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  • Call a dynamically generated method on a ILGenerator on the same type

    - by Thiado de Arruda
    Normally, when I want to call a dynamic method in another ILGenerator object that is writing a method on the same type I do the following : generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldarg_0); // reference to the current object generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldstr, "someArgument"); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Call, methodBuilder); //this methodbuilder is also defined on this dynamic type. However, I faced the following problem: I cant have a reference to the methodbuilder of the method I want to call, because it is generated by another framework(I only get a reference to the current TypeBuilder). This method is defined as protected virtual(and overriden on the methodbuilder I cant get a reference to) in the base class of the current dynamic type and I can get a reference to it by doing this : generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldarg_0); // reference to the current object generator.Emit(OpCodes.Ldstr, "someArgument"); generator.Emit(OpCodes.Call, baseType.GetMethod("SomeMethodDefinedInBaseClassThatWasOverridenInThisDynamicType")); The problem is that this calls the method on the base type and not the overriden method. Is there any way I can get a reference to a methodbuilder only having a reference to the typebuilder that defined it? Or is there a way to call a method using ILGenerator without having to pass the 'MethodInfo' object to it?

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  • Type casting in C++ by detecting the current 'this' object type

    - by Elroy
    My question is related to RTTI in C++ where I'm trying to check if an object belongs to the type hierarchy of another object. The BelongsTo() method checks this. I tried using typeid, but it throws an error and I'm not sure about any other way how I can find the target type to convert to at runtime. #include <iostream> #include <typeinfo> class X { public: // Checks if the input type belongs to the type heirarchy of input object type bool BelongsTo(X* p_a) { // I'm trying to check if the current (this) type belongs to the same type // hierarchy as the input type return dynamic_cast<typeid(*p_a)*>(this) != NULL; // error C2059: syntax error 'typeid' } }; class A : public X { }; class B : public A { }; class C : public A { }; int main() { X* a = new A(); X* b = new B(); X* c = new C(); bool test1 = b->BelongsTo(a); // should return true bool test2 = b->BelongsTo(c); // should return false bool test3 = c->BelongsTo(a); // should return true } Making the method virtual and letting derived classes do it seems like a bad idea as I have a lot of classes in the same type hierarchy. Or does anybody know of any other/better way to the do the same thing? Please suggest.

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  • Using Kerberos authentication for SQL Server 2008

    - by vivek m
    I am trying to configure my SQL Server to use Kerberos authentication. My setup is like this - My setup is like this- I have 2 virtual PCs in a Windows XP Pro SP3 host. Both VPCs are Windows Server 2003 R2. One VPC acts as the DC, DNS Server, DHCP server, has Active Directory installed and the SQL Server default instance is also running on this VPC. The second VPC is the domain member and it acts as the SQL Server client machine. I configured the SPN on the SQL Server service account to get the Kerberos working. On the client VPC it seems like it is using Kerberos authentication (as desired)- C:\Documents and Settings\administrator.SHAREPOINTSVC>sqlcmd -S vm-winsrvr2003 1> select auth_scheme from sys.dm_exec_connections where session_id=@@spid 2> go auth_scheme ---------------------------------------- KERBEROS (1 rows affected) 1> but on the server computer (where the SQL Server instance is actually running) it looks like it is still using NTLM authentication- . This is not a remote instance, the sql server is local to this machine. C:\Documents and Settings\Administrator>sqlcmd 1> select auth_scheme from sys.dm_exec_connections where session_id=@@spid 2> go auth_scheme ---------------------------------------- NTLM (1 rows affected) 1> What can i do so that it uses Kerberos on the server computer as well ? (or is this something that I should not expect)

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  • User to kernel mode big picture?

    - by fsdfa
    I've to implement a char device, a LKM. I know some basics about OS, but I feel I don't have the big picture. In a C programm, when I call a syscall what I think it happens is that the CPU is changed to ring0, then goes to the syscall vector and jumps to a kernel memmory space function that handle it. (I think that it does int 0x80 and in eax is the offset of the syscall vector, not sure). Then, I'm in the syscall itself, but I guess that for the kernel is the same process that was before, only that it is in kernel mode, I mean the current PCB is the process that called the syscall. So far... so good?, correct me if something is wrong. Others questions... how can I write/read in process memory?. If in the syscall handler I refer to address, say, 0xbfffffff. What it means that address? physical one? Some virtual kernel one?

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  • what is a root directory in IIS 6 and How do I make one of my subfolder in ASP.NET website the root directory?

    - by R_Coder
    I need to integrate a third party plugin in my asp.net website. To install the plugin, they have mentioned this sentence, "Create an application through your IIS control panel with root directory at -(some path from my website folder)?". I am not much aware with IIS and rarely worked with it. Though I tried every possible way i could do in IIS, I am not able to work it out. After installation, there is a test page provided by plugin which i have to run to check but when I run it, it shows this error. "It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level. This error can be caused by a virtual directory not being configured as an application in IIS." I searched this error too and found that it is because the two Web.Config file, one from the main project and another from plugin folder. The only way to work with this is to make the plugin folder they specified as root directory in IIS. Someone kindly tell me some easy steps to do this. What I was doing is, in IIS6, I added New website with the main folder of my asp.net website, then I right clickadd application and choosed the gievn path, thought it would become root directory but it ain't. Help would be appreciated. ALso note that, i have to put the plugin folder in my main website folder only. So, there are two web.config. I tried to rename one of them too, it solved the above error but gave another errors but I think main problem is of root directory. P.S they show me above error on web.config file of plugin folder on this sentence- "Line 51: < authentication mode="Windows" />"

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  • Implementing Dispose on a class derived from Stream

    - by AnthonyWJones
    I'm building a class that derives from Stream to wrap a COM IStream. However I've come across an issue where I need to release the COM IStream deteministically. Ok so that's easy just use Marshal.ReleaseComObject in the Dispose method. However I'm not sure its that simple. The Stream base class already has an protected virtual method Dispose(boolean). Here is my first idea:- ~ComStreamWrapper() { if (!_Disposed) { iop.Marshal.FreeCoTaskMem(_Int64Ptr); iop.Marshal.ReleaseComObject(_IStream); } } protected override void Dispose(bool disposing) { base.Dispose(disposing); if (!_Disposed) { if (disposing) { iop.Marshal.FreeCoTaskMem(_Int64Ptr); iop.Marshal.ReleaseComObject(_IStream); } _Disposed = true; } } You'll notice there isn't an implementation of Dispose() itself. I'm currently making the asssumption that the existing implementation on Stream does what I need it to. That is calling Diposing(true) and GC.SuppressFinalize. Is this assumption faulty? Have I missed something? Is there a better approach? You see more of the basic class in this answer to an ealier question.

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  • Some questions about special operators i've never seen in C++ code.

    - by toto
    I have downloaded the Phoenix SDK June 2008 (Tools for compilers) and when I'm reading the code of the Hello sample, I really feel lost. public ref class Hello { //-------------------------------------------------------------------------- // // Description: // // Class Variables. // // Remarks: // // A normal compiler would have more flexible means for holding // on to all this information, but in our case it's simplest (if // somewhat inelegant) if we just keep references to all the // structures we'll need to access as classstatic variables. // //-------------------------------------------------------------------------- static Phx::ModuleUnit ^ module; static Phx::Targets::Runtimes::Runtime ^ runtime; static Phx::Targets::Architectures::Architecture ^ architecture; static Phx::Lifetime ^ lifetime; static Phx::Types::Table ^ typeTable; static Phx::Symbols::Table ^ symbolTable; static Phx::Phases::PhaseConfiguration ^ phaseConfiguration; 2 Questions : What's that ref keyword? What is that sign ^ ? What is it doing protected: virtual void Execute ( Phx::Unit ^ unit ) override; }; override is a C++ keyword too? It's colored as such in my Visual Studio. I really want to play with this framework, but this advanced C++ is really an obstacle right now. Thank you.

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  • deleting object with template for int and object

    - by Yokhen
    Alright so Say I have a class with all its definition, bla bla bla... template <class DT> class Foo{ private: DT* _data; //other stuff; public: Foo(DT* data){ _data = data } virtual ~Foo(){ delete _data } //other methods }; And then I have in the main method: int main(){ int number = 12; Foo<anyRandomClass>* noPrimitiveDataObject = new Foo<anyRandomClass>(new anyRandomClass()); Foo<int>* intObject = new Foo<int>(number); delete noPrimitiveDataObject; //Everything goes just fine. delete intObject; //It messes up here, I think because primitive data types such as int are allocated in a different way. return 0; } My question is: What could I do to have both delete statements in the main method work just fine? P.S.: Although I have not actually compiled/tested this specific code, I have reviewed it extensively (as well as indented. You're welcome.), so if you find a mistake, please be nice. Thank you.

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  • Visual Studio 2010 / ASP.NET MVC 2 / Publish

    - by SevenCentral
    I just did a clean install on Windows 7 x64 Professional with the final release of Visual Studio 2010 Premium. In order to duplicate what I'm experiencing do the following in: Create a new ASP.NET MVC 2 Web Application Right click the project and select Properties On the Web tab, select "Use Local IIS Web Server" Click on Create Virtual Directory Save all Unload the project Edit the project file Change MvcBuildViews to true Save all Reload project Right click the project and select Publish Choose the file system publish method Enter a target location Choose Delete all existing files Select Publish Right click the project Select Publish Each time I do the above I get the following errror: "It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level..." The error originates from obj\debug\package\packagetmp\web.config, relative to the project directory. I can repeat this all day long with any MVC 2 project I've built. In order to fix this problem, I need to set MvcBuildViews to false in the project file. That's not really an option. This wasn't a problem in Visual Studio 2008 and it seems to be an issue with the way the Publish command stages files beneath the project directory. Can anyone else duplicate this error? Is this a bug or by design? Is there a fix, workaround, etc...? Thanks.

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  • Moving from NHibernate to FluentNHibernate: assembly error (related to versions)?

    - by goober
    Not sure where to start, but I had gotten the most recent version of NHibernate, successfully mapped the most simple of business objects, etc. When trying to move to FluentNHibernate and do the same thing, I got this error message on build: "System.IO.FileLoadException: Could not load file or assembly 'NHibernate, Version=2.1.0.4000, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=aa95f207798dfdb4' or one of its dependencies. The located assembly's manifest definition does not match the assembly reference." Background: I'm new to Hibernate, NHibernate, and FluentNHibernate -- but not to .NET, C#, etc. Database I have a database table called Category: (PK) CategoryID (type: int), unique, auto-incrementing UserID (type: uniqueidentifier) -- given the value of the user Guid in ASP.NET database Title (type: varchar(50) -- the title of the category Components involved: I have a SessionProviderClass which creates the mapping to the database I have a Category class which has all the virtual methods for FluentNHibernate to override I have a CategoryMap : ClassMap class, which does the fluent mappings for the entity I have a CategoryRepository class that contains the method to add & save the category I have the TestCatAdd.aspx file which uses the CategoryRepository class. Would be happy to post code for any of those, but I'm not sure that it's necessary, as I think the issue is that somewhere there's a version conflict between what FluentNHibernate references and the NHibernate I have installed from before. Thanks in advance for any help you can give!

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  • Issue with Running Android Program on Eclipse

    - by Hossein Mobasher
    I downloaded complete Android Environment Development Environment Snapshots from marakana.com. I start eclipse and create new Android project. On the Run Configurations, i created New Configuration to run the application, and set the Target to Automatic and select the AVD that appropriate to run the application. But, when i click on the run icon, it starts the new emulator, and after some minutes, just android emulator be ran and my application doesn't run on it. What do i do to solve the running problem and run my project on emulator ? NOTE 1: Console outputs : [2012-03-07 16:03:49 - New] ------------------------------ [2012-03-07 16:03:49 - New] Android Launch! [2012-03-07 16:03:49 - New] adb is running normally. [2012-03-07 16:03:49 - New] Performing com.android.example.NewActivity activity launch [2012-03-07 16:03:53 - New] Launching a new emulator with Virtual Device 'Device' [2012-03-07 16:04:00 - Emulator] emulator: WARNING: Unable to create sensors port: Unknown error NOTE 2: My Program Source: package com.android.example; import android.app.Activity; import android.os.Bundle; public class NewActivity extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); } } Thanks for your attention :)

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  • Using nHibernate to map two different data models to one entity model

    - by Dan
    I have two different data models that map to the same Car entity. I needed to create a second entity called ParkedCar, which is identical to Car (and therefore inherits from it) in order to stop nhibernate complaining that two mappings exists for the same entity. public class Car { protected Car() { IsParked = false; } public virtual int Id { get; set; } public bool IsParked { get; internal set; } } public class ParkedCar : Car { public ParkedCar() { IsParked = true; } //no additional properties to car, merely exists to support mapping and signify the car is parked } The only issue is that when I come to retrieve a Car from the database using the Criteria API like so: SessionProvider.OpenSession.Session.CreateCriteria<Car>() .Add(Restrictions.Eq("Id", 123)) .List<Car>(); The query brings back Car Entities that are from the ParkedCar data model. Its as if nhibernate defaults to the specialised entity. And the mappings are defiantly looking in the right place: <class name="Car" xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" table="tblCar"> <class name="ParkedCar" xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" table="tblParkedCar" > How do I stop this?

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  • EF4 Code-First CTP5 Many-to-one

    - by Kevin McKelvin
    I've been trying to get EF4 CTP5 to play nice with an existing database, but struggling with some basic mapping issues. I have two model classes so far: public class Job { [Key, Column(Order = 0)] public int JobNumber { get; set; } [Key, Column(Order = 1)] public int VersionNumber { get; set; } public virtual User OwnedBy { get; set; } } and [Table("Usernames")] public class User { [Key] public string Username { get; set; } public string EmailAddress { get; set; } public bool IsAdministrator { get; set; } } And I have my DbContext class exposing those as IDbSet I can query my users, but as soon as I added the OwnedBy field to the Job class I began getting this error in all my tests for the Jobs: Invalid column name 'UserUsername'. I want this to behave like NHibernate's many-to-one, whereas I think EF4 is treating it as a complex type. How should this be done?

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  • Dynamic WCF base addresses in SharePoint

    - by Paul Bevis
    I'm attempting to host a WCF service in SharePoint. I have configured the service to be compatible with ASP.NET to allow me access to HttpContext and session information [AspNetCompatibilityRequirements(RequirementsMode = AspNetCompatibilityRequirementsMode.Required)] public class MISDataService : IMISDataService { ... } And my configuration looks like this <system.serviceModel> <serviceHostingEnvironment aspNetCompatibilityEnabled="true" /> <services> <service name="MISDataService"> <endpoint address="" binding="webHttpBinding" contract="MISDataViews.IMISDataService" /> </service> </services> </system.serviceModel> Whilst this gives me access to the current HTTP context, the serivce is always hosted under the root domain, i.e. http://www.mydomain.com/_layouts/MISDataService.svc. In SharePoint the URL being accessed gives you specific context information about the current site via the SPContext class. So with the service hosted in a virtual directory, I would like it to be available on mulitple addresses e.g. http://www.mydomain.com/_layouts/MISDataService.svc http://www.mydomain.com/sites/site1/_layouts/MISDataService.svc http://www.mydomain.com/sites/site2/_layouts/MISDataService.svc so that the service can figure out what data to return based upon the current context. Is it possible to configure the endpoint address dynamically? Or is the only alternative to host the service in one location and then pass the "context" to it some how?

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  • BUG - ProteaAudio with Lua does not work

    - by Stackfan
    Any idea why i cant use or cant build in Lua the ProTeaAudio ? 1) Exist [root@example ~]# yum install lua-devel Loaded plugins: presto, refresh-packagekit Setting up Install Process Package lua-devel-5.1.4-4.fc12.i686 already installed and latest version Nothing to do 2) get failed to build the RtAudio [sun@example proteaAudio_src_090204]$ make g++ -O2 -Wall -DHAVE_GETTIMEOFDAY -D__LINUX_ALSA__ -Irtaudio -Irtaudio/include -I../lua/src -I../archive/baseCode/include -c rtaudio/RtAudio.cpp -o rtaudio/RtAudio.o rtaudio/RtAudio.cpp:365: error: no ‘unsigned int RtApi::getStreamSampleRate()’ member function declared in class ‘RtApi’ rtaudio/RtAudio.cpp: In member function ‘virtual bool RtApiAlsa::probeDeviceOpen(unsigned int, RtApi::StreamMode, unsigned int, unsigned int, unsigned int, RtAudioFormat, unsigned int*, RtAudio::StreamOptions*)’: rtaudio/RtAudio.cpp:5835: error: ‘RTAUDIO_SCHEDULE_REALTIME’ was not declared in this scope rtaudio/RtAudio.cpp:5837: error: ‘struct RtAudio::StreamOptions’ has no member named ‘priority’ make: *** [rtaudio/RtAudio.o] Error 1 [sun@example proteaAudio_src_090204]$ Lua 5.1.4 Copyright (C) 1994-2008 Lua.org, PUC-Rio > require("proAudioRt"); stdin:1: module 'proAudioRt' not found: no field package.preload['proAudioRt'] no file './proAudioRt.lua' no file '/usr/share/lua/5.1/proAudioRt.lua' no file '/usr/share/lua/5.1/proAudioRt/init.lua' no file '/usr/lib/lua/5.1/proAudioRt.lua' no file '/usr/lib/lua/5.1/proAudioRt/init.lua' no file './proAudioRt.so' no file '/usr/lib/lua/5.1/proAudioRt.so' no file '/usr/lib/lua/5.1/loadall.so' stack traceback: [C]: in function 'require' stdin:1: in main chunk [C]: ?

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  • Focus CSS tag in Internet Explorer 8

    - by Sam
    This is driving me nuts. http://www.cssdrive.com/index.php/examples/exampleitem/focus_pseudo_class This is an example of using the hover pseudo-class. Works fine in Chrome and IE. When I save locally it works fine in Chrome but won't work in IE. What am I doing wrong!? <link rel="Stylesheet" href="style.css" /> <form> <p>1) Name:<br /> <input type="text" size="40"></p> <p>2) Email address:<br /> <input type="text" size="40"></p> <p>3) Comments:<br /> <textarea rows="5" name="comments" cols="45" wrap="virtual"></textarea></p> <p><input id="actualsubmit" type="submit" value="Submit"></p> </form> style.css: input:focus, textarea:focus{ background-color: lightyellow; }

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  • Trying to make a plugin system in C++

    - by Pirate for Profit
    I'm making a task-based program that needs to have plugins. Tasks need to have properties which can be easily edited, I think this can be done with Qt's Meta-Object Compiler reflection capabilities (I could be wrong, but I should be able to stick this in a QtPropertyBrowser?) So here's the base: class Task : public QObject { Q_OBJECT public: explicit Task(QObject *parent = 0) : QObject(parent){} virtual void run() = 0; signals: void taskFinished(bool success = true); } Then a plugin might have this task: class PrinterTask : public Task { Q_OBJECT public: explicit PrinterTask(QObject *parent = 0) : Task(parent) {} void run() { Printer::getInstance()->Print(this->getData()); // fictional emit taskFinished(true); } inline const QString &getData() const; inline void setData(QString data); Q_PROPERTY(QString data READ getData WRITE setData) // for reflection } In a nutshell, here's what I want to do: // load plugin // find all the Tasks interface implementations in it // have user able to choose a Task and edit its specific Q_PROPERTY's // run the TASK It's important that one .dll has multiple tasks, because I want them to be associated by their module. For instance, "FileTasks.dll" could have tasks for deleting files, making files, etc. The only problem with Qt's plugin setup is I want to store X amount of Tasks in one .dll module. As far as I can tell, you can only load one interface per plugin (I could be wrong?). If so, the only possible way to do accomplish what I want is to create a FactoryInterface with string based keys which return the objects (as in Qt's Plug-And-Paint example), which is a terrible boilerplate that I would like to avoid. Anyone know a cleaner C++ plugin architecture than Qt's to do what I want? Also, am I safely assuming Qt's reflection capabilities will do what I want (i.e. able to edit an unknown dynamically loaded tasks' properties with the QtPropertyBrowser before dispatching)?

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  • ASPX page renders differently when reached on intranet vs. internet?

    - by MattSlay
    This is so odd to me.. I have IIS 5 running on XP and it's hosting a small ASP.Net app for our LAN that we can access by using the computer name, virtual directory, and page name (http://matt/smallapp/customers.aspx), but you can also hit that IIS server and page from the internet because I have a public IP that my firewall routes to the "Matt" computer (like http://213.202.3.88/smallapp/customers.aspx [just a made-up IP]). Don't worry, I have Windows domain authentication is in place to protect the app from anonymous users. So all the abovea parts works fine. But what's weird is that the Border of the divs on the page are rendered much thicker when you access the page from the intranet, versus the internet, (I'm using IE8) and also, some of the div layout (stretching and such) acts differently. Why would it render different in the same browser based on whether it was reached from the LAN vs. the internet? It does NOT do this in FireFox. So it must be just an IE8 thing. All the CSS for the divs is right in the HTML page, so I do not think it is a caching matter of a CSS file. Notice how the borders are different in these two images: Internet: http://twitpic.com/hxx91 . Lan: http://twitpic.com/hxxtv

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  • What are major differences between C# and Java?

    - by enba
    I just want to clarify one thing. This is not a question on which one is better, that part I leave to someone else to discuss. I don't care about it. I've been asked this question on my job interview and I thought it might be useful to learn a bit more. These are the ones I could come up with: Java is "platform independent". Well nowadays you could say there is the Mono project so C# could be considered too but I believe it is a bit exaggerating. Why? Well, when a new release of Java is done it is simultaneously available on all platforms it supports, on the other hand how many features of C# 3.0 are still missing in the Mono implementation? Or is it really CLR vs. JRE that we should compare here? Java doesn't support events and delegates. As far as I know. In Java all methods are virtual Development tools: I believe there isn't such a tool yet as Visual Studio. Especially if you've worked with team editions you'll know what I mean. Please add others you think are relevant. Update: Just popped up my mind, Java doesn't have something like custom attributes on classes, methods etc. Or does it?

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  • How to use a rewrite rule to force calls for "domain.tld/subdir/file.html" to show as "subdir.domain.tld/file.html"?

    - by Wion
    Hi! First time poster. Very new to mod_rewrite. I'm on a shared server and the context of this problem is with a virtual directory under my root account. The domain (domain.tld) will have subdirectories representing annual mini-sites of static .html files. Subdirectory names (yyyy) will be the 4-digit year (e.g., "2010"). I want any call to domain.tld/yyyy/file.html to appear as yyyy.domain.tld/file.html in the browser address bar, and (of course) for the page to load properly. I already force dropping “www” by using… RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^www\.domain\.tld [NC] RewriteRule (.*) http://domain.tld/$1 [R=301,L] So far so good. But no matter what I try after that, I can’t get the subdomain to force to the front of the domain. Here’s one of the more complicated examples I’ve tried (no doubt wrong)… RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^domain\.tld/([0-9]+)/([a-z-]+)\.html [NC] RewriteRule (.*) %1.domain.tld/%2.html [NC] This doesn’t break anything (that I can tell), but it doesn’t do what I want either. I.e., if I type yyyy.domain.tld, I’ll see yyyy.domain.tld in the address bar, and navigating around will give me yyyy.domain.tld/file.html, etc. Fine. But if also type domain.tld/yyyy I’ll see domain.tld/yyyy, etc, which is not how I want people to see it. It doesn’t redirect or mask or alias or whatever you call it. Is it even possible to force one look over the other like that? Should I be handling this with DNS instead? Thanks in advance!

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  • Problem with SQL Server "EXECUTE AS"

    - by Vilx-
    I've got the following setup: There is a SQL Server DB with several tables that have triggers set on them (that collect history data). These triggers are CLR stored procedures with EXECUTE AS 'HistoryUser'. The HistoryUser user is a simple user in the database without a login. It has enough permissions to read from all tables and write to the history table. When I backup the DB and then restore it to another machine (Virtual Machine in this case, but it does not matter), the triggers don't work anymore. In fact, no impersonation for the user works anymore. Even a simple statement such as this exec ('select 3') as user='HistoryUser' produces an error: Cannot execute as the database principal because the principal "HistoryUser" does not exist, this type of principal cannot be impersonated, or you do not have permission. I read in MSDN that this can occur if the DB owner is a domain user, but it isn't. And even if I change it to anything else (their recommended solution) this problem remains. If I create another user without login, I can use it for impersonation just fine. That is, this works just fine: create user TestUser without login go exec ('select 3') as user='TestUser' I do not want to recreate all those triggers, so is there any way how I can make the existing HistoryUser work? Bump: Sorry, but this is kinda urgent...

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  • BackgroundWorker

    - by vdh_ant
    Hi guys I'm working on some code that calls a service. This service call could fail and if it does I want the system to try again until it works or too much time has passed. I am wondering where I am going wrong as the following code doesn't seem to be working correctly... It randomly only does one to four loops... protected virtual void ProcessAsync(object data, int count) { var worker = new BackgroundWorker(); worker.DoWork += (sender, e) => { throw new InvalidOperationException("oh shiznit!"); }; worker.RunWorkerCompleted += (sender, e) => { //If an error occurs we need to tell the data about it if (e.Error != null) { count++; System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(count * 5000); if (count <= 10) { if (count % 5 == 0) this.Logger.Fatal("LOAD ERROR - The system can't load any data", e.Error); else this.Logger.Error("LOAD ERROR - The system can't load any data", e.Error); this.ProcessAsync(data, count); } } }; worker.RunWorkerAsync(); } Cheers Anthony

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  • Beginner SQL section: avoiding repeated expression

    - by polygenelubricants
    I'm entirely new at SQL, but let's say that on the StackExchange Data Explorer, I just want to list the top 15 users by reputation, and I wrote something like this: SELECT TOP 15 DisplayName, Id, Reputation, Reputation/1000 As RepInK FROM Users WHERE RepInK > 10 ORDER BY Reputation DESC Currently this gives an Error: Invalid column name 'RepInK', which makes sense, I think, because RepInK is not a column in Users. I can easily fix this by saying WHERE Reputation/1000 > 10, essentially repeating the formula. So the questions are: Can I actually use the RepInK "column" in the WHERE clause? Do I perhaps need to create a virtual table/view with this column, and then do a SELECT/WHERE query on it? Can I name an expression, e.g. Reputation/1000, so I only have to repeat the names in a few places instead of the formula? What do you call this? A substitution macro? A function? A stored procedure? Is there an SQL quicksheet, glossary of terms, language specification, anything I can use to quickly pick up the syntax and semantics of the language? I understand that there are different "flavors"?

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  • Why does PEAR get installed to my user directory?

    - by webworm
    I am new to Linux and I am attempting to install the PHP PEAR library on a virtual server which is running Ubuntu. I am following a tutorial that covers installing PEAR but have run up against an area where I am confused. When running the PEAR installation program I am prompted as to what I want the INSTALL_PREFIX to be. Evidently the INSTALL_PREFIX, among other things, determines where PEAR will be installed. The tutorial suggest the value of INSTALL_PREFIX be the following path ... "/home/MY_USER_NAME/pear" where MY_USER_NAME = my user account Having come from a Windows world, applications are installed on the system where everyone can use them. If I install PEAR underneath my user directory will other developers on the system be able to make use of PEAR in their PHP scripts? I want to make PEAR available to all users and not just myself. Could someone explain to me the difference between installing for all users and installing just for myself? Does the install location matter? Should I be installing PEAR in a different location? Thanks for any suggestions. P.S. The tutorial I am following is located at the following URL ... http://articles.sitepoint.com/article/getting-started-with-pear/2

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  • em1: watchdog timeout -- resetting virtualbox

    - by lightmanhk
    everyone. I try to configure network adapter of my freebsd on virtualbox machine. At first setting up, I got it right. However, after a couple of reboots, my VM gives me a error message: says "em1:Watchdog timeout -- resetting" I tried to google it, and there is no solution that works for me. The following is my network adapter of my VM: Apapter1: NAT Adapter2: Host-only Adapter vboxnet0 On my Virtualbox setting: Host-only networks: Adapter: IPv4 address: 192.168.56.10 IPv4 network mask: 255.255.255.0 On my FreeBSD VM /etc/rc.conf ifconfig_em0="DHCP" ifconfig_em1="inet 192.168.56.11 netmask 255.255.255.0" Moreover, strange thing is that, for example, if timeout error message show at ttyv0 , when I log in at different ttyv[1-9], the error message will not be shown. but in ttyv0, it still gives me the message. And, in term of functionality of em1, it does work. I have no clue about this problem. Hoping any one can give me a solution or suggestion. That will be great! Thanks a lot. Freebsd version: 9.0-RELEASE FreeBSD 9.0-RELEASE i386 Virtual box: 4.1.2 r73507

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