deferred call to drawRect. } - (void)drawRect:(CGRect)rect { Thanks in advance for helping out a newbie!

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