Search Results

Search found 63498 results on 2540 pages for 'vb net 2010'.

Page 406/2540 | < Previous Page | 402 403 404 405 406 407 408 409 410 411 412 413  | Next Page >

  • ASP.NET MVC: How do I validate a model wrapped in a ViewModel?

    - by Deniz Dogan
    For the login page of my website I would like to list the latest news for my site and also display a few fields to let the user log in. So I figured I should make a login view model - I call this LoginVM. LoginVM contains a Login model for the login fields and a List<NewsItem> for the news listing. This is the Login model: public class Login { [Required(ErrorMessage="Enter a username.")] [DisplayName("Username")] public string Username { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage="Enter a password.")] [DataType(DataType.Password)] [DisplayName("Password")] public string Password { get; set; } } This is the LoginVM view model: public class LoginVM { public Login login { get; set; } public List<NewsItem> newsItems { get; set; } } This is where I get stuck. In my login controller, I get passed a LoginVM. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Login(LoginVM model, FormCollection form) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { // What? In the code I'm checking whether ModelState is valid and this would work fine if the view model was actually the Login model, but now it's LoginVM which has no validation attributes at all. How do I make LoginVM "traverse" through its members to validate them all? Am I doing something fundamentally wrong using ModelState in this manner?

    Read the article

  • Ado.net Fill method not throwing error on running a Stored Procedure that does not exist.

    - by Mike
    I am using a combination of the Enterprise library and the original Fill method of ADO. This is because I need to open and close the command connection myself as I am capture the event Info Message Here is my code so far // Set Up Command SqlDatabase db = new SqlDatabase(ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings[ConnectionName].ConnectionString); SqlCommand command = db.GetStoredProcCommand(StoredProcName) as SqlCommand; command.Connection = db.CreateConnection() as SqlConnection; // Set Up Events for Logging command.StatementCompleted += new StatementCompletedEventHandler(command_StatementCompleted); command.Connection.FireInfoMessageEventOnUserErrors = true; command.Connection.InfoMessage += new SqlInfoMessageEventHandler(Connection_InfoMessage); // Add Parameters foreach (Parameter parameter in Parameters) { db.AddInParameter(command, parameter.Name, (System.Data.DbType)Enum.Parse(typeof(System.Data.DbType), parameter.Type), parameter.Value); } // Use the Old Style fill to keep the connection Open througout the population // and manage the Statement Complete and InfoMessage events SqlDataAdapter da = new SqlDataAdapter(command); DataSet ds = new DataSet(); // Open Connection command.Connection.Open(); // Populate da.Fill(ds); // Dispose of the adapter if (da != null) { da.Dispose(); } // If you do not explicitly close the connection here, it will leak! if (command.Connection.State == ConnectionState.Open) { command.Connection.Close(); } ... Now if I pass into the variable StoredProcName = "ThisProcDoesNotExists" And run this peice of code. The CreateCommand nor da.Fill through an error message. Why is this. The only way I can tell it did not run was that it returns a dataset with 0 tables in it. But when investigating the error it is not appearant that the procedure does not exist. EDIT Upon further investigation command.Connection.FireInfoMessageEventOnUserErrors = true; is causeing the error to be surpressed into the InfoMessage Event From BOL When you set FireInfoMessageEventOnUserErrors to true, errors that were previously treated as exceptions are now handled as InfoMessage events. All events fire immediately and are handled by the event handler. If is FireInfoMessageEventOnUserErrors is set to false, then InfoMessage events are handled at the end of the procedure. What I want is each print statement from Sql to create a new log record. Setting this property to false combines it as one big string. So if I leave the property set to true, now the question is can I discern a print message from an Error ANOTHER EDIT So now I have the code so that the flag is set to true and checking the error number in the method void Connection_InfoMessage(object sender, SqlInfoMessageEventArgs e) { // These are not really errors unless the Number >0 // if Number = 0 that is a print message foreach (SqlError sql in e.Errors) { if (sql.Number == 0) { Logger.WriteInfo("Sql Message",sql.Message); } else { // Whatever this was it was an error throw new DataException(String.Format("Message={0},Line={1},Number={2},State{3}", sql.Message, sql.LineNumber, sql.Number, sql.State)); } } } The issue now that when I throw the error it does not bubble up to the statement that made the call or even the error handler that is above that. It just bombs out on that line The populate looks like // Populate try { da.Fill(ds); } catch (Exception e) { throw new Exception(e.Message, e); } Now even though I see the calling codes and methods still in the Call Stack, this exception does not seem to bubble up?

    Read the article

  • What does ~ in the beginning of an URL in asp.net exactly do ?

    - by MarceloRamires
    I am editing a certain website which before used the port 80 (default) that was not required at the url (because it's default..) But the port had (for technical reasons) to be changed, and now it has to be informed. I can access the main page through ip:port\page like this: 1.2.3.4:81\page.aspx Every link in the website is composed like this: <asp:HyperLink runat="server" Text="random" NavigateUrl="~/fdr/whatever.aspx" /> And whenever I click on a link, the page doesn't load, but the URL is composed on the URL bar of the browser, then I simply add ":80" after the IP in the URL and it works. Due to the existance of querystrings (in other words, for already having access to the URL) I before thought that '~' in the beginning of a URL in a link was saying "keep in the same website, just change to this webpage in this folder", but if the port vanishes, I assume now that the address is requested (probably to IIS) the location of the current website. I want to know then (instead of having to add the port to each link in my website) how do I set up whoever is requested by the ~ in the link to add the port somehow. How do I do that?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Page - Viewstate for Confirm email field is getting erased on Registration Page if valid

    - by Rita
    Hi I have a Registaration page with the following fields Email, Confirm Email, Password and Confrim Password. On Register Button click and post the model to the server, the Model validates and if that Email is already Registered, it displays the Validation Error Message "User already Exists. Please Login or Register with a different email ID". While we are displaying this validation error message, I am loosing the value of "Confirm Email" field. So that the user has to reenter again and I want to avoid this. Here I don't have confirm_Email field in my Model. Is there something special that has to be done to remain Confirm Email value on the Page even in case of Validation failure? Appreciate your responses. Here is my Code: <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <%= Html.ValidationSummary(false) %> <fieldset> <div class="cssform"> <p> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.Email)%><em>*</em> <%= Html.TextBoxFor(model => model.Email, new { @class = "required email" })%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Email)%> </p> <p> <%= Html.Label("Confirm email")%><em>*</em> <%= Html.TextBox("confirm_email")%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("confirm_email") %> </p> <p> <%= Html.Label("Password")%><em>*</em> <%= Html.Password("Password", null, new { @class = "required" })%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("Password")%><br /> (Note: Password should be minimum 6 characters) </p> <p> <%= Html.Label("Confirm Password")%><em>*</em> <%= Html.Password("confirm_password")%> <%= Html.ValidationMessage("confirm_password") %> </p><hr /> <p>Note: Confirmation email will be sent to the email address listed above.</p> </fieldset> <% } %>

    Read the article

  • how to handle this type of things. using asp.net mvc

    - by kumar
    hello friends, i have public jsonresult update(studentinfo s) { for(i=0;i>0;i++) { var x = // i am getting some x so i am checking again if( x != null) { var updateuser = student.update(s.student,"",""); **return json(updateuser.ToString());** // if i keep it here i am getting exceptoin saying not all code paths return value bec this return i can not keep it out for loop bec each and evary updateuser i need to return json.. } } } how to overcome this type of things? thanks

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC - View with master page, how to set title?

    - by bh213
    What is prefered way of setting html title (in head) for view when using master pages? One way is by using Page.Title in .aspx file, but that requires in master page which can mess with HTML code. So, lets assume no server side controls, only pure html. Any better ideas? UPDATE: I would like to set title in view NOT in the controller or model.

    Read the article

  • How to get an ASP.NET MVC Ajax response to redirect to new page instead of inserting view into Updat

    - by Jeff Widmer
    I am using the Ajax.BeginForm to create a form the will do an ajax postback to a certain controller action and then if the action is successful, the user should get redirected to another page (if the action fails then a status message gets displayed using the AjaxOptions UpdateTargetId). using (Ajax.BeginForm("Delete", null, new { userId = Model.UserId }, new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "UserForm", LoadingElementId = "DeletingDiv" }, new { name = "DeleteForm", id = "DeleteForm" })) { [HTML DELETE BUTTON] } If the delete is successful I am returning a Redirect result: [Authorize] public ActionResult Delete(Int32 UserId) { UserRepository.DeleteUser(UserId); return Redirect(Url.Action("Index", "Home")); } But the Home Controller Index view is getting loaded into the UpdateTargetId and therefore I end up with a page within a page. Two things I am thinking about: Either I am architecting this wrong and should handle this type of action differently (not using ajax). Instead of returning a Redirect result, return a view which has javascript in it that does the redirect on the client side. Does anyone have comments on #1? Or if #2 is a good solution, what would the "redirect javascript view" look like?

    Read the article

  • ASP .NET 4.0 How do I Redirect/Override the default CDN path for ScriptManager when EnableCDN=true

    - by plattnum
    I am using the EnableCdn=true in my ScriptManager so that WebResource.axd and ScriptResource.axd are overridden with static links to JS libraries at the MS CDN service as follows: <asp:ScriptManager ID="ScriptManager1" runat="server" EnableCdn="true" /> How do I override the CDN URLs or service so that I can retrieve the scripts over HTTPS from the MS CDN service rather than HTTP to avoid the browser mixed mode message? or for that matter a different or my own CDN service entirely.

    Read the article

  • Will the URL /nosuchpage get routed via my ASP.NET MVC application?

    - by Gary McGill
    [I'm trying to figure out the reason why I'm having another problem, and this question is part of the puzzle.] I have an MVC 2 website that has routing set up so that URLs such as /Customer/23/Order/47 get handled by various controllers. I do not have a rule that would match, for example, /nosuchpage and in my Cassini environment a request for that URL will trigger my Application_Error code, which lets me log the error and show a friendly response. However, when I deployed this website on IIS7 using integrated mode, my Application_Error is not triggered, and IIS shows its own 404 message. No matter what I've tried, I can't get Application_Error to fire. Now I'm thinking: is the reason it doesn't fire because the request is not getting routed via my application? Either because I didn't explicitly set up a catch-all route, or because the file-extension fools it into thinking it should use the "static file handler" (whatever that is)? Should I expect my Application_Error to be invoked?

    Read the article

  • Does using web services to expose a .NET DAL add security?

    - by Jonno
    Currently my employer deploys a web application over 3 servers. DB - No public route Web Service DAL - No public route Web Server - Public route The reason for this is the theory that if the web server is compromised, they don't arrive at the DB directly, but instead arrive at the DAL box. To my mind, as the DAL box and Web Sever box - both run windows/IIS - if the public box has been compromised, the same exploit would likely work on the DAL box - therefore I do not see this as a real security benefit. I would like to propose we remove the middle machine and allow the web server to connect directly to the database. Is this middle box really a benefit?

    Read the article

  • where should I put the EF entity and data annotations in asp.net mvc + entity framework project

    - by giddy
    So I have a DataEntity class generated by EntityFramework4 for my sqlexpress08 database. This data context is exposed via a WCF Data Service/Odata to silverlight and win forms clients. Should the data entities + edmx file (generated by EF4) go in a separate class library? The problem here then is I would specify data annotations for a few entities and then some of them would require specific MVC attributes (like CompareAttribute) so the class library would also reference mvc dlls. There also happen to be entity users which will be encapsulated or wrapped into an IIdentity in the website. So its pretty tied to the mvc website. Or Should it maybe go in a Base folder in the mvc project itself? Mostly the website is data driven around the database, like approve users, change global settings etc. The real business happens in the silverlight and win forms apps. Im using mvc3 rc2 with Razor. Thanks

    Read the article

  • How do I create a selection list in ASP.NET MVC?

    - by Gary McGill
    I have a database table that records what publications a user is allowed to access. The table is very simple - it simply stores user ID/publication ID pairs: CREATE TABLE UserPublication (UserId INTEGER, PublicationID INTEGER) The presence of a record for a given user & publication means that the user has access; absence of a record implies no access. I want to present my admin users with a simple screen that allows them to configure which publications a user can access. I would like to show one checkbox for each of the possible publications, and check the ones that the user can currently access. The admin user can then check or un-check any number of publications and submit the form. There are various publication types, and I want to group the similarly-typed publications together - so I do need control over how the publications are presented (I don't want to just have a flat list). My view model obviously needs to have a list of all the publications (since I need to display them all regardless of the current selection), and I also need a list of the publications that the user currently has access to. (I'm not sure whether I'd be better off with a single list where each item includes the publication ID and a yes/no field?). But that's as far as I've got. I've really no idea how to go about binding this to some checkboxes. Where do I start?

    Read the article

  • What is the order of execution when dealing with .NET MVC 2 Action Filters?

    - by user357933
    Say I have: [Attribute1(Order=0)] public class Controller1 { [Attribute2] [Attribute3] public ActionResult Action1() { ... } } The attributes get executed in the following order: 2, 3, 1 This makes sense because attributes 2 and 3 have an order of -1 and will be executed before attribute 1 which has an explicitly set order equal to 0. Now, lets say I have: [Attribute1] [Attribute2(Order=0)] public class Controller1 { [Attribute3] public ActionResult Action1() { ... } } The attributes get executed in the following order: 1, 2, 3 Why is it that attribute 2 in this case (which has an order equal to 0) is executed before attribute 3 (which has an order equal to -1)?

    Read the article

  • ASP.net page gets error on import statement, but I do have the reference in place?

    - by Greg
    Hi, Any ideas why I am getting the below error in my MVC2 project, even through in the project itself I definitely have a reference to "system.Web.Entity"? Compiler Error Message: CS0234: The type or namespace name 'Entity' does not exist in the namespace 'System.Data' (are you missing an assembly reference?) Source Error: Line 1: <%@ Page Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<List<Node>>" %> Line 2: <%@ Import Namespace="TopologyDAL" %> Line 3: <%@ Import Namespace="System.Data.Entity" %> thanks

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET mvc 2 Validation always shows errors on initial page load.

    - by gt124
    I've searched around a lot, and honed this problem down to this case: I'm using the PRG pattern, pragmatically I'm using the same DTO for my post/get actions. It looks like when I have the dto with the data annotation attributes in the get action parameter list, the validation is always displaying errors, every time on initial page load. In some cases this could be desired behavior if you put asterisks in the error message, but how do I get rid of it? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Trying to get django app to work with mod_wsgi on CentOS 5

    - by David
    I'm running CentOS 5, and am trying to get a django application working with mod_wsgi. I'm using .wsgi settings I got working on Ubuntu. Here is the error: [Thu Mar 04 10:52:15 2010] [error] [client 10.1.0.251] SystemError: dynamic module not initialized properly [Thu Mar 04 10:52:15 2010] [error] [client 10.1.0.251] mod_wsgi (pid=23630): Target WSGI script '/data/hosting/cubedev/apache/django.wsgi' cannot be loaded as Python module. [Thu Mar 04 10:52:15 2010] [error] [client 10.1.0.251] mod_wsgi (pid=23630): Exception occurred processing WSGI script '/data/hosting/cubedev/apache/django.wsgi'. [Thu Mar 04 10:52:15 2010] [error] [client 10.1.0.251] Traceback (most recent call last): [Thu Mar 04 10:52:15 2010] [error] [client 10.1.0.251] File "/data/hosting/cubedev/apache/django.wsgi", line 8, in [Thu Mar 04 10:52:15 2010] [error] [client 10.1.0.251] import django.core.handlers.wsgi [Thu Mar 04 10:52:15 2010] [error] [client 10.1.0.251] File "/opt/python2.6/lib/python2.6/site-packages/django/core/handlers/wsgi.py", line 1, in [Thu Mar 04 10:52:15 2010] [error] [client 10.1.0.251] from threading import Lock [Thu Mar 04 10:52:15 2010] [error] [client 10.1.0.251] File "/opt/python2.6/lib/python2.6/threading.py", line 13, in [Thu Mar 04 10:52:15 2010] [error] [client 10.1.0.251] from functools import wraps [Thu Mar 04 10:52:15 2010] [error] [client 10.1.0.251] File "/opt/python2.6/lib/python2.6/functools.py", line 10, in [Thu Mar 04 10:52:15 2010] [error] [client 10.1.0.251] from _functools import partial, reduce [Thu Mar 04 10:52:15 2010] [error] [client 10.1.0.251] SystemError: dynamic module not initialized properly And here is my .wsgi file import os import sys os.environ['PYTHON_EGG_CACHE'] = '/tmp/django/' os.environ['DJANGO_SETTINGS_MODULE'] = 'cube.settings' sys.path.append('/data/hosting/cubedev') import django.core.handlers.wsgi application = django.core.handlers.wsgi.WSGIHandler()

    Read the article

  • how to update div tag in javascript with data from model for onsubmit form asp.net mvc

    - by michael
    In my page i have a form tag which submits to server ,gets data and redirects to same page. problem is the the div tag which has the data from server is not getting updated. how to do that in javascript <% using (Html.BeginForm("Addfile", "uploadfile", FormMethod.Post, new { id = "uploadform", enctype = "multipart/form-data" })) { %> <input type="file" id="addedFile" name="addedFile" /><br /> <input type="submit" id="addfile" value="Addfile" /> <div id="MyGrid"> //data from the model(server side) filelist is not updating</div> what will be the form onsubmit javascript function to update the div tag with the data from the model. and my uploadfile controller get post methods are as [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Get)] public ActionResult Upload() { return View(); } [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult AddFile(HttpPostedFileBase addedFile) { static List<string> fileList = new List<string>(); string filename = Path.GetFileName(addedFile.FileName); file.SaveAs(@"D:\Upload\" + filename); fileList.Add(filename); return("Upload",fileList); } thanks, michaela

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 402 403 404 405 406 407 408 409 410 411 412 413  | Next Page >