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  • Dismount USB External Drive using powershell

    - by JC
    Hello, I am attempting to dismount an external USB drive using powershell and I cannot successfuly do this. The following script is what I use: #get the Win32Volume object representing the volume I wish to eject $drive = Get-WmiObject Win32_Volume -filter "DriveLetter = 'F:'" #call dismount on that object there by ejecting drive $drive.Dismount($Force , $Permanent) I then check my computer to check if drive is unmounted but it is now. The boolean parameters $force and $permanent have been tried with different permutations to no avail. The exit code returned by the dismount command changes when the params are toggled. (0,0) = exit code 0 (0,1) = exit code 2 (1,0) = exit code 0 (1,1) = exit code 2 The documentation for exit code 2 indicates that there are existing mount points as a reason why it cannot dismount. Although I am trying to dismount the only mount point that exists so I am unsure what this exit code is trying to tell me. Having already trawled the web for people experiencing similar problems I have only found one additional command to try and that is the following: # executed after the .Dismount() command $drive.Put() This additional command does not help. I am running out of things to try, so any assistance anyone can give me would be greatly appreciated, Thanks.

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  • Registry remotley hacked win 7 need help tracking the perp

    - by user577229
    I was writing some .VBS code at thhe office that would allow certain file extensions to be downloaded without a warning dialog on a w7x32 system. The system I was writing this on is in a lab on a segmented subnet. All web access is via a proxy server. The only means of accessing my machine is via the internet or from within the labs MSFT AD domain. While writing and testing my code I found a message of sorts. Upon refresing the registry to verify my code changed a dword, instead the message HELLO was written and visible in regedit where the dword value wass called for. I took a screen shot and proceeded to edit my code. This same weird behavior occurred last time I was writing registry code except on another internal server. I understand that remote registry access exists for windows systems. I will block this immediately once I return to the office. What I want to know is, can I trace who made this connection? How would I do this? I suspect the cause of this is the cause of other "odd" behaviors I'm experiencing at work such as losing control of my input director master control for over an hour and unchanged code that all of a sudden fails for no logical region. These failures occur at funny times, whenver I'm about to give a demonstration of my test code. I know this sounds crazy however knowledge of the registry component makes this believable. Once the registry can be accessed, the entire system is compromised. Any help or sanity checking is appreciated.

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  • Installing Linux on a Windows 8.1 laptop

    - by nicoX
    I would like to clean install a linux distribution as Ubuntu etc. My laptop that runs Windows 8.1. I have two options in mind. Clean install or dual boot. My technical question is: my laptop have a 8GB SSD drive, which it uses to boot Windows with and a 500GB for storage. I wonder what that 8GB SSD stores? It can't store the whole Windows install as that would be much more than 8GB. Also if I would do a clean install of Ubuntu could I use the 8GB SSD to have Ubuntu boot up quicker. How would I install it. Option two, if I would like to dual boot, how would I proceed having the SSD to boot both systems? I also wish to ask about the Legacy and UEFI differences. Windows runs with UEFI. So when I'm installing Linux, should I run Legacy, and if I dual boot, what option to I choose?

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  • SVN client too old after I used sshfs

    - by johnlai2004
    I have a svn checked out web application on a shared hosting linux server. The linux server has an svn client that I can access via ssh. From my localhost, I did the following > sshfs [email protected]:webappdir/ /media/webapp > cd /media/webapp > svn update svn: Working copy '.' locked svn: run 'svn cleanup' to remove locks (type 'svn help cleanup' for details) > svn clean up It's been 15 minutes and the svn clean up still isn't finished. I think it may have froze. So then I did the following: > ssh [email protected] > cd webappdir > svn update svn: This client is too old to work with working copy '.'; please get a newer Subversion client So now I can't update my webappdir because my /media/webapp is stuck on svn clean up, and my shared hosting server's svn client is out of date. I don't have privileges to install a new svn client on the shared hosting server. How do I get my svn update to work?

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  • Backup Picasa 'people' tags data

    - by pelms
    OK, so I've spent a fair amount of time putting names to faces in Picasa 3.5 but in a few days (hopefully) my copy of Windows 7 should arrive and I'll need to reinstall Windows. So, does anyone know what I need to backup so that I don't have to re-enter all those name tags? N.B. I'm on Windows 7 RC and know that I don't have to do a clean reinstall but I would prefer to. Outcome: I clean installed Windows 7 and downloaded and installed Picasa. Unfortunately, the download link on the UK Picasa homepage still pointed to Picasa 3.0 (rather than 3.5) which doesn't have face recognition. This scanned my photos folders and overwrote the picasa.ini files along with the people information   :¬( Fortunately I'd backed up the photos before installing Win 7, so after uninstalling Picasa 3.0 (along with it's database), restoring the photos from backup and installing Picasa 3.5, I finally got my face names back. Extra... Google has now posted advice on how to migrate to Windows 7 and keep your Picasa database, meaning that it will not need to rescan you photos and will retain all information about then including name tags. They have a method for upgrading and for a clean install of Win 7. Basically you need to back up: "C:\Users\%username%\AppData\Local\Google\Picasa2" and "C:\Users\%username%\AppData\Local\Google\Picasa2Albums"

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  • Why is there an extra HDD under /dev being added in my Linux Kernel?

    - by user1279156
    I have created a Linux kernel and for some reason an extra drive is always added at bootup. My hard drive is listed as /dev/sdb. /dev/sda is created too, and it is 8 MB in size. I can't find anything in the kernel config that is creating this, but if I use a different kernel it is not there. Kernel logs show it as an attached SCSI device, looks just like my hard drive but only 8 MB, and has no partition table. It also doesn't appear to be a physical device. I've tried the kernel on many different models of PCs and it is always there. Does anyone know how to remove it? /dev/disk/by-id gives me: scsi-1AMCC_U21413034D98EB000584 scsi-1AMCC_U21413034D98EB000584-part1 scsi-353333330000007d0 scsi-SATA_ST3250312AS_5VY7SH42 scsi-SATA_WDC_WD800JD-60L_WD-WMAM9Y085675 scsi-SATA_WDC_WD800JD-60L_WD-WMAM9Y085675-part1 scsi-SATA_WDC_WD800JD-60L_WD-WMAM9Y085675-part2 hdparm -i /dev/sda gives me an "invalid argument". dd if=/dev/sda of=sda.img the resulting file does not have any content sdparm results: /dev/sda: Linux scsi_debug 0004 Device identification VPD page: Addressed logical unit: designator type: T10 vendor identification, code set: ASCII vendor id: Linux vendor specific: scsi_debug 2000 designator type: NAA, code set: Binary 0x53333330000007d0 Target port: designator type: Relative target port, code set: Binary transport: Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) Relative target port: 0x1 designator type: NAA, code set: Binary transport: Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) 0x52222220000007ce designator type: Target port group, code set: Binary transport: Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) Target port group: 0x100 Target device that contains addressed lu: designator type: NAA, code set: Binary transport: Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) 0x52222220000007cd designator type: SCSI name string, code set: UTF-8 transport: Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) SCSI name string: naa.52222220000007CD

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  • Powershell Script to help archive company email

    - by sec_goat
    I am attempting to use powershell to gather emails that pertain to a certain subject, so that these correspondences might be turned over to a legal department. I am having a couple of issues here that I would like some assistance getting past. I run the following command: get-mailbox -Database "Mailbox Database" | Export-Mailbox -ContentKeywords "Keywords To Search" -TargetMailbox "sec_goat" -TargetFolder EmailSearch -StartDate "01/13/2011 12:01:00 This has pretty much done what I want, and returned a boat load of emails, however it has also flooded my inbox with hundreds of blank calendars and contact lists. I realize now I should have used the exclusion on these folders, as well as a test environment (which we don't have). 1.How can I clean up this script to not include all the blank folders, contacts and calendars that DO NOT match the keywords search? 2.How do I clean up hundreds of blank contact lists and calendars in my mailbox without right clicking and deleting each one? EDIT: I edited the post to change the scope of the question. I think my focus is less on the legal perspective and more on the "How can I clean up my mess and make future archives less messy and painful?"

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  • Faster caching method

    - by pataroulis
    I have a service that provides HTML code which at some point it is not updated anymore. The code is always generated dynamically from a database with 10 million entries so each HTML code page rendering searches there for say 60 or 70 of those entries and then renders the page. So, for those expired pages, I want to use a caching system which will be VERY simple (like just enter a record with the rendered HTML and (if I need) remove it). I tried to do it file-based but the search for the existence of a file and then passing it through php to actually render it , seems like too much for what I want to do. I was thinking of doing it on mysql with a table with MEDIUMBLOBs (each page is around 100k). It would hold about 150000 such records (for now, at least). My question is: Would it be faster to let mysql do the lookup of the file and the passing to php or is the file-based approach faster? The lookup code for the file based version looks like this: $page = @file_get_contents(getCacheFilename($pageId)); if($page!=NULL) { echo $page; } else { renderAndCachePage($pageId); } which does one lookup whether it finds the file or not. The mysql table would just have an ID (the page id) and the blob entry. The disk of the system is a simple SATA raid 1 , the mysql daemon can grab up to 2.5GB of memory (i have a proxy running too, eating the rest of the 16GB of the machine. ) In general the disk is quite busy already. My not using PEAR cache, is because I think (please feel free to correct me on this) it adds overhead I do not need because the page rendering code is called about 2M times per day and I wouldn't want to go through the whole code each time (and yes, I have eaccelerator to cache the code too). Any pointer to what direction I should go, would be greatly welcome. Thanks!

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  • Cannot find protocol declaration in Xcode

    - by edie
    Hi.. I've experienced something today while I'm building my app. I've added a protocol in my object and assign delegate object on it. I added the protocol on the object that will implement the protocol's method. I've added it in this way as usual @interface MyObject : UIViewController <NameOfDelegate> But the Xcode says that my the protocol declaration cannot be found. I've check my code but I've declared this protocol. I've try to assign MyObject as delegate of other Object. I've edit my code like this @interface MyObject : UIViewController <UITableViewDelegate,NameOfDelegate> but Xcode say again that it cannot found declaration of protocol of NameOfDelegate. I've tried to delete the NameOfDelegate on my code and add assign MyObject as delegate of other object and it goes like this. @interface MyObject : UIViewController <UITableViewDelegate,UITabBarDelegate> No errors have been found. Then I've tried again to add again my NameOfDelegate in the code @interface MyObject : UIViewController <UITableViewDelegate,UITabBarDelegate,NameOfDelegate> At that time Xcode did not find any error on my code. So I tried again to remove the UITableViewDelegate and UITabBarDelegate on my code. @interface MyObject : UIViewController <NameOfDelegate> At that time No error had found but that was the same code I've write before. What should probably the cause of that stuff on my code? Thanks...

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  • Using QTDesigner with PyQT and Python 2.6

    - by PyNewbie27
    Hi. I'm fairly new to Python and trying to work with the latest versions of QTDesigner, PyQT 4.7 and QT4.7 (I downloaded the whole package from PyQT4.7 website). I can't figure out how to make QTDesigner integrate closely with Python: ie. If I select "Form" View Code in QTDesigners menu, it errors saying "Unable to launch C:/Python26/Lib/site-packages/PyQT4/bin\uic." If I look in that directory there is a pyuic.py but not "uic". From searching online it seems this doesn't exist because it's expecting a C++ install instead of the python version. Is there anyway to make QTDesigner use/call pyuic.py to generate the code, then open an IDE or text editor of my choice to show me the PYTHON code generated by the QTDesigner-PyUIC chain? I'd like Designer to integrate closely with python, so I can make custom slots/signals in Designer while designing, then tweak the python code directly in my IDE later. If it is not possible to code directly inside QTDesigner using python, does that mean I have to hand code my programs entire UI directly in my PythonIDE? Using Designer directly would seemingly be nearly very very nice for a newbie such as myself, since I can see what properties each widget has and visually edit them while still learning the QT syntax without constantly having to use web resources to see what properties each widget should have and helps with boilerplate code generation, and what their defaults are, etc. I've googled and nobody seems to be using QTDesigner and Python in this manner together. It seems most are either handcoding all the QT code in their Python IDE of choice, or have found an obvious/easy method of doing what I want, therefore not really producing up to date tutorials on making this work together. Please enlighten me if you can. Thanks in advance for your time. Please include any suggestions you might have to a newbie trying to use Python with QT and QTDesigner. Thank you.

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  • JPA Lookup Hierarchy Mapping

    - by Andy Trujillo
    Given a lookup table: | ID | TYPE | CODE | DESCRIPTION | | 1 | ORDER_STATUS | PENDING | PENDING DISPOSITION | | 2 | ORDER_STATUS | OPEN | AWAITING DISPOSITION | | 3 | OTHER_STATUS | OPEN | USED BY OTHER ENTITY | If I have an entity: @MappedSuperclass @Table(name="LOOKUP") @Inheritance(strategy=InheritanceType.SINGLE_TABLE) @DiscriminatorColumn(name="TYPE", discriminatorType=DiscriminatorType.STRING) public abstract class Lookup { @Id @Column(name="ID") int id; @Column(name="TYPE") String type; @Column(name="CODE") String code; @Column(name="DESC") String description; ... } Then a subclass: @Entity @DiscriminatorValue("ORDER_STATUS") public class OrderStatus extends Lookup { } The expectation is to map it: @Entity @Table(name="ORDERS") public class OrderVO { ... @ManyToOne @JoinColumn(name="STATUS", referencedColumnName="CODE") OrderStatus status; ... } So that the CODE is stored in the database. I expected that if I wrote: OrderVO o = entityManager.find(OrderVO.class, 123); the SQL generated using OpenJPA would look something like: SELECT t0.id, ..., t1.CODE, t1.TYPE, t1.DESC FROM ORDERS t0 LEFT OUTER JOIN LOOKUP t1 ON t0.STATUS = t1.CODE AND t1.TYPE = 'ORDER_STATUS' WHERE t0.ID = ? But the actual SQL that gets generated is missing the AND t1.TYPE = 'ORDER_STATUS' This causes a problem when the CODE is not unique. Is there a way to have the discriminator included on joins or am I doing something wrong here?

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  • Print raw data to a thermal-printer using .NET

    - by blauesocke
    I'm trying to print out raw ascii data to a thermal printer. I do this by using this code example: http://support.microsoft.com/kb/322091 but my printer prints always only one character and this not until I press the form feed button. If I print something with notepad the printer will do a form feed automatically but without printing any text. The printer is connected via usb over a lpt2usb adapter and Windows 7 uses the "Generic - Generic / Text Only" driver. Anyone knows what is going wrong? How is it possible to print some words and do some form feeds? Are there some control characters I have to send? And if yes: How do I send them? Edit 14.04.2010 21:51 My code (C#) looks like this: PrinterSettings s = new PrinterSettings(); s.PrinterName = "Generic / Text Only"; RawPrinterHelper.SendStringToPrinter(s.PrinterName, "Test"); This code will return a "T" after I pressed the form feed button (This litte black button here: swissmania.ch/images/935-151.jpg - sorry, not enough reputation for two hyperlinks) Edit 15.04.2010 16:56 I'm using now the code form here: c-sharpcorner.com/UploadFile/johnodonell/PrintingDirectlytothePrinter11222005001207AM/PrintingDirectlytothePrinter.aspx I modified it a bit that I can use the following code: byte[] toSend; // 10 = line feed // 13 carriage return/form feed toSend = new byte[1] { 13 }; PrintDirect.WritePrinter(lhPrinter, toSend, toSend.Length, ref pcWritten); Running this code has the same effekt like pressing the form feed button, it works fine! But code like this still does not work: byte[] toSend; // 10 = line feed // 13 carriage return/form feed toSend = new byte[2] { 66, 67 }; PrintDirect.WritePrinter(lhPrinter, toSend, toSend.Length, ref pcWritten); This will print out just a "B" but I expect "BC" and after running any code I have to reconnect the USB cable to make it work agian. Any ideas?

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  • TDD vs. Unit testing

    - by Walter
    My company is fairly new to unit testing our code. I've been reading about TDD and unit testing for some time and am convinced of their value. I've attempted to convince our team that TDD is worth the effort of learning and changing our mindsets on how we program but it is a struggle. Which brings me to my question(s). There are many in the TDD community who are very religious about writing the test and then the code (and I'm with them), but for a team that is struggling with TDD does a compromise still bring added benefits? I can probably succeed in getting the team to write unit tests once the code is written (perhaps as a requirement for checking in code) and my assumption is that there is still value in writing those unit tests. What's the best way to bring a struggling team into TDD? And failing that is it still worth writing unit tests even if it is after the code is written? EDIT What I've taken away from this is that it is important for us to start unit testing, somewhere in the coding process. For those in the team who pickup the concept, start to move more towards TDD and testing first. Thanks for everyone's input. FOLLOW UP We recently started a new small project and a small portion of the team used TDD, the rest wrote unit tests after the code. After we wrapped up the coding portion of the project, those writing unit tests after the code were surprised to see the TDD coders already done and with more solid code. It was a good way to win over the skeptics. We still have a lot of growing pains ahead, but the battle of wills appears to be over. Thanks for everyone who offered advice!

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  • How to compile Python scripts for use in FORTRAN?

    - by Vincent Poirier
    Hello, Although I found many answers and discussions about this question, I am unable to find a solution particular to my situation. Here it is: I have a main program written in FORTRAN. I have been given a set of python scripts that are very useful. My goal is to access these python scripts from my main FORTRAN program. Currently, I simply call the scripts from FORTRAN as such: CALL SYSTEM ('python pyexample.py') Data is read from .dat files and written to .dat files. This is how the python scripts and the main FORTRAN program communicate to each other. I am currently running my code on my local machine. I have python installed with numpy, scipy, etc. My problem: The code needs to run on a remote server. For strictly FORTRAN code, I compile the code locally and send the executable to the server where it waits in a queue. However, the server does not have python installed. The server is being used as a number crunching station between universities and industry. Installing python along with the necessary modules on the server is not an option. This means that my “CALL SYSTEM ('python pyexample.py')” strategy no longer works. Solution?: I found some information on a couple of things in thread http://stackoverflow.com/questions/138521/is-it-feasible-to-compile-python-to-machine-code Shedskin, Psyco, Cython, Pypy, Cpython API These “modules”(? Not sure if that's what to call them) seem to compile python script to C code or C++. Apparently not all python features can be translated to C. As well, some of these appear to be experimental. Is it possible to compile my python scripts with my FORTRAN code? There exists f2py which converts FORTRAN code to python, but it doesn't work the other way around. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thank you for your time. Vincent PS: I'm using python 2.6 on Ubuntu

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  • PHP: Array of objects is empty when I come to retrieve one from the array

    - by Tom
    Good morning, I am trying to load rows from a database and then create objects from them and add these objects to a private array. Here are my classes: <?php include("databaseconnect.php"); class stationItem { private $code = ''; private $description = ''; public function setCode($code ){ $this->code = $code; } public function getCode(){ return $this->code; } public function setDescription($description){ $this->description = $description; } public function getDescription(){ return $this->description; } } class stationList { private $stationListing; function __construct() { connect(); $stationListing = array(); $result = mysql_query('SELECT * FROM stations'); while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)) { $station = new stationItem(); $station->setCode($row['code']); $station->setDescription($row['description']); array_push($stationListing, $station); } mysql_free_result($result); } public function getStation($index){ return $stationListing[$index]; } } ?> As you can see I am creating a stationItem object per database row (which for now has a code and description) and I then push these on to the end of my array which is held as a private variable in stationList. This is code which creates this classes and attempts to access the properties on them: $stations = new stationList(); $station = $stations->getStation(0); echo $station->getCode(); I am finding that the sizeof($stationList) at the end of the constructor is 1 but then it is zero when we come to try to get an object from the array using the index. Therefore the error that I get is: Fatal error: Call to a member function getCode() on a non-object Please can someone explain to me why this is happening? I guess I am misunderstanding how object references work in PHP5.

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  • Someone is using the struct name as a variable name too. What does the code really say? (c++)

    - by EvilTeach
    This morning we found an old chunk of code that was causing a library call to crash. struct fred { int a; int b; int c; }; fred fred[MAX_SIZE+1]; memset( fred, 0, sizeof(fred) * MAX_SIZE+1 ); It appears that the sizeof(fred) may have been the full array size, rather than the structure size, as it was overwriting a great deal of memory. The fact that it compiled without warning on several different systems seemed odd. Is there a correct semantic for this case where the type and variable name are colliding? or is this some sort of undefined behavior? or just a defect? I haven't been been clever enough to find anything on Google or our language help. Thanks Evil

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  • Suppress Eclipse compiler errors in in a plug-in

    - by Jan Gorzny
    Hi, I'm currently working on a plug-in for Eclipse that translates some custom Java code (which doesn't necessarily run/compile), to runnable Java code. In particular, the plug-in allows code to be written using classes created or imported during the translation. In general, the pre-translation code runs/compiles fine provided the writer uses import statements at the top of their class files. However, it would be convenient for my users if it was not necessary to import these classes. At the moment, the lack of import statements results in (obvious) compiler errors. Would it be possible to empower my plug-in to either a) suppress/ignore these errors, or b) have Eclipse find these classes automatically, without the use of import statements? I should point out that the translated code would these include the required import statements--but this is not a problem for me. I'm also aware that this could lead to lazy programmers and some bad habits. To clarify, consider the following example of pre-translated code: File f = new File("Somefilename.txt"); which clearly requires the possibly imported class File. Without an import statement (import java.io.File;), Eclipse reports that File can not be resolved to a type. This is the error I'd like to hide in files pertaining to projects created for use with my plug-in. (The translated code would include import java.io.File; so that it would be runnable) In closing, I should point out I'm not necessarily looking for code (though I wouldn't be opposed to it), but rather some links to some relevant tutorials (if they exist), or helpful tips/ideas. Also, as this is my first plug-in, it's entirely possible that what I'd like to do is not possible and that I don't realize it--if this is the case, please let me know, preferably with some justification. Thanks!

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  • Version Control and Coding Formatting

    - by Martin Giffy D'Souza
    Hi, I'm currently part of the team implementing a new version control system (Subversion) within my organization. There's been a bit of a debate on how to handle code formatting and I'd like to get other peoples opinions and experiences on this topic. We currently have ~10 developers each using different tools (due to licensing and preference). Some of these tools have automatic code formatters and others don't. If we allow "blind" checkins the code will look drastically different each time someone does a check in. This will make things such as diffs and merges complicated. I've talked to several people and they've mentioned the following solutions: Use the same developer program with the same code formatter (not really an option due to licensing) Have a hook (either client or server side) which will automatically format the code before going into the repository Manually format the code. Regarding the 3rd point, the concept is to never auto-format the code and have some standards. Right now that seems to be what we're leaning towards. I'm a bit hesitant on that approach as it could lead to developers spending a lot of time manually formatting code. If anyone can please provide some their thoughts and experience on this that would be great. Thank you, Martin

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  • Inserting script from jQuery / Javascript

    - by Colby77
    Hi, I'm trying to insert reCaptcha code into my page from jQuery, but it doesn't work. Here is my code: $("#button").click(function() { $("#loginBox").html($.getRecaptcha()); }) When I try the following, my code doesn't even run. I think it's trying to execute instead of rendering it. $.getRecaptcha = function(){ return '<script type="text/javascript"' + 'src="http://api.recaptcha.net/challenge?' + 'k=6Ld3iAsAAAAAAGyX8QT244GagPEpCDSD-96o4gEi"></script>'; } With the following, the code runs, but when I click to #button I get an empty, full white browser window. $.getRecaptcha = function(){ var captcha = $("<script>") .attr("type", "text/javascript") .attr("src", "http://api.recaptcha.net/challenge?k=6Ld3iAsAAAAAAGyX8QT244GagPEpCDSD-96o4gEi"); return captcha; } I don't want to insert reCaptcha code into my html from the beginning, because it downloads the reCaptcha content from the reCaptcha server even if my users don't want to use it. I could set the visibility of the container that holds the reCaptcha to invisible (display: none;), but it will dowload the content irrespectively of it. I can insert the "noScript" code that reCaptcha gives us, but it doesn't work either, because it can spot that the browser allow javascript but I use noScript. Any suggestions? (I know I put my public reCaptcha key into the code, but it is just for testing purposes, and you could get it from my html or javascript code anyway)

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  • Oracle syntax - should we have to choose between the old and the new?

    - by Martin Milan
    Hi, I work on a code base in the region of about 1'000'000 lines of source, in a team of around eight developers. Our code is basically an application using an Oracle database, but the code has evolved over time (we have plenty of source code from the mid nineties in there!). A dispute has arisen amongst the team over the syntax that we are using for querying the Oracle database. At the moment, the overwhelming majority of our queries use the "old" Oracle Syntax for joins, meaning we have code that looks like this... Example of Inner Join select customers.*, orders.date, orders.value from customers, orders where customers.custid = orders.custid Example of Outer Join select customers.custid, contacts.ContactName, contacts.ContactTelNo from customers, contacts where customers.custid = contacts.custid(+) As new developers have joined the team, we have noticed that some of them seem to prefer using SQL-92 queries, like this: Example of Inner Join select customers.*, orders.date, orders.value from customers inner join orders on (customers.custid = orders.custid) Example of Outer Join select customers.custid, contacts.ContactName, contacts.ContactTelNo from customers left join contacts on (customers.custid = contacts.custid) Group A say that everyone should be using the the "old" syntax - we have lots of code in this format, and we ought to value consistency. We don't have time to go all the way through the code now rewriting database queries, and it wouldn't pay us if we had. They also point out that "this is the way we've always done it, and we're comfortable with it..." Group B however say that they agree that we don't have the time to go back and change existing queries, we really ought to be adopting the "new" syntax on code that we write from here on in. They say that developers only really look at a single query at a time, and that so long as developers know both syntax there is nothing to be gained from rigidly sticking to the old syntax, which might be deprecated at some point in the future. Without declaring with which group my loyalties lie, I am interested in hearing the opinions of impartial observers - so let the games commence! Martin. Ps. I've made this a community wiki so as not to be seen as just blatantly chasing after question points...

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  • database design suggestion needed

    - by JMSA
    I need to design a table for daily sales of pharmaceutical products. There are hundreds of types of products available {Name, code}. Thousands of sales-persons are employed to sell those products{name, code}. They collect products from different depots{name, code}. They work in different Areas - Zones - Markets - Outlets, etc. {All have names and codes} Each product has various types of prices {Production Price, Trade Price, Business Price, Discount Price, etc.}. And, sales-persons are free to choose from those combination to estimate the sales price. The problem is, daily sales requires huge amount of data-entry. Within couple of years there may be gigabytes of data (if not terabytes). If I need to show daily, weekly, monthly, quarterly and yearly sales reports there will be various types of sql queries I shall need. This is my initial design: Product {ID, Code, Name, IsActive} ProductXYZPriceHistory {ID, ProductID, Date, EffectDate, Price, IsCurrent} SalesPerson {ID, Code, Name, JoinDate, and so on..., IsActive} SalesPersonSalesAraeaHistory {ID, SalesPersonID, SalesAreaID, IsCurrent} Depot {ID, Code, Name, IsActive} Outlet {ID, Code, Name, AreaID, IsActive} AreaHierarchy {ID, Code, Name, PrentID, AreaLevel, IsActive} DailySales {ID, ProductID, SalesPersonID, OutletID, Date, PriceID, SalesPrice, Discount, etc...} Now, apart from indexing, how can I normalize my DailySales table to have a fine grained design that I shall not need to change for years to come? Please show me a sample design of only the DailySales data-entry table (from which all types of reports would be queried) on the basis of above information. I don't need a detailed design advice. I just need an advice regarding only the DailySales table. Is there any way to break this particular table to achieve granularity?

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  • jQuery issue with anchor tag using jqTransform

    - by James Helms
    I'm using jqtransform on my site. When the user is on a for them to be able to use hot keys to move through the selections. I added this function: $wrapper.find('a').keydown(function (e) { var Esc = 27; var code = (e.keyCode ? e.keyCode : e.which); if(code== Esc || (code>=65 &&code<=90)){ var letter = String.fromCharCode(code); if (code==Esc) keyCodes = ""; else{ if (keyCodes=='') keyCodes += letter; else keyCodes += letter.toLowerCase(); var item = $wrapper.find('a[text^=\'' + keyCodes + '\']:first'); item.click(); } } }); inside of $.fn.jqTransSelect. This code works fine in all browsers but IE. the only thing i can find is that IE doesn't like the click event. Can anyone please help me with this? If i debug into the code I can see that item is a select not an anchor like i would expect it to be, and that confuses me even more.

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  • Why does this extension method throw a NullReferenceException in VB.NET?

    - by Dan
    From previous experience I had been under the impression that it's perfectly legal (though perhaps not advisable) to call extension methods on a null instance. So in C#, this code compiles and runs: // code in static class static bool IsNull(this object obj) { return obj == null; } // code elsewhere object x = null; bool exists = !x.IsNull(); However, I was just putting together a little suite of example code for the other members of my development team (we just upgraded to .NET 3.5 and I've been assigned the task of getting the team up to speed on some of the new features available to us), and I wrote what I thought was the VB.NET equivalent of the above code, only to discover that it actually throws a NullReferenceException. The code I wrote was this: ' code in module ' <Extension()> _ Function IsNull(ByVal obj As Object) As Boolean Return obj Is Nothing End Function ' code elsewhere ' Dim exampleObject As Object = Nothing Dim exists As Boolean = Not exampleObject.IsNull() The debugger stops right there, as if I'd called an instance method. Am I doing something wrong (e.g., is there some subtle difference in the way I defined the extension method between C# and VB.NET)? Is it actually not legal to call an extension method on a null instance in VB.NET, though it's legal in C#? (I would have thought this was a .NET thing as opposed to a language-specific thing, but perhaps I was wrong.) Can anybody explain this one to me?

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  • merging two small pieces of jquery codes

    - by Billa
    Following are two pieces of jquery code. First one prints a text message when clicked on a link, and the second slides down a div when click on a link. I want to merge second code into first one, so that when I click the link, it displays the message (as the first code does), and also slides down the #votebox (as done in second code, and show content in that. I will be very thankful for any help. $("a.vote_up").click(function(){ the_id = $(this).attr('id'); $("span#votes_count"+the_id).fadeOut("fast"); $.ajax({ type: "POST", data: "action=vote_up&id="+$(this).attr("id"), url: "votes.php", success: function(msg) { $("span#votes_up"+the_id).fadeOut(); $("span#votes_up"+the_id).html(msg); $("span#votes_up"+the_id).fadeIn(); //Here, I want to slide down the votebox and content div (from code below). } }); }); The following code slides down votebox div and displays content in it, I want to include that in the above code. $("a.vote_up").click(function(){ var id=$(this).attr("id"); var name=$(this).attr("name"); var dataString = 'id='+ id + '&name='+ name; //I want to include this votebox in above code. $("#votebox").slideDown("slow"); $("#flash").fadeIn("slow"); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "rating.php", data: dataString, cache: false, success: function(html){ $("#flash").fadeOut("slow"); //and want to use this div as well. $("#content").html(html); } }); }); Thanks for any help.

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  • Generate syntax tree for simple math operations

    - by M28
    I am trying to generate a syntax tree, for a given string with simple math operators (+, -, *, /, and parenthesis). Given the string "1 + 2 * 3": It should return an array like this: ["+", [1, ["*", [2,3] ] ] ] I made a function to transform "1 + 2 * 3" in [1,"+",2,"*",3]. The problem is: I have no idea to give priority to certain operations. My code is: function isNumber(ch){ switch (ch) { case '0': case '1': case '2': case '3': case '4': case '5': case '6': case '7': case '8': case '9': case '.': return true; break; default: return false; break; } } function generateSyntaxTree(text){ if (typeof text != 'string') return []; var code = text.replace(new RegExp("[ \t\r\n\v\f]", "gm"), ""); var codeArray = []; var syntaxTree = []; // Put it in its on scope (function(){ var lastPos = 0; var wasNum = false; for (var i = 0; i < code.length; i++) { var cChar = code[i]; if (isNumber(cChar)) { if (!wasNum) { if (i != 0) { codeArray.push(code.slice(lastPos, i)); } lastPos = i; wasNum = true; } } else { if (wasNum) { var n = Number(code.slice(lastPos, i)); if (isNaN(n)) { throw new Error("Invalid Number"); return []; } else { codeArray.push(n); } wasNum = false; lastPos = i; } } } if (wasNum) { var n = Number(code.slice(lastPos, code.length)); if (isNaN(n)) { throw new Error("Invalid Number"); return []; } else { codeArray.push(n); } } })(); // At this moment, codeArray = [1,"+",2,"*",3] return syntaxTree; } alert('Returned: ' + generateSyntaxTree("1 + 2 * 3"));

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