Search Results

Search found 11331 results on 454 pages for 'resource monitor'.

Page 403/454 | < Previous Page | 399 400 401 402 403 404 405 406 407 408 409 410  | Next Page >

  • Relatively simple task: How do I pass back the selected item from one activity to another?

    - by Brian D
    I have two activities: one displays an image and a button, the other displays a photo gallery. I want to be able to select any of the images in the gallery and then display them on the first activity in place of the default image. public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.gallery); Gallery g = (Gallery) findViewById(R.id.gallery); g.setAdapter(new ImageAdapter(this)); g.setOnItemClickListener(new OnItemClickListener() { public void onItemClick(AdapterView parent, View v, int position, long id) { Toast.makeText(PhotoGallery.this, "Position: " + id, Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); Intent intent=new Intent(); intent.putExtra("PictureID", position); setResult(RESULT_OK, intent); finish(); } }); } Am I even close here? I'm not quite sure what to do with any string or int I would attach to the Intent -- can I attach the object itself? I'd much rather pass back at minimum the string name of the resource (image), but the only thing I can seem to figure out right now is how to pass back the position of the picture ... not a great solution. I can clarify more if necessary -- thanks.

    Read the article

  • Wicket application + Apache + mod_jk - AJP queues are filling up!

    - by nojyarg
    Dear community, We are having a Wicket-based Java application deployed in a production server cluster using Apache (2.2.3) with mod_jk (1.2.30) as load balancing component w/ sticky session and Jboss 5 as application container for the Java application. We are inconsistently seeing an issue in our production environment where our AJP queues between Apache and Jboss as shown in the JMX console fill up with requests to the point where the application server is no longer taking on any new requests. When looking at all involved system components (overall traffic, load db, process list db, load of all clustered application server nodes) nothing points towards a capacity issue which would explain why the calls are being stalled in the AJP queue. Instead all systems appear sufficiently idle. So far, our only remedy to this issue is to restart the appservers and the load balancer which only occasionally clears the AJP queues. We are trying to figure out why the queues are filling up to the point that no calls get returned to the end user although the system is not under a high load. Has anyone else experienced similar problems? Are there any other system metrics we should monitor that could explain the queuing behavior? Is this potentially a mod_jk issue? If so, is it advisable to swap mod_jk with mod_cluster to resolve the issue? Any advice is highly appreciated. If I can provide additional information for the sake of troubleshooting I would be more than willing to do so. /Ben

    Read the article

  • Mapping relationships from multiple databases in NHibernate

    - by mannish
    I have a multi-database application configured with NHibernate. The entities that correspond to tables from each database are in their own separate assemblies (an assembly per database if you will). I have a need/desire to relate an entity from one database to an entity of another database. Everything up to this point works as I want it to (the application handles multiple session factories, etc.). The relationship I want is many-to-one, but in reality my application only cares about one side of the relationship (for reasons that aren't relevant). The relevant entities are Project and PMProject, where a Project HAS A PMProject. When I map the many-to-one, I get the following error: NHibernate.MappingException: An association from the table PROJECTS refers to an unmapped class: SDMS.PPRM.PMProject The Project mapping itself reads (ignore the funky column naming; it's an Oracle db): <many-to-one name="PMProject" class="SDMS.PPRM.PMProject" column="PM_PROJECT_ID" cascade="none" /> In the class attribute, I'm referencing the appropriate assembly, but I get that error which seems to tell me it simply can't find the mapping file for PMProject. But that file exists (it's set as embedded resource), the session factory instantiation works without fail; so I'm at a loss on how to tell the Project mapping how/where to look for the appropriate mapping. Is there something I'm missing? A better way to go about this? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Deploy to web container, bundle web container or embed web container...

    - by Jason
    I am developing an application that needs to be as simple as possible to install for the end user. While the end users will likely be experience Linux users (or sales engineers), they don't really know anything about Tomcat, Jetty, etc, nor do I think they should. So I see 3 ways to deploy our applications. I should also state that this is the first app that I have had to deploy that had a web interface, so I haven't really faced this question before. First is to deploy the application into an existing web container. Since we only deploy to Suse or RedHat this seems easy enough to do. However, we're not big on the idea of multiple apps running in one web container. It makes it harder to take down just one app. The next option is to just bundle Tomcat or Jetty and have the startup/shutdown scripts launch our bundled web container. Or 3rd, embed.. This will probably provide the same user experience as the second option. I'm curious what others do when faced with this problem to make it as fool proof as possible on the end user. I've almost ruled out deploying into an existing web container as we often like to set per application resource limits and CPU affinity, which I believe would affect all apps deployed into a web container/app server and not just a specific application. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Have Microsoft changed how ASP.NET MVC deals with duplicate action method names?

    - by Jason Evans
    I might be missing something here, but in ASP.NET MVC 4, I can't get the following to work. Given the following controller: public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(string order1, string order2) { return null; } } and it's view: @{ ViewBag.Title = "Home"; } @using (Html.BeginForm()) { @Html.TextBox("order1")<br /> @Html.TextBox("order2") <input type="submit" value="Save"/> } When start the app, all I get is this: The current request for action 'Index' on controller type 'HomeController' is ambiguous between the following action methods: System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index() on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult Index(System.String, System.String) on type ViewData.Controllers.HomeController Now, in ASP.NET MVC 3 the above works fine, I just tried it, so what's changed in ASP.NET MVC 4 to break this? OK there could be a chance that I'm doing something silly here, and not noticing it. EDIT: I notice that in the MVC 4 app, the Global.asax.cs file did not contain this: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); } which the MVC 3 app does, by default. So I added the above to the MVC 4 app but it fails with the same error. Note that the MVC 3 app does work fine with the above route. I'm passing the "order" data via the Request.Form. EDIT: In the file RouteConfig.cs I can see RegisterRoutes is executed, with the following default route: routes.MapRoute( name: "Default", url: "{controller}/{action}/{id}", defaults: new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I still get the original error, regards ambiguity between which Index() method to call.

    Read the article

  • Automatically restarting Erlang applications

    - by Nick
    I recently ran into a bug where an entire Erlang application died, yielding a log message that looked like this: =INFO REPORT==== 11-Jun-2010::11:07:25 === application: myapp exited: shutdown type: temporary I have no idea what triggered this shutdown, but the real problem I have is that it didn't restart itself. Instead, the now-empty Erlang VM just sat there doing nothing. Now, from the research I've done, it looks like there are other "start types" you can give an application: 'transient' and 'permanent'. If I start a Supervisor within an application, I can tell it to make a particular process transient or permanent, and it will automatically restart it for me. However, according to the documentation, if I make an application transient or permanent, it doesn't restart it when it dies, but rather it kills all the other applications as well. What I really want to do is somehow tell the Erlang VM that a particular application should always be running, and if it goes down, restart it. Is this possible to do? (I'm not talking about implementing a supervisor on top of my application, because then it's a catch 22: what if my supervisor process crashes? I'm looking for some sort of API or setting that I can use to have Erlang monitor and restart my application for me.) Thanks!

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC twitter/myspace style routing

    - by Astrofaes
    Hi guys, This is my first post after being a long-time lurker - so please be gentle :-) I have a website similar to twitter, in that people can sign up and choose a 'friendly url', so on my site they would have something like: mydomain.com/benjones I also have root level static pages such as: mydomain.com/about and of course my homepage: mydomain.com/ I'm new to ASP.NET MVC 2 (in fact I just started today) and I've set up the following routes to try and achieve the above. public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.IgnoreRoute("content/{*pathInfo}"); routes.IgnoreRoute("images/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute("About", "about", new { controller = "Common", action = "About" } ); // User profile sits at root level so check for this before displaying the homepage routes.MapRoute("UserProfile", "{url}", new { controller = "User", action = "Profile", url = "" } ); routes.MapRoute("Home", "", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } ); } For the most part this works fine, however, my homepage is not being triggered! Essentially, when you browser to mydomain.com, it seems to trigger the User Profile route with an empty {url} parameter and so the homepage is never reached! Any ideas on how I can show the homepage?

    Read the article

  • Why won't my Setup Project Perform my Custom Registration Process

    - by Jordan S
    I am trying to write an Setup Project/Installer for a class library driver that I wrote in C# using Visual Studio 2008. The driver project has a section of code that looks like this... [ComRegisterFunction] public static void RegisterASCOM(Type t) { Trace.WriteLine("Registration Started."); DoRegistration(true); } In the driver project Properties - "Assembly Information" I have set checked the box that says Make COM-Visible = true. I added a Setup Project to the solution in VS, added the output dll from the driver project so that it installs on the target machine and set the Register property of the dll to "vsdraCOM". So, my understanding is that when the installer runs it SHOULD execute the methods of the dll that are marked with [COMRegisterFunction]. Using SysInternals Debug View I can monitor when the above code snippet is hit by watching for the "Registration started" text to show up in the window. When I build the solution, I can see the text show up so I know the driver is registering properly. The problem is that when I run the installer, I don't think it is doing the registration bit. I see nothing show up in Debug View. And if i try to access my driver via another application I get an error saying it "Cannot create ActiveX object". Why does the registration not occur during the install process? The driver does register for COM but it does NOT call my custom registration method. Does anyone have and suggestions of what I could be missing? Is there another way I can debug this? (I can provide more code if anyone want's to take a look!!)

    Read the article

  • Why won't EF4 generate a method to support my Function Import?

    - by Deane
    I have a stored proc in my database which returns an integer. I added a Function Import to my model. This appears in the EDMX file: <Function Name="GetTotalEntityCount" Aggregate="false" BuiltIn="false" NiladicFunction="false" IsComposable="false" ParameterTypeSemantics="AllowImplicitConversion" Schema="dbo" /> However, no method actually gets generated for this. It should be top level, right? using (MyContext context = new MyContext()) { context.MyMethodShouldBeRightHere(); } Nothing appears in Intellisense, I've gone through the designer.cs file and there's nothing in there, and reflected the DLL...nothing. The code generator is just not generating any code to support this stored proc. I added another table to my database and updated the model, and that came in, so the model will update, it's just specifically ignoring this stored proc. I've tried everything I can think of, and consulted every resource I can find, and as near as I can tell, I'm doing everything right. I'm using EF4, database-first. (I'm pretty sure on the version, anyway. This shows up in the generated file: Runtime Version:4.0.30319.1 )

    Read the article

  • Why can't I open a JBoss vfs:/ URL?

    - by skiphoppy
    We are upgrading our application from JBoss 4 to JBoss 6. A couple of pieces of our application get delivered to the client in an unusual way: jars are looked up inside of our application and sent to the client from a servlet, where the client extracts them in order to run certain support functions. In JBoss 4 we would look these jars up with the classloader and find a jar:// URL which would be used to read the jar and send its contents to the client. In JBoss 6 when we perform the lookup we get a vfs:/ URL. I understand that this is from the org.jboss.vfs package. Unfortunately when I call openStream() on this URL and read from the stream, I immediately get an EOF (read() returns -1). What gives? Why can't I read the resource this URL refers to? I've tried trying to access the underlying VFS packages to open the file through the JBoss VFS API, but most of the API appears to be private, and I couldn't find a routine to translate from a vfs:/ URL to a VFS VirtualFile object, so I couldn't get anywhere. I can try to find the file on disk within JBoss, but that approach sounds very failure prone on upgrade. Our old approach was to use Java Web Start to distribute the jars to the client and then look them up within Java Web Start's cache to extract them. But that broke on every minor upgrade of Java because the layout of the cache changed.

    Read the article

  • How to combine apache requests?

    - by Bruce
    To give you the situation in abstract: I have an ajax client that often needs to retrieve 3-10 static documents from the server. Those 3-10 documents are selected by the client out of about 100 documents in total. I have no way of knowing in advance which 3-10 documents the client will require. Additionally, those 100 documents are generated from database content, and so change over time. It seems messy to me to have to make 10 ajax requests for 10 separate documents. My first thought was to write a jsp that could use the include action. ie in pseudo code for (param in params){ jsp:include page="[param]" } But it turns out the tomcat doesn't just include the html resource, it recompiles it, generating a class file every time, which also seems wasteful. Does any one know of a neat solution for combining apache requests to static files to make one request, rather than several, but without the overhead of, for example, tomcat generating extra class files for each static file and regenerating them each time the static file changes? Thanks! Hopefully my question is clear - it's a bit long-winded.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC 2 - Custom route doesn't find controller action

    - by mcfroob
    For some reason my application isn't routing to my controller method correctly. I have a routelink like this in my webpage - <%= Html.RouteLink("View", "Blog", new { id=(item.BlogId), slug=(item.Slug) }) %> In global.asax.cs I have the following routes - routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "MoreBlogs", "Blog/Page/{page}", new { controller = "Blog", action = "Index" } ); routes.MapRoute( "Blog", "Blog/View/{id}/{slug}", new { controller = "Blog", action = "View"} ); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Blog", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); And then I have a class BlogController that has a method - public ActionResult View(int id, string slug) { ... etc. } I put a breakpoint in the first line of the View method but it's not getting hit at all. I checked with a route debugger for the format localhost/Blog/View/1/test and it matched my custom route. All I'm getting is a 404 while running this, I can't work out why the route won't post to the view method in my controller - any ideas?

    Read the article

  • SIlverlight Navigate: how does it work? How would you implement in f# w/o VS wizards and helpers?

    - by akaphenom
    After a nights sleep the problem can be stated more accurately as I have a 100% f# / silverlight implementation and am looking to use the built in Navigation components. C# creates page.xaml and page.xaml.cs um - ok; but what is the relationship at a fundamental level? How would I go about doing this in f#? The applcuation is loaded in the default module, and I pull the XAML in and reference it from the application object. Do I need to create instances / references to the pages from within the application object? Or set up some other page management object with the proper name value pairs? When all the Help of VS is stripped away - what are we left with? original post (for those who may be reading replies) I have a 100% silverlight 3.0 / f# 2.0 application I am wrapping my brain around. I have the base application loading correctly - and now I want to add the naigation controls to it. My page is stored as an embedded resource - but the Frame.Navigate takes a URI. I know what I have is wrong but here it is: let nav : Frame = mainGrid ? mainFrame let url = "/page1.xaml" let uri = new System.Uri(url, System.UriKind.Relative) ; nav.Navigate uri Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • What happens when we say "listen to a port" ?

    - by smwikipedia
    Hi, When we start a server application, we always need to speicify the port number it listens to. But how is this "listening mechanism" implemented under the hood? My current imagination is like this: The operating system associate the port number with some buffer. The server application's responsibiligy is to monitor this buffer. If there's no data in this buffer, the server application's listen operation will just block the application. When some data arrives from the wire, the operating system will know that check the data and see if it is targed at this port number. And then it will fill the buffer. And then OS will notify the blocked server application and the server application will get the data and continue to run. Question is: If the above scenario is correct, how could the opearting system know there's data arriving from wire? It cannot be a busy pooling. Is it some kind of interrupt-based mechanism? If there's too much data arriving and the buffer is not big enough, will there be data loss? Is the "listen to a port" operation really a blocking operation? Many thanks.

    Read the article

  • axis-java2wsdl task classpath setting problem

    - by qkrsppopcmpt
    Hey Guys, here is my build.xml <?xml version="1.0" standalone="yes"?> <path id='axis2.classpath'> <fileset dir='D:\Tools\axis2-1.5.1-bin\axis2-1.5.1\lib'> <include name='**/*.jar' /> </fileset> </path> <path id='compiled.class.path'> <fileset dir='./bin/pkg'> <include name='*.class' /> </fileset> </path> <taskdef resource="axis-tasks.properties" classpathref="axis2.classpath" /> <target name="run" > <axis-java2wsdl output="out/TestService.wsdl" location="http://localhost:8080/axis2/service/TestService" namespace="service" classname="TestService"> <classpath refid="compiled.class.path"/> <mapping namespace="TestService" package="pkg"/> </axis-java2wsdl> </target> here is my file structure: prj-bin-pkg-TestService.class/////////// prj-src-pkg-TestService.java/////////// prj-build.xml I get java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: TestService. Can anybody tell me how to fix it? Thanks so much. !!!!!!!!!!!!!

    Read the article

  • How to implement a log window in a web browser?

    - by Jeremy Friesner
    Hi all, I'm interested in adding an HTML/web-browser based "log window" to my net-enabled device. Specifically, my device has a customized web server and an event log, and I'd like to be able to leave a web browser window open to e.g. http://my.devices.ip.address/system_log and have events show up as text in the web browser window as they happen. People could then use this as a quick way to monitor what the system is doing, without needing run any special software. My question is, what is the best way to implement this? I've tried the obvious approach -- just have my device's embedded web server hold the HTTP/TCP connection open indefinitely, and write the necessary text to the TCP socket when an event occurs -- but the problem with that is that most web browsers (e.g. Safari) don't display the web page until the server has closed the TCP connection has been closed, and so the result is that the log data never appears in the web browser, it just acts as if the page is taking forever to load. Is there some trick to make this work? I could implement it as a Java applet, but I'd much prefer something more lightweight/simple, either using only HTML or possibly HTML+JavaScript. Also I'd like to avoid having the web browser 'poll' the server, since that would either introduce too much latency (if the reload delay was large) or put load on the system (if the delay was small)

    Read the article

  • Generated images fail to load in browser

    - by notJim
    I've got a page on a webapp that has about 13 images that are generated by my application, which is written in the Kohana PHP framework. The images are actually graphs. They are cached so they are only generated once, but the first time the user visits the page, and the images all have to be generated, about half of the images don't load in the browser. Once the page has been requested once and images are cached, they all load successfully. Doing some ad-hoc testing, if I load an individual image in the browser, it takes from 450-700 ms to load with an empty cache (I checked this using Google Chrome's resource tracking feature). For reference, it takes around 90-150 ms to load a cached image. Even if the image cache is empty, I have the data and some of the application's startup tasks cached, so that after the first request, none of that data needs to be fetched. My questions are: Why are the images failing to load? It seems like the browser just decides not to download the image after a certain point, rather than waiting for them all to finish loading. What can I do to get them to load the first time, with an empty cache? Obviously one option is to decrease the load times, and I could figure out how to do that by profiling the app, but are there other options? As I mentioned, the app is in the Kohana PHP framework, and it's running on Apache. As an aside, I've solved this problem for now by fetching the page as soon as the data is available (it comes from a batch process), so that the images are always cached by the time the user sees them. That feels like a kludgey solution to me, though, and I'm curious about what's actually going on.

    Read the article

  • tk: how to invoke it just to display something, and return to the main program?

    - by max
    Sorry for the noob question but I really don't understand this. I'm using python / tkinter and I want to display something (say, a canvas with a few shapes on it), and keep it displayed until the program quits. I understand that no widgets would be displayed until I call tkinter.tk.mainloop(). However, if I call tkinter.tk.mainloop(), I won't be able to do anything else until the user closes the main window. I don't need to monitor any user input events, just display some stuff. What's a good way to do this without giving up control to mainloop? EDIT: Is this sample code reasonable: class App(tk.Tk): def __init__(self, sim): self.sim = sim # link to the simulation instance self.loop() def loop(): self.redraw() # update all the GUI to reflect new simulation state sim.next_step() # advance simulation another step self.after(0, self.loop) def redraw(): # get whatever we need from self.sim, and put it on the screen EDIT2 (added after_idle): class App(tk.Tk): def __init__(self, sim): self.sim = sim # link to the simulation instance self.after_idle(self.preloop) def preloop(): self.after(0, self.loop) def loop(): self.redraw() # update all the GUI to reflect new simulation state sim.next_step() # advance simulation another step self.after_idle(self.preloop) def redraw(): # get whatever we need from self.sim, and put it on the screen

    Read the article

  • How do I fix the alpha value after calling GDI text functions?

    - by Daniel Stutzbach
    I have a application that uses the Aero glass effect, so each pixel has an alpha value in addition to red, green, and blue values. I have one custom-draw control that has a solid white background (alpha = 255). I would like to draw solid text on the control using the GDI text functions. However, these functions set the alpha value to an arbitrary value, causing the text to translucently show whatever window is beneath my application's. After calling rendering the text, I would like to go through all of the pixels in the control and set their alpha value back to 255. What's the best way to do that? I haven't had any luck with the BitBlt, GetPixel, and SetPixel functions. They appear to be oblivious to the alpha value. Here are other solutions that I have considered and rejected: Draw to a bitmap, then copy the bitmap to the device: With this approach, the text rendering does not make use of the characteristics of the monitor (e.g., ClearText). Use GDI+ for text rendering: This application originally used GDI+ for text rendering (before I started working on Aero support). I switched to GDI because of difficulties I encountered trying to accurately measure strings with GDI+. I'd rather not switch back. Set the Aero region to avoid the control in question: My application's window is actually a child window of a different application running in a different process. I don't have direct control over the Aero settings on the top-level window. The application is written in C# using Windows Forms, though I'm not above using Interop to call Win32 API functions.

    Read the article

  • As an Agile Java developer, what should I be looking for when hiring a C++ developer?

    - by agoudzwaard
    I come from an effective team of Agile Java developers. We've had a lot of success in hiring more people like ourselves - people passionate about technology with experience primarily in the Agile Java/J2EE space. We're looking to hire our first C++ developer to serve as an on-shore resource for maintaining and adding to the C++ portion of our code base. Up until now the entirety of our C++ development has been done out of an off-shore location. We consider our interview process to be fairly thorough: A phone screen centered on Object-Oriented Programming and Java A non-trivial at-home code project using Java An in-person interview covering technical and behavioral competency We look for a demonstration of Agile best practices (expressive code, test-driven development, continuous integration) throughout the entire process, however there is a common conception that Agility is primarily practiced by Java developers. If we retrofit our interview process for C++, should we still expect Agile qualities when interviewing for a C++ role? I'm asking on behalf of a team that has worked with Java too long to know what a good C++ developer looks like. Specifically we're looking to answer the following questions: Can we expect a demonstrated understanding of OO design and Separation of Concerns? In the code project we want the candidate to write unit tests. Would a good C++ developer be surprised by this expectation? Are there any "extra" competencies we can look for? For example with Java developers we always look for a familiarity with Dependency Injection.

    Read the article

  • Transferring HashMap between client and server using Sockets (JAVA)

    - by sar
    I am working on a JAVA project in which there are multiple terminals. These terminals act as client and servers. For example if there are 3 terminals A,B and C.Then at any given point in time one of them say A, will be a client making broadcast request. The other two terminals, B and C, will reply. I am using sockets to make them communicate. Once the reply is received from all the other terminals A will check the pool of channels to see if any one of the channel is free. It takes up the free channel and making it availabilty false. The channelpool is implemented using HashMAp: HashMap channelpool = new HashMap(); channelpool = 1=true, 2=true, 3=false, 4=true, 5=true, 6=true, 7=true, 8=true, 9=true, 10=true So initially all the channels are true, any terminal can take any channel. But once the channel is taken it is set to false for the period of use and then reset to true. Now this Hashmap has to be shared among the distributed terminals. Also it should be kept up to date. I can not used a shared resource among the terminals to store the HashMap.Can someone tell me an easy way to transfer the HashMap between the terminals. I will appreciate if someone could point me to a website which discusses this.

    Read the article

  • WPF ObservableCollection in xaml

    - by Cloverness
    Hi, I have created an ObservableCollection in the code behind of a user control. It is created when the window loads: private void UserControl_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { Entities db = new Entities(); ObservableCollection<Image> _imageCollection = new ObservableCollection<Image>(); IEnumerable<library> libraryQuery = from c in db.ElectricalLibraries select c; foreach (ElectricalLibrary c in libraryQuery) { Image finalImage = new Image(); finalImage.Width = 80; BitmapImage logo = new BitmapImage(); logo.BeginInit(); logo.UriSource = new Uri(c.url); logo.EndInit(); finalImage.Source = logo; _imageCollection.Add(finalImage); } } I need to get the ObservableCollection of images which are created based on the url saved in a database. But I need a ListView or other ItemsControl to bind to it in XAML file like this: But I can't figure it out how to pass the ObservableCollection to the ItemsSource of that control. I tried to create a class and then create an instance of a class in xaml file but it did not work. Should I create a static resource somehow Any help will be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Problem Routing domains subfolder

    - by hkda150
    Hi there, I'm pretty new to ASP.NET MVC and I hope it is not a too silly question. So here it comes. I have ... a ASP.NET MVC application with a domain similar to http://mydomain/mysubfoler1/myappfolder My problem... The problem for me is the routing of my application (it worked fine without using a subfolder after the domain-name). The applications homepage loads not to bad, with css files but without ressources like images (defined in css files) and without jQuery ajax calls similar to /mycontroller/myaction links are only working once (the second time I get a page similar to this link: http://mydomain/mysubfoler1/myappfolder/myController/myController/myAction) Here's my Global.asax contaning the routing: public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", "{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "myController", action = "Index", id = "" } defaults ); routes.MapRoute( "Root", "", new { controller = "myController", action = "Index", id = "" } ); } protected void Application_Start() { ViewEngines.Engines.Clear(); ViewEngines.Engines.Add(new MyApplicationWeb.LocalizationWebFormViewEngine()); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); //RouteDebug.RouteDebugger.RewriteRoutesForTesting(RouteTable.Routes); } Any suggestions? My first suggestion was to use areas like: "mysubfolder1/myappfolder/{controller}/{action}/{id}" (but without any luck) Thank you very much for your help!

    Read the article

  • WP7: Why does a ListBox.ItemsPanel break my ElementName data binding?

    - by iguanaNet
    I have a Windows Phone 7 ListBox that binds to a list of integers. I am using the default MVVM Light template, so there is a ViewModel class that contains data and a simple RelayCommand. Here is the ListBox: <ListBox ItemsSource="{Binding MyData}"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Button Content="{Binding}"> <i:Interaction.Triggers> <i:EventTrigger EventName="Click"> <cmd:EventToCommand Command="{Binding ElementName=ContentGrid, Path=DataContext.TestCommand}" CommandParameter="{Binding}" /> </i:EventTrigger> </i:Interaction.Triggers> </Button> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> This displays a vertical list of integers inside buttons. If you click any of them, the following command code executes and shows a pop-up: new RelayCommand<int>(i => MessageBox.Show("Test" + i)); However, if I simply add the following XAML to change to a horizontal list, the databinding fails. Nothing happens when you click the button and no error messages are written to the Output window. <ListBox.ItemsPanel> <ItemsPanelTemplate> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal" HorizontalAlignment="Center" /> </ItemsPanelTemplate> </ListBox.ItemsPanel> I have tried some other types of binding for the EventToCommand. For example, specifying my ViewModel as a static resource. It works, but is less ideal than the example above. Why does that ItemsPanel break the databinding?

    Read the article

  • useer degined Copy ctor, and copy-ctors further down the chain - compiler bug ? programers brainbug

    - by J.Colmsee
    Hi. i have a little problem, and I am not sure if it's a compiler bug, or stupidity on my side. I have this struct : struct BulletFXData { int time_next_fx_counter; int next_fx_steps; Particle particles[2];//this is the interesting one ParticleManager::ParticleId particle_id[2]; }; The member "Particle particles[2]" has a self-made kind of smart-ptr in it (resource-counted texture-class). this smart-pointer has a default constructor, that initializes to the ptr to 0 (but that is not important) I also have another struct, containing the BulletFXData struct : struct BulletFX { BulletFXData data; BulletFXRenderFunPtr render_fun_ptr; BulletFXUpdateFunPtr update_fun_ptr; BulletFXExplosionFunPtr explode_fun_ptr; BulletFXLifetimeOverFunPtr lifetime_over_fun_ptr; BulletFX( BulletFXData data, BulletFXRenderFunPtr render_fun_ptr, BulletFXUpdateFunPtr update_fun_ptr, BulletFXExplosionFunPtr explode_fun_ptr, BulletFXLifetimeOverFunPtr lifetime_over_fun_ptr) :data(data), render_fun_ptr(render_fun_ptr), update_fun_ptr(update_fun_ptr), explode_fun_ptr(explode_fun_ptr), lifetime_over_fun_ptr(lifetime_over_fun_ptr) { } /* //USER DEFINED copy-ctor. if it's defined things go crazy BulletFX(const BulletFX& rhs) :data(data),//this line of code seems to do a plain memory-copy without calling the right ctors render_fun_ptr(render_fun_ptr), update_fun_ptr(update_fun_ptr), explode_fun_ptr(explode_fun_ptr), lifetime_over_fun_ptr(lifetime_over_fun_ptr) { } */ }; If i use the user-defined copy-ctor my smart-pointer class goes crazy, and it seems that calling the CopyCtor / assignment operator aren't called as they should. So - does this all make sense ? it seems as if my own copy-ctor of struct BulletFX should do exactly what the compiler-generated would, but it seems to forget to call the right constructors down the chain. compiler bug ? me being stupid ? Sorry about the big code, some small example could have illustrated too. but often you guys ask for the real code, so well - here it is :D

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 399 400 401 402 403 404 405 406 407 408 409 410  | Next Page >