Search Results

Search found 24353 results on 975 pages for 'test coverage'.

Page 406/975 | < Previous Page | 402 403 404 405 406 407 408 409 410 411 412 413  | Next Page >

  • Commons VFS and IBM MVS System

    - by Liming
    Hello All, I'm using Apache Commons VFS / SFTP, we are trying to download files from the IBM MVS system. The download part is all good, however, we can not open up the zipped files after downloading. Seems like the zip file was compressed using a different algorithm or something Anyone has any pointers? *Note, the same function works fine if we connect to a regular unix/linux SFTP server. Below is an example of what we did String defaultHost = "[my sftp ip address]"; String host = defaultHost; String defaultRemotePath = "//__root.dir1.dir2."; String remotePath = defaultRemotePath; String user = "test"; String password = "test"; String remoteFileName = "Blah.ZIP.BLAH"; log.info("FtpPojo() begin instantiation"); FileObject localFileObject = fsManager.resolveFile("C:/Work/Blah.ZIP.BLAH"); log.debug("local file name is :"+localFileObject.getName().getBaseName()); log.debug("FtpPojo() instantiated and fsManager created"); String uri = createSftpUri(host, user, password) + ":322"+remotePath+remoteFileName; remoteRepo = fsManager.resolveFile(uri, fsOptions); remoteRepo.copyFrom(localFileObject, Selectors.SELECT_ALL);

    Read the article

  • How do I execute a program using Maven?

    - by Will
    I would like to have a Maven goal trigger the execution of a java class. I'm trying to migrate over a Makefile with the lines: neotest: mvn exec:java -Dexec.mainClass="org.dhappy.test.NeoTraverse" And I would like mvn neotest to produce what make neotest does currently. Neither the exec plugin documentation nor the Maven Ant tasks pages had any sort of straightforward example. Currently, I'm at: <plugin> <groupId>org.codehaus.mojo</groupId> <artifactId>exec-maven-plugin</artifactId> <version>1.1</version> <executions><execution> <goals><goal>java</goal></goals> </execution></executions> <configuration> <mainClass>org.dhappy.test.NeoTraverse</mainClass> </configuration> </plugin> I don't know how to trigger the plugin from the command line, though.

    Read the article

  • Javascript BBcode function not working

    - by Dave
    I have a string I want to convert to divs but it doesn't close the div properly. The example string i am using is this: [quote]Quote by: user1 [quote]Quote by: user2 ads[/quote]Test[/quote]Testing 2. This results in: <div class="quote" style="margin-left:10px;margin-top:10px;"> Quote by: user1 [quote]Quote by: user2 ads </div> Test[/quote]Testing 2. But it will not convert the internal quotes properly. My Javascript function is like this: function bbcode_parser(str) { search = new Array( /\[b\](.*?)\[\/b\]/g, /\[i\](.*?)\[\/i\]/g, /\[quote](.*?)\[\/quote\]/g, /\[\*\]\s?(.*?)\n/g); replace = new Array( "<strong>$1</strong>", "<em>$1</em>", "<div class='quote' style='margin-left:10px;margin-top:10px;'>$1</div>"); for (i = 0; i < search.length; i++) { str = str.replace(search[i], replace[i]); } return str; } I have provided a JSFiddle for you to see it in action: http://jsfiddle.net/gRaFW/2/ Please help :)

    Read the article

  • Use AttachedProperty in Style in ControlTemplate

    - by Andrey
    Here is my simple app: <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:app="clr-namespace:WpfApplication1" Title="Window1" Height="300" Width="300"> <Window.Resources> <Style x:Key="Test"> <Setter Property="Button.Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate> <Border BorderBrush="Blue" BorderThickness="3" Background="Black" CornerRadius="{Binding app:Extras.CornerRadius}" > </Border> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> </Window.Resources> <Grid> <Button Height="23" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="29,26,0,0" Name="button1" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="75" app:Extras.CornerRadius="10" Style="{StaticResource Test}" >Button</Button> </Grid> </Window> Here is my AttachedPropery: namespace WpfApplication1 { public class Extras { public static readonly DependencyProperty CornerRadiusProperty = DependencyProperty.RegisterAttached( "CornerRadius", typeof(double), typeof(Button), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(1.0d, FrameworkPropertyMetadataOptions.AffectsRender) ); public static void SetCornerRadius(UIElement element, double value) { element.SetValue(CornerRadiusProperty, value); } public static double GetCornerRadius(UIElement element) { return (double)element.GetValue(CornerRadiusProperty); } } } CornerRadius="{Binding app:Extras.CornerRadius}" this of course doesn't work. so how can I get value from here app:Extras.CornerRadius="10" thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Please help! Delegate returns null via Dipendency Injection.

    - by Raj Aththanayake
    Can someone please help? I use Google code’s Moq framework for mocking within my Unit Tests and Unity for Dependency Injection. In my Test class private Mock<ICustomerSearchService> CustomerSearchServiceMock = null; private CustomerService customerService = null; private void SetupMainData() { CustomerSearchServiceMock = new Mock<ICustomerSearchService>(); customerService = new CustomerService (); // CustomerSearchService is a property in CustomerService and dependency is configuered via Unity customerService.CustomerSearchService = CustomerSearchServiceMock.Object; Customer c = new Customer () { ID = "AT" }; CustomerSearchServiceMock.Setup(s => s.GetCustomer(EqualsCondition)).Returns(c); } [TestMethod] public void GetCustomerData_Test_Method() { SetupMainData() var customer = customerService.GetCustomerData("AT"); } public static bool EqualsCondition(Customer customer) { return customer.ID.Equals("AT"); } In my Test class CustomerService class public class CustomerService : ICustomerService { [Dependency] public ICustomerSearchService CustomerSearchService { get; set; } public IEnumerable<SomeObject> GetCustomerData(string custID) { I GET Null for customer ?????} var customer = CustomerSearchService.GetCustomer (c => c.ID.Equals(custID)); //Do more things } } When I debug the code I can see CustomerSearchService has a proxy object, but the customer returns as null. Any ideas? Or is there something missing here? Note: ICustomerSearchService I have implemented below method. Customer GetCustomer(Func<Customer, bool> predicate);

    Read the article

  • The best way to return related data in a SQL statement

    - by Darvis Lombardo
    I have a question on the best method to get back to a piece of data that is in a related table on the other side of a many-to-many relationship table. My first method uses joins to get back to the data, but because there are multiple matching rows in the relationship table, I had to use a TOP 1 to get a single row result. My second method uses a subquery to get the data but this just doesn't feel right. So, my question is, which is the preferred method, or is there a better method? The script needed to create the test tables, insert data, and run the two queries is below. Thanks for your advice! Darvis -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- -- Create Tables -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- DECLARE @TableA TABLE ( [A_ID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [Description] [varchar](50) NULL) DECLARE @TableB TABLE ( [B_ID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [A_ID] [int] NOT NULL, [Description] [varchar](50) NOT NULL) DECLARE @TableC TABLE ( [C_ID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [Description] [varchar](50) NOT NULL) DECLARE @TableB_C TABLE ( [B_ID] [int] NOT NULL, [C_ID] [int] NOT NULL) -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- -- Insert Test Data -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- INSERT INTO @TableA VALUES('A-One') INSERT INTO @TableA VALUES('A-Two') INSERT INTO @TableA VALUES('A-Three') INSERT INTO @TableB (A_ID, Description) VALUES(1,'B-One') INSERT INTO @TableB (A_ID, Description) VALUES(1,'B-Two') INSERT INTO @TableB (A_ID, Description) VALUES(1,'B-Three') INSERT INTO @TableB (A_ID, Description) VALUES(2,'B-Four') INSERT INTO @TableB (A_ID, Description) VALUES(2,'B-Five') INSERT INTO @TableB (A_ID, Description) VALUES(3,'B-Six') INSERT INTO @TableC VALUES('C-One') INSERT INTO @TableC VALUES('C-Two') INSERT INTO @TableC VALUES('C-Three') INSERT INTO @TableB_C (B_ID, C_ID) VALUES(1, 1) INSERT INTO @TableB_C (B_ID, C_ID) VALUES(2, 1) INSERT INTO @TableB_C (B_ID, C_ID) VALUES(3, 1) -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- -- Get result - method 1 -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- SELECT TOP 1 C.*, A.Description FROM @TableC C JOIN @TableB_C BC ON BC.C_ID = C.C_ID JOIN @TableB B ON B.B_ID = BC.B_ID JOIN @TableA A ON B.A_ID = A.A_ID WHERE C.C_ID = 1 -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- -- Get result - method 2 -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- SELECT C.*, (SELECT A.Description FROM @TableA A WHERE EXISTS (SELECT * FROM @TableB_C BC JOIN @TableB B ON B.B_ID = BC.B_ID WHERE BC.C_ID = C.C_ID AND B.A_ID = A.A_ID)) FROM @TableC C WHERE C.C_ID = 1

    Read the article

  • TDD approach for complex function

    - by jamie
    I have a method in a class for which they are a few different outcomes (based upon event responses etc). But this is a single atomic function which is to used by other applications. I have broken down the main blocks of the functionality that comprise this function into different functions and successfully taken a Test Driven Development approach to the functionality of each of these elements. These elements however aren't exposed for other applications would use. And so my question is how can/should i easily approach a TDD style solution to verifying that the single method that should be called does function correctly without a lot of duplication in testing or lots of setup required for each test? I have considered / looked at moving the blocks of functionality into a different class and use Mocking to simulate the responses of the functions used but it doesn't feel right and the individual methods need to write to variables within the main class (it felt really heath robinson). The code roughly looks like this (i have removed a lot of parameters to make things clearer along with a fair bit of irrelevant code). public void MethodToTest(string parameter) { IResponse x = null; if (function1(parameter)) { if (!function2(parameter,out x)) { function3(parameter, out x); } } // ... // more bits of code here // ... if (x != null) { x.Success(); } }

    Read the article

  • Background loading javascript into iframe with using jQuery/Ajax?

    - by user210099
    I'm working on an offline only help system which requires loading a large amount of search-related data into an iframe before the search functionality can be used. Due to the folder structure of the project, I am unable to use Ajax-related background load methods, since the files I need are loaded a few directories "up and over." I have written some code which delays the loading of the help data until the rest of the webpage is loaded. The help data consists of a bunch of javascript files which have information about the terms, ect that exist in the help books which are installed on the system. The webpage works fine, until I start to load this help data into a hidden iframe. While the javascript files are loading, I can not use any of the webpage. Links that require a small files be downloaded for hover over effects don't show up, javascript (switching tabs on the page) has no effect. I'm wondering if this is just a limitation of the way javascript works, or if there's something else going on here. Once all the files are loaded for the help system, the webpage works as expected. function test(){ var MGCFrame = eval("parent.parent"); if((ALLFRAMESLOADED == true)){ t2 = MGCFrame.setTimeout("this.IHHeader.frames[0].loadData()",1); } else{ t1 = MGCFrame.setTimeout("this.IHHeader.frames[0].test()",1000); } } Load data simply starts the data loading process. Thanks for any help you can provide.

    Read the article

  • .find replacing content inside html tags

    - by Woz
    I want to sanitize html tags from my wysiwyg. I want to replace certain tags with another. This almost works only the replaceWith() is also removing the content from within the tags. I dont want to do this. I just want to replace the tags. Here is what I have so far. Text for Testing: This<div>is</div><div>a test</div><div>to clean&nbsp;</div><div>some tags</div><div><br></div> Expected Result: This<p>is</p><p>a test</p><p>to clean</p><p>some tags</p><p><br></p> Actual Result: This<p></p><p></p><p></p><p></p><p></p> This is the code I am using to find and replace var thebad = ["h1","h2","h3","h4","h5","h6","div"]; var thegood = ["","","","","","","<p>"]; for(var i = 0; i < thebad.length; i++){ $('.content').contents().find('body').find(thebad[i]).replaceWith(thegood[i]); } I need to figure out how to keep the text inside the html tags when i replace them. Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Page does update with details from the database after i hit a button

    - by swathi
    I have a code and the way it should work is,when they click on NEW CUSTOMER,it takes them to test1.php where in they enter the details and they hit submit.it saves all the details in properly in the database and when i go back and hit REFRESH ,it should come up with the customer details which they had entered in previously. But what happens is, when i click on the REFRESH,it refreshes the same old page which is empty.I wanted to find out where am i missing the logic.Thanks in advance. The sample code would be <tr> <td class="tdvisitbig" colspan="5">THIS IS A TEST</td> </tr> <tr> <td class='tdvisitbig' colspan="5"><input type="button" onClick="openVisit('test1.php?id=<?=$key?>&name=<?=$name?>');return false;" value="NEW CUSTOMER" class="submit">&nbsp;<input type="button" value="REFRESH" name="add_xyz" class="submit" onClick="document.add.target='_self';document.add.action='test3.php?redirect=visit&section=test page';document.add.submit();"></td> </tr> <? $q = "SELECT address,customernum,status FROM customer WHERE name='$name' ORDER BY customernum"; $r = mysql_query( $q , $Link ); while( $rw = mysql_fetch_assoc( $r ) ) { extract( $rw ); ?> <tr> <? } ?>

    Read the article

  • Strange bug with PHP on Windows 7

    - by chessweb
    This is the configuration: Windows 7 Home Premium, XAMPP 1.7.3 (Apache 2.2.14 , PHP 5.3.1), Firefox 3.6 This is the PHP-code in a file named 'test.php' in htdocs: <?php echo('04556-8978765'); ?> On http://localhost/test.php I would expect to see the string 04556-8978765 in the browser. This is not what happens, though. The string appears for a short time and then it disappears altogether. Firebug shows an empty body-tag. However, when I look at page source, the string is there alright. When I change the string in the echo-statement to e.g. 4556-8978765, everything is fine. Internet Explorer 8 does not show this strange behavior. I could not reproduce this with the same Apache/PHP/Firefox configuration on Windows XP. '04556-8978765' is by no means unique. The couple '02065-96047' and '02065-9604' behave exactly the same. Can anybody reproduce this and offer an explanation as to what is going on? PS: If you can not see the string '04556-8978765' in the echo-statement above, look at this post with IE8.

    Read the article

  • PHP cookies in a session handler

    - by steve
    I have run into a very interesting problem trying to debug my custom php session handler. For some reason unknown to me I can set cookies all the way through the session handler right up until the very start of the write function. As far as I know session handler calls go in this order. open - read - write - close The open function sets a cookie just fine. function open($save_path,$session_name) { require_once('database.php'); require_once('websiteinfo.php'); mysql_connect($sqllocation,$sql_session_user,$sql_session_pass); @mysql_select_db($sql_default_db); date_default_timezone_set('America/Los_Angeles'); setcookie("test","test"); return TRUE; } The read function can set a cookie right up until the very moment it returns a value. function read($session_id) { $time = time(); $query = "SELECT * FROM 'sessions' WHERE 'expires' > '$time'"; $query_result = mysql_query($query); $data = ''; /* fetch the array and start sifting through it */ while($session_array = mysql_fetch_array($query_result)) { /* strip the slashes from the session array */ $session_array = $this->strip($session_array); /* authenticate the user and if so return the session data */ if($this->auth_check($session_array,$session_id)) { $data = $session_array['data']; } } setcookie("testcookie1","value1",time()+1000,'/'); return $data; } The very first line of the write function is setting another cookie and it cannot because the headers are already sent. Any ideas anyone? Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Is Maven really flexible?

    - by Dima
    I understand how Maven works with .java files in src/java/main. But may it be used for a more general case? Let us put it more abstract: Suppose I already have some a.exe that read some (not necessarily only .java) sources from directories A1, A2, A3 and puts some files (maybe some are generated .java) to directories B1, B2. I also have some b.exe that currently reads files from B1, B2, B3 and generates something else. Some more similar steps. (A real life problem stands behind). I would like to right POM.xml file so that maven will do this work. Is that possible? I assume that a.exe and b.exe should be warped as maven plugings. Next, in Maven docs I see : <build> <sourceDirectory>${basedir}/src/main/java</sourceDirectory> <scriptSourceDirectory>${basedir}/src/main/scripts</scriptSourceDirectory> <testSourceDirectory>${basedir}/src/test/java</testSourceDirectory> <outputDirectory>${basedir}/target/classes</outputDirectory> <testOutputDirectory>${basedir}/target/test-classes</testOutputDirectory> ... </build> What bothers me is that "sourceDirectory" looks by itself as a hard coded name. Will Maven accept A1 and A2 tags instead?

    Read the article

  • Error with `Thread.Sleep` during automatic testing on TeamCity 5

    - by yeyeyerman
    Hello, I'm having some problems executing the tests of the application I'm developing. All the tests execute normally with ReSharper and in NCover. However, the execution of one of these tests in TeamCity is generating an error. This test initializes two objects, the object under test and a simulator of a real object. Both objects will communicate throug a serial link in a representation of the real scenario. ObjectSimulator r_simulator = new ObjectSimulator(...); ObjectDriver r_driver = new ObjectDriver(...); Assert.IsTrue(r_driver.Connect() == ErrorCode.Success); The simulator just do the following in the constructor public class ObjectSimulator { ... public ObjectSimulator() { // serial port configuration m_port = new SerialPort(); m_port.DataReceived += DataReceivedEvent; } ... } The main object has two threads. The main thread of the application and a timer to refresh a watchdog timer in the real object. public ErrorCode Connect() { ... StartSynchroTimer(); Thread.Sleep(4); // to check if the timer is working properly ... } The problem seems to be comming from the Thread.Sleep() call, as when I remove it everything works. The ObjectSimulator somehow doesn't execute the DataReceived event callback. How can I resolve this issue?

    Read the article

  • How to use Jquery UI in my Custom Function? (Autocomplete)

    - by bakazero
    I want to create a function to simplify configuration of jQuery UI AutoComplete. Here is my function code: (function($) { $.fn.myAutocomplete = function() { var cache = {}; var dataUrl = args.dataUrl; var dataSend = args.dataItem; $.autocomplete({ source: function(request, response) { if (cache.term == request.term && cache.content) { response(cache.content); } if (new RegExp(cache.term).test(request.term) && cache.content && cache.content.length < 13) { var matcher = new RegExp($.ui.autocomplete.escapeRegex(request.term), "i"); response($.grep(cache.content, function(value) { return matcher.test(value.value) })); } $.ajax({ url: dataUrl, dataType: "json", type: "POST", data: dataSend, success: function(data) { cache.term = request.term; cache.content = data; response(data); } }); }, minLength: 2, }); } }) (jQuery); but when I'm using this function like: $("input#tag").myAutocomplete({ dataUrl: "/auto_complete/tag", dataSend: { term: request.term, category: $("input#category").val() } }); It's give me an error: Uncaught ReferenceError: request is not defined

    Read the article

  • Emacs - nxhtml-mode - memory full

    - by mbutz
    working with nxhtml-mode in emacs, I get problems since a few weeks. While working emacs pauses unexpectingly until showing a message in the mode line "!MEM FULL!"; obviously nxhtml-mode is filling up the memory until emacs stopps to work. I am working with html, php and css files. I have no idea how I could debug this problem in a meaningfull way. Also I seem to be the only one to have this problem, because googling did not deliver any answers to this question. I am using emacs 2.32 on an Linux Mint 11 system. I can not find out the verson of nxhtml, it says revision 829 downloaded from http://bazaar.launchpad.net/~nxhtml/nxhtml/main/revision/829. I set up a test scenario with a minimal dot-emacs just to test the nxhtml-mode. It seemed to be alright, but it does not reflect my productive set up. It would probably take a week or so to gradually include everything I used to use within emacs (e.g. org-mode) while testing whether nxhtml-mode does not like anything, which is called in my dot-emacs file. Is there another way? Can I find out, what causes the memory overload? Does anyone has similar problems using nxhtml-mode? Greetings Martin

    Read the article

  • what is the wrong with this spec and controller code?

    - by user1609468
    I'm trying to test an existing rails project with rspec. And I want to test a controller but getting an error which I can't solve :S Here is the my spec code ; require 'spec_helper' describe BriefNotesController do before(:all) do @customer=Factory(:customer) @project=Factory(:project_started, :owner => @customer) end context 'get :new' do it 'should redirect to login page for not signed in users' do get :new, :project_id => @project.id response.should redirect_to("/kullanici-girisi") end it 'should be success and render new brief note page for project owner' do sign_in @customer get :new, :project_id => @project.id response.should be_success end end end Here is the my controller code ; class BriefNotesController < ApplicationController before_filter :authenticate_user! before_filter :find_project def new @brief_note = @project.brief_notes.new end def create @brief_note = @project.brief_notes.build(params[:brief_note]) if @brief_note.save redirect_to brief_project_path(@project) else render :action => :new end end private def find_project @project = current_user.projects.find_by_cached_slug([params[:project_id]]) end end I think current_user.projects.find_by_cached_slug method don't work. So this is the error; Failures: 1) BriefNotesController get :new should be success and render new brief note page for project owner Failure/Error: get :new, :project_id => @project.id NoMethodError: undefined method `brief_notes' for nil:NilClass # ./app/controllers/brief_notes_controller.rb:6:in `new' # ./spec/controllers/brief_notes_controller_spec.rb:19:in `block (3 levels) in <top (required)>'

    Read the article

  • JQuery each loop problem

    - by bhefny
    Hello, I have the following code <div> <a href="#" class="clickMe">test</a> <ul> <li class="action_li">1</li> <li class="action_li">2</li> </ul></div> <div> <a href="#" class="clickMe">test</a> <ul> <li class="action_li">3</li> <li class="action_li">4</li> </ul> and I want to loop on all the <li> that are enclosed with the same <div> as the clicked <a> $("a.clickMe").live("click", function(eve){ eve.preventDefault(); $('.action_li').each(function(index) { console.debug(this); }); }); but of course this will get me all the 4 <li> not the two enclosed so I want to have something that starts with $(this) and ends with .each()

    Read the article

  • Required attribute HTML5

    - by Joop
    First of all I will explain how I stumbled into this behavior. Within my web application I am using some custom validation for my form fields. Within the same form I have two buttons. One to actually submit the form and the other to cancel/reset the form. Mostly I use Safari as my default browser. Now Safari 5 is out and suddenly my cancel/reset button didn't work anymore. Every time I did hit the reset button the first field in my form did get the focus. However this is the same behavior as my custom form validation. When trying it with another browser everything just worked fine. I had to be a Safari 5 problem. I changed a bit in my Javascript code and I found out that the following line was causing the problem: document.getElementById("somefield").required = true; To be sure that would be really the problem I created a test scenario: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <title>Test</title> </head> <body> <form id="someform"> <label>Name:</label>&nbsp;<input type="text" id="name" required="true" /><br/> <label>Car:</label>&nbsp;<input type="text" id="car" required="true" /><br/> <br/> <input type="submit" id="btnsubmit" value="Submit!" /> </form> </body> </html> What I expected would happen did happen. The first field "name" did get the focus automatically. Anyone else stumbled into this?

    Read the article

  • write a function using generic

    - by user296551
    hi,guy, i want write a function using c#, and it accept any type parameter,i want use generic list to do, but i can't finish, it's wrong, how to do it? perhaps there are other ways?? thinks! public class City { public int Id; public int? ParentId; public string CityName; } public class ProductCategory { public int Id; public int? ParentId; public string Category; public int Price; } public class Test { public void ReSortList<T>(IEnumerable<T> sources, ref IEnumerable<T> returns, int parentId) { //how to do like this: /* var parents = from source in sources where source.ParentId == parentId && source.ParentId.HasValue select source; foreach (T child in parents) { returns.Add(child); ReSortList(sources, ref returns, child.Id); } */ } public void Test() { IList<City> city = new List<City>(); city.Add(new City() { Id = 1, ParentId = 0, CityName = "China" }); city.Add(new City() { Id = 2, ParentId = null, CityName = "America" }); city.Add(new City() { Id = 3, ParentId = 1, CityName = "Guangdong" }); IList<City> results = new List<City>(); ReSortList<City>(city, ref results, 0); //error } }

    Read the article

  • Convert html with image to ms.word

    - by user1629258
    I have the html code as below: file.html <body> <h1>TEST</h1> <p>this is test</p> <table> <tr> <td>1</td> <td>2</td> </tr> <tr> <td>3</td> <td>4</td> </tr> <tr> <td>5</td> <td><img src="../../../wamp/www/html2doc/SGEPP.jpg"></td> </tr> </table> html2doc.php <?php $handle = fopen("doc2html.html","r"); $contents = ''; while (!feof($handle)) { $contents .= fread($handle, 8192); } header("Content-type: application/vnd.ms-word"); header("Content-Disposition: attachment;Filename=html2word.doc"); echo $contents; ?> The problems: when I convert it,I get html2word.doc but I can get only all texts from html file.For the images in html file I can not get it, it is missing images.So I want to get all data from html and images also.How do I fix this?Anyone help me please,Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Background loading javascript into iframe without using jQuery/Ajax?

    - by user210099
    I'm working on an offline only help system which requires loading a large amount of search-related data into an iframe before the search functionality can be used. Due to the folder structure of the project, I am unable to use Ajax-related background load methods, since the files I need are loaded a few directories "up and over." I have written some code which delays the loading of the help data until the rest of the webpage is loaded. The help data consists of a bunch of javascript files which have information about the terms, ect that exist in the help books which are installed on the system. The webpage works fine, until I start to load this help data into a hidden iframe. While the javascript files are loading, I can not use any of the webpage. Links that require a small files be downloaded for hover over effects don't show up, javascript (switching tabs on the page) has no effect. I'm wondering if this is just a limitation of the way javascript works, or if there's something else going on here. Once all the files are loaded for the help system, the webpage works as expected. function test(){ var MGCFrame = eval("parent.parent"); if((ALLFRAMESLOADED == true)){ t2 = MGCFrame.setTimeout("this.IHHeader.frames[0].loadData()",1); } else{ t1 = MGCFrame.setTimeout("this.IHHeader.frames[0].test()",1000); } } Load data simply starts the data loading process. Thanks for any help you can provide.

    Read the article

  • Virtualmin - Domain / Subdomain confusion

    - by Dan
    Hi, I've just purchased a new VPS and setup Virtualmin on it. I pointed my domain at the IP of the server and set up a new virtual server through Virtualmin. I uploaded a simple php script to check it was working and it seemed to be fine. I then created a subserver and also pointed test.mydomain.com to my IP, with the intension of having mydomain.com and test.mydomain.com both pointing to different directories on my VPS. However, once I added the subserver, I received a 403 Forbidden message if I tried to access either the new subdomain OR the existing site. I uploaded a similar php script to the subfolder and it then displayed correctly. However, I now get sent to the same script regardless of what URL I type in. I did try posting this message on the Virtualmin forum, but their filters picked it up as spam and wouldn't allow it. Can anyone help me? I'm sure it's just something simple, but this is driving me crazy! Any advice appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • C# Passing objects and list of objects by reference

    - by David Liddle
    I have a delegate that modifies an object. I pass an object to the delegate from a calling method, however the calling method does not pickup these changes. The same code works if I pass a List as the object. I thought all objects were passed by reference so any modifications would be reflected in the calling method? I can modify my code to pass a ref object to the delegate but am wondering why this is necessary? public class Binder { protected delegate int MyBinder<T>(object reader, T myObject); public void BindIt<T>(object reader, T myObject) { //m_binders is a hashtable of binder objects MyBinder<T> binder = m_binders["test"] as MyBinder<T>; int i = binder(reader, myObject); } } public class MyObjectBinder { public MyObjectBinder() { m_delegates["test"] = new MyBinder<MyObject>(BindMyObject); } private int BindMyObject(object reader, MyObject obj) { //make changes to obj in here } } ///calling method in some other class public void CallingMethod() { MyObject obj = new MyObject(); MyBinder binder = new MyBinder(); binder.BindIt(myReader, obj); //don't worry about myReader //obj should show reflected changes }

    Read the article

  • Null reference but it's not?

    - by Clint Davis
    This is related to my previous question but it is a different problem. I have two classes: Server and Database. Public Class Server Private _name As String Public Property Name() As String Get Return _name End Get Set(ByVal value As String) _name = value End Set End Property Private _databases As List(Of Database) Public Property Databases() As List(Of Database) Get Return _databases End Get Set(ByVal value As List(Of Database)) _databases = value End Set End Property Public Sub LoadTables() Dim db As New Database(Me) db.Name = "test" Databases.Add(db) End Sub End Class Public Class Database Private _server As Server Private _name As String Public Property Name() As String Get Return _name End Get Set(ByVal value As String) _name = value End Set End Property Public Property Server() As Server Get Return _server End Get Set(ByVal value As Server) _server = value End Set End Property Public Sub New(ByVal ser As Server) Server = ser End Sub End Class Fairly simple. I use like this: Dim s As New Server s.Name = "Test" s.LoadTables() The problem is in the LoadTables in the Server class. When it hits Databases.Add(db) it gives me a NullReference error (Object reference not set). I don't understand how it is getting that, all the objects are set. Any ideas? Thanks.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 402 403 404 405 406 407 408 409 410 411 412 413  | Next Page >