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  • Hibernate3: Self-Referencing Objects

    - by monojohnny
    Need some help on understanding how to do this; I'm going to be running recursive 'find' on a file system and I want to keep the information in a single DB table - with a self-referencing hierarchial structure: This is my DB Table structure I want to populate. DirObject Table: id int NOT NULL, name varchar(255) NOT NULL, parentid int NOT NULL); Here is the proposed Java Class I want to map (Fields only shown): public DirObject { int id; String name; DirObject parent; ... For the 'root' directory was going to use parentid=0; real ids will start at 1, and ideally I want hibernate to autogenerate the ids. Can somebody provide a suggested mapping file for this please; as a secondary question I thought about doing the Java Class like this instead: public DirObject { int id; String name; List<DirObject> subdirs; Could I use the same data model for either of these two methods ? (With a different mapping file of course). --- UPDATE: so I tried the mapping file suggested below (thanks!), repeated here for reference: <hibernate-mapping> <class name="my.proj.DirObject" table="category"> ... <set name="subDirs" lazy="true" inverse="true"> <key column="parentId"/> <one-to-many class="my.proj.DirObject"/> </set> <many-to-one name="parent" class="my.proj.DirObject" column="parentId" cascade="all" /> </class> ...and altered my Java class to have BOTH 'parentid' and 'getSubDirs' [returning a 'HashSet']. This appears to work - thanks, but this is the test code I used to drive this - I think I'm not doing something right here, because I thought Hibernate would take care of saving the subordinate objects in the Set without me having to do this explicitly ? DirObject dirobject=new DirObject(); dirobject.setName("/files"); dirobject.setParent(dirobject); DirObject d1, d2; d1=new DirObject(); d1.setName("subdir1"); d1.setParent(dirobject); d2=new DirObject(); d2.setName("subdir2"); d2.setParent(dirobject); HashSet<DirObject> subdirs=new HashSet<DirObject>(); subdirs.add(d1); subdirs.add(d2); dirobject.setSubdirs(subdirs); session.save(dirobject); session.save(d1); session.save(d2);

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  • How do I update with a newly-created detached entity using NHibernate?

    - by Daniel T.
    Explanation: Let's say I have an object graph that's nested several levels deep and each entity has a bi-directional relationship with each other. A -> B -> C -> D -> E Or in other words, A has a collection of B and B has a reference back to A, and B has a collection of C and C has a reference back to B, etc... Now let's say I want to edit some data for an instance ofC. In Winforms, I would use something like this: var instanceOfC; using (var session = SessionFactory.OpenSession()) { // get the instance of C with Id = 3 instanceOfC = session.Linq<C>().Where(x => x.Id == 3); } SendToUIAndLetUserUpdateData(instanceOfC); using (var session = SessionFactory.OpenSession()) { // re-attach the detached entity and update it session.Update(instanceOfC); } In plain English, we grab a persistent instance out of the database, detach it, give it to the UI layer for editing, then re-attach it and save it back to the database. Problem: This works fine for Winform applications because we're using the same entity all throughout, the only difference being that it goes from persistent to detached to persistent again. The problem occurs when I'm using a web service and a browser, sending over JSON data. In this case, the data that comes back is no longer a detached entity, but rather a transient one that just happens to have the same ID as the persistent one. If I use this entity to update, it will wipe out the relationship to B and D unless I sent the entire object graph over to the UI and got it back in one piece. Question: My question is, how do I serialize detached entities over the web, receive them back, and save them, while preserving any relationships that I didn't explicitly change? I know about ISession.SaveOrUpdateCopy and ISession.Merge() (they seem to do the same thing?), but this will still wipe out the relationships if I don't explicitly set them. I could copy the fields from the transient entity to the persistent entity one by one, but this doesn't work too well when it comes to relationships and I'd have to handle version comparisons manually.

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  • How to navigate to another html page?

    - by newbie
    In my application there's a usual login page sending username and password to the server script, where it needs to be authenticated, and in case of an authentic user, the server should redirect to a page student.html. This is my code var ports = 3000; var portt = 3001; var express = require('express'); var student = require('express')(); var teacher = require('express')(); var server_s = require('http').createServer(student); var server_t = require('http').createServer(teacher); var ios = require('socket.io').listen(server_s); var iot = require('socket.io').listen(server_t); var path = require('path'); server_s.listen(ports); server_t.listen(portt); student.use(express.static(path.join(__dirname, 'public'))); student.get('/', function(req,res){ res.sendfile(__dirname + '/login.html'); }); teacher.use(express.static(path.join(__dirname, 'public'))); teacher.get('/', function(req,res){ res.sendfile(__dirname + '/mytry.html'); }); ios.sockets.on('connection', function(socket){ var username, password; socket.on('check',function(data){ username = data[0]; password = data[1]; //************* Database connection and query ************* var mysql = require('mysql'); var connection = mysql.createConnection({ host : 'localhost', user : 'user', password: '*******', database: 'my_db' }); connection.connect(); var qstring = 'SELECT s_id FROM login_student WHERE username='+username+'AND password='+password; connection.query(qstring, function(err, rows, fields) { if (err) { console.log('ERROR: ' + err); socket.emit('login_failure','DB error'); return; } console.log('The solution is: ', rows[0].solution); if (rows>0) //***** Here i want redirection to another page ****** else socket.emit('login_failure','Invalid Username or password'); }); connection.end(); }); }); iot.sockets.on('connection', function(socket){ ; }); }); Can anyone suggest what should I do?

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  • Loading the last related record instantly for multiple parent records using Entity framework

    - by Guillaume Schuermans
    Does anyone know a good approach using Entity Framework for the problem described below? I am trying for our next release to come up with a performant way to show the placed orders for the logged on customer. Of course paging is always a good technique to use when a lot of data is available I would like to see an answer without any paging techniques. Here's the story: a customer places an order which gets an orderstatus = PENDING. Depending on some strategy we move that order up the chain in order to get it APPROVED. Every change of status is logged so we can see a trace for statusses and maybe even an extra line of comment per status which can provide some extra valuable information to whoever sees this order in an interface. So an Order is linked to a Customer. One order can have multiple orderstatusses stored in OrderStatusHistory. In my testscenario I am using a customer which has 100+ Orders each with about 5 records in the OrderStatusHistory-table. I would for now like to see all orders in one page not using paging where for each Order I show the last relevant Status and the extra comment (if there is any for this last status; both fields coming from OrderStatusHistory; the record with the highest Id for the given OrderId). There are multiple scenarios I have tried, but I would like to see any potential other solutions or comments on the things I have already tried. Trying to do Include() when getting Orders but this still results in multiple queries launched on the database. Each order triggers an extra query to the database to get all orderstatusses in the history table. So all statusses are queried here instead of just returning the last relevant one, plus 100 extra queries are launched for 100 orders. You can imagine the problem when there are 100000+ orders in the database. Having 2 computed columns on the database: LastStatus, LastStatusInformation and a regular Linq-Query which gets those columns which are available through the Entity-model. The problem with this approach is the fact that those computed columns are determined using a scalar function which can not be changed without removing the formula from the computed column, etc... In the end I am very familiar with SQL and Stored procedures, but since the rest of the data-layer uses Entity Framework I would like to stick to it as long as possible, even though I have my doubts about performance. Using the SQL approach I would write something like this: WITH cte (RN, OrderId, [Status], Information) AS ( SELECT ROW_NUMBER() OVER (PARTITION BY OrderId ORDER BY Id DESC), OrderId, [Status], Information FROM OrderStatus ) SELECT o.Id, cte.[Status], cte.Information AS StatusInformation, o.* FROM [Order] o INNER JOIN cte ON o.Id = cte.OrderId AND cte.RN = 1 WHERE CustomerId = @CustomerId ORDER BY 1 DESC; which returns all orders for the customer with the statusinformation provided by the Common Table Expression. Does anyone know a good approach using Entity Framework?

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  • how to handle a array of objects in a session

    - by Robert
    Hello, In the project I'm working on I have got a list List<Item> with objects that Is saved in a session. Session.Add("SessionName", List); In the Controller I build a viewModel with the data from this session var arrayList = (List<Item>)Session["SessionName"]; var arrayListItems= new List<CartItem>(); foreach (var item in arrayList) { var listItem = new Item { Amount = item.Amount, Variant= item.variant, Id = item.Id }; arrayListItems.Add(listItem); } var viewModel = new DetailViewModel { itemList = arrayListItems } and in my View I loop trough the list of Items and make a form for all of them to be able to remove the item. <table> <%foreach (var Item in Model.itemList) { %> <% using (Html.BeginForm()) { %> <tr> <td><%=Html.Hidden(Settings.Prefix + ".VariantId", Item .Variant.Id)%> <td> <%=Html.TextBox(Settings.Prefix + ".Amount", Item.Amount)%></td> <td> <%=Html.Encode(Item.Amount)%> </td> <td> <input type="submit" value="Remove" /> </td> </tr> <% } %> <% } %> </table> When the post from the submit button is handeld the item is removed from the array and post back exactly the same viewModel (with 1 item less in the itemList). return View("view.ascx", viewModel); When the post is handled and the view has reloaded the value's of the html.Hidden and Html.Textbox are the value's of the removed item. The value of the html.Encode is the correct value. When i reload the page the correct values are in the fields. Both times i build the viewModel the exact same way. I cant find the cause or solution of this error. I would be very happy with any help to solve this problem Thanx in advance for any tips or help

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  • XML pass values to timer, AS3

    - by VideoDnd
    My timer has three variables that I can trace to the output window, but don't know how to pass them to the timer. How to I pass the XML values to my timer? Purpose I want to test with an XML document, before I try connecting it to an XML socket. myXML <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <SESSION> <TIMER TITLE="speed">100</TIMER> <COUNT TITLE="starting position">-77777</COUNT> <FCOUNT TITLE="ramp">1000</FCOUNT> </SESSION> myFlash //myTimer 'instance of mytext on stage' /* fields I want to change with XML */ //CHANGE TO 100 var timer:Timer = new Timer(10); //CHANGE TO -77777 var count:int = 0; //CHANGE TO 1000 var fcount:int = 0; timer.addEventListener(TimerEvent.TIMER, incrementCounter); timer.start(); function incrementCounter(event:TimerEvent) { count++; fcount=int(count*count/1000);//starts out slow... then speeds up mytext.text = formatCount(fcount); } function formatCount(i:int):String { var fraction:int = i % 100; var whole:int = i / 100; return ("0000000" + whole).substr(-7, 7) + "." + (fraction < 10 ? "0" + fraction : fraction); } //LOAD XML var myXML:XML; var myLoader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); myLoader.load(new URLRequest("time.xml")); myLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, processXML); //PARSE XML function processXML(e:Event):void { myXML = new XML(e.target.data); trace(myXML.ROGUE.*); trace(myXML); //TEXT var text:TextField = new TextField(); text.text = myXML.TIMER.*; text.textColor = 0xFF0000; addChild(text); } RESOURCES OReilly's ActionScript 3.0 Cookbook, Chapter 12 Strings, Chapter 20 XML

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2: Linq to SQL entity w/ ForeignKey relationship and Default ModelBinder strangeness

    - by Simon
    Once again I'm having trouble with Linq to Sql and the MVC Model Binder. I have Linq to Sql generated classes, to illustrate them they look similar to this: public class Client { public int ClientID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class Site { public int SiteID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class User { public int UserID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public int? ClientID { get; set; } public EntityRef<Client> Client { get; set; } public int? SiteID { get; set; } public EntityRef<Site> Site { get; set; } } The 'User' has a relationship with the 'Client' and 'Site . The User class has nullable ClientIDs and SiteIDs because the admin users are not bound to a Client or Site. Now I have a view where a user can edit a 'User' object, the view has fields for all the 'User' properties. When the form is submitted, the appropiate 'Save' action is called in my UserController: public ActionResult Save(User user, FormCollection form) { //form['SiteID'] == 1 //user.SiteID == 1 //form['ClientID'] == 1 //user.ClientID == null } The problem here is that the ClientID is never set, it is always null, even though the value is in the FormCollection. To figure out whats going wrong I set breakpoints for the ClientID and SiteID getters and setters in the Linq to Sql designer generated classes. I noticed the following: SiteID is being set, then ClientID is being set, but then the Client EntityRef property is being set with a null value which in turn is setting the ClientID to null too! I don't know why and what is trying to set the Client property, because the Site property setter is never beeing called, only the Client setter is being called. Manually setting the ClientID from the FormCollection like this: user.ClientID = int.Parse(form["ClientID"].ToString()); throws a 'ForeignKeyReferenceAlreadyHasValueException', because it was already set to null before. The only workaround I have found is to extend the generated partial User class with a custom method: Client = default(EntityRef<Client>) but this is not a satisfying solution. I don't think it should work like this? Please enlighten me someone. So far Linq to Sql is driving me crazy! Best regards

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  • Need help simplifying my php table

    - by user342391
    I am relatively new to php and have a feeling that I am going the long way round when displaying data from mysql. I have a table a I want to show a few fields from my database. How would I achieve this without having to echo every bit of the table??? Here is the code: <?php $query1 = mysql_send("SELECT firstname, lastname, email, user, country FROM customers WHERE id='".$_COOKIE['custid']."'"); while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($query1)) { echo ' <table id="account_table" style="width:550px; border:none; "> <tr> <td width="155">Contact Name</td>'; echo '<td width="335">'; echo $row['firstname'] ; echo '&nbsp;'; echo $row['lastname']; echo '</td> </tr> <tr> <td>Email Address</td> <td>'; echo $row['email']; echo ' </td> </tr> <tr> <td>Username</td> <td>' ; echo $row['user']; echo '</td> </tr> <tr> <td>Country</td> <td>'; echo $row['country']; echo '</td> </tr> <tr> <td>Time Zone</td> <td>GMT+1</td> </tr> <tr> <td>Activated</td> <td>16 Dec 2009</td> </tr> </table>'; } ?>

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  • AJAX, same-origin Policy and working XML Requests

    - by Joern
    Hello guys, so, currently I develop Widgets for Smartphones and am going a bit more advanced into fields of data exchange between client and server applications. My problem is: For my current project I want my client file to request data from a PHP script with the help of AJAX XmlHttpRequest and the POST method: function xmlRequestNotes() { var parameter = 'p=1234'; xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.open("POST", url, true); // Http Header xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-length", parameter.length); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { json = JSON.parse(xmlhttp.responseText); // Doing Stuff with the Response } }; xmlhttp.send(parameter); } This works perfectly fine on my local server set up in XAMPP and the local Widget emulator. But if it gets onto the device (also with access to the target network) I receive the 101 Network Error. And as far as I have read, this is due to the "Same-Origin Policy" of XmlHttpRequests? My problem is to really understand that. Although the idea of this policy is clear to me, I'm a bit confused by the fact that another XmlHttpRequest for a Yahoo Weather XML Feed works fine. Now, could anyone be so helpful to enlighten me? Here is the request that returns a city name from Yahoo's weather feed: function getCityName() { xmlhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.open("GET", "http://weather.yahooapis.com/forecastrss?w=645458&u=c", true); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { xmlhttp.responseXML; var yweather = "http://xml.weather.yahoo.com/ns/rss/1.0"; alert(xmlhttp.responseXML.getElementsByTagNameNS(yweather, "location")[0].getAttribute("city")); } }; xmlhttp.send(null); } Obvious differences are the POST and GET methods for once, but seeing that the Same-Origin Policy takes effect no matter what method, I can't really make much sense of it. Why does the latter request work but not the first? I would really appreciate some help here. Greetings and a merry Christmas to you guys!

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  • Multi-tier applications using L2S, WCF and Base Class

    - by Gena Verdel
    Hi all. One day I decided to build this nice multi-tier application using L2S and WCF. The simplified model is : DataBase-L2S-Wrapper(DTO)-Client Application. The communication between Client and Database is achieved by using Data Transfer Objects which contain entity objects as their properties. abstract public class BaseObject { public virtual IccSystem.iccObjectTypes ObjectICC_Type { get { return IccSystem.iccObjectTypes.unknownType; } } [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Storage = "_ID", AutoSync = AutoSync.OnInsert, DbType = "BigInt NOT NULL IDENTITY", IsPrimaryKey = true, IsDbGenerated = true)] [global::System.Runtime.Serialization.DataMemberAttribute(Order = 1)] public virtual long ID { //get; //set; get { return _ID; } set { _ID = value; } } } [DataContract] public class BaseObjectWrapper<T> where T : BaseObject { #region Fields private T _DBObject; #endregion #region Properties [DataMember] public T Entity { get { return _DBObject; } set { _DBObject = value; } } #endregion } Pretty simple, isn't it?. Here's the catch. Each one of the mapped classes contains ID property itself so I decided to override it like this [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.TableAttribute(Name="dbo.Divisions")] [global::System.Runtime.Serialization.DataContractAttribute()] public partial class Division : INotifyPropertyChanging, INotifyPropertyChanged { [global::System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Storage="_ID", AutoSync=AutoSync.OnInsert, DbType="BigInt NOT NULL IDENTITY", IsPrimaryKey=true, IsDbGenerated=true)] [global::System.Runtime.Serialization.DataMemberAttribute(Order=1)] public override long ID { get { return this._ID; } set { if ((this._ID != value)) { this.OnIDChanging(value); this.SendPropertyChanging(); this._ID = value; this.SendPropertyChanged("ID"); this.OnIDChanged(); } } } } Wrapper for division is pretty straightforward as well: public class DivisionWrapper : BaseObjectWrapper<Division> { } It worked pretty well as long as I kept ID values at mapped class and its BaseObject class the same(that's not very good approach, I know, but still) but then this happened: private CentralDC _dc; public bool UpdateDivision(ref DivisionWrapper division) { DivisionWrapper tempWrapper = division; if (division.Entity == null) { return false; } try { Table<Division> table = _dc.Divisions; var q = table.Where(o => o.ID == tempWrapper.Entity.ID); if (q.Count() == 0) { division.Entity._errorMessage = "Unable to locate entity with id " + division.Entity.ID.ToString(); return false; } var realEntity = q.First(); realEntity = division.Entity; _dc.SubmitChanges(); return true; } catch (Exception ex) { division.Entity._errorMessage = ex.Message; return false; } } When trying to enumerate over the in-memory query the following exception occurred: Class member BaseObject.ID is unmapped. Although I'm stating the type and overriding the ID property L2S fails to work. Any suggestions?

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  • asp:Button is not calling server-side function

    - by Richard Neil Ilagan
    Hi guys, I know that there has been much discussion here about this topic, but none of the threads I got across helped me solve this problem. I'm hoping that mine is somewhat unique, and may actually merit a different solution. I'm instantiating an asp:Button inside a data-bound asp:GridView through template fields. Some of the buttons are supposed to call a server-side function, but for some weird reason, it doesn't. All the buttons do when you click them is fire a postback to the current page, doing nothing, effectively just reloading the page. Below is a fragment of the code: <asp:GridView ID="gv" runat="server" AutoGenerateColumns="false" CssClass="l2 submissions" ShowHeader="false"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate><asp:Panel ID="swatchpanel" CssClass='<%# Bind("status") %>' runat="server"></asp:Panel></ItemTemplate> <ItemStyle Width="50px" CssClass="sw" /> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:BoundField DataField="description" ReadOnly="true"> </asp:BoundField> <asp:BoundField DataField="owner" ReadOnly="true"> <ItemStyle Font-Italic="true" /> </asp:BoundField> <asp:BoundField DataField="last-modified" ReadOnly="true"> <ItemStyle Width="100px" /> </asp:BoundField> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Button ID="viewBtn" cssclass='<%# Bind("sid") %>' runat="server" Text="View" OnClick="viewBtnClick" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> The viewBtn above should call the viewBtnClick() function on server-side. I do have that function defined, along with a proper signature (object,EventArgs). One thing that may be of note is that this code is actually inside an ASCX, which is loaded in another ASCX, finally loaded into an ASPX. Any help or insight into the matter will be SO appreciated. Thanks! (oh, and please don't mind my trashy HTML/CSS semantics - this is still in a very,very early stage :p)

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  • Serialize problem with cookie

    - by cagin
    Hi there, I want use cookie in my web project. I must serialize my classes. Although my code can seralize an int or string value, it cant seralize my classes. This is my seralize and cookie code : public static bool f_SetCookie(string _sCookieName, object _oCookieValue, DateTime _dtimeExpirationDate) { bool retval = true; try { if (HttpContext.Current.Request[_sCookieName] != null) { HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies.Remove(_sCookieName); } BinaryFormatter bf = new BinaryFormatter(); MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); bf.Serialize(ms, _oCookieValue); byte[] bArr = ms.ToArray(); MemoryStream objStream = new MemoryStream(); DeflateStream objZS = new DeflateStream(objStream, CompressionMode.Compress); objZS.Write(bArr, 0, bArr.Length); objZS.Flush(); objZS.Close(); byte[] bytes = objStream.ToArray(); string sCookieVal = Convert.ToBase64String(bytes); HttpCookie cook = new HttpCookie(_sCookieName); cook.Value = sCookieVal; cook.Expires = _dtimeExpirationDate; HttpContext.Current.Response.Cookies.Add(cook); } catch { retval = false; } return retval; } And here is one of my classes: [Serializable] public class Tahlil { #region Props & Fields public string M_KlinikKodu{ get; set; } public DateTime M_AlinmaTarihi { get; set; } private List<Test> m_Tesler; public List<Test> M_Tesler { get { return m_Tesler; } set { m_Tesler = value; } } #endregion public Tahlil() {} Tahlil(DataRow _rwTahlil){} } I m calling my Set Cookie method: Tahlil t = new Tahlil(); t.M_AlinmaTarihi = DateTime.Now; t.M_KlinikKodu = "2"; t.M_Tesler = new List<Test>(); f_SetCookie("Tahlil", t, DateTime.Now.AddDays(1)); I cant see cookie in Cookie folder and Temporary Internet Files but if i will call method like that: f_SetCookie("TRY", 5, DateTime.Now.AddDays(1)); I can see cookie. What is the problem? I dont understand. Thank you for your helps.

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  • How to Fix my jQuery code in IE?? Works in Firefox..

    - by scott jarvis
    I am using jQuery to show/hide a div container (#pluginOptionsContainer), and load a page (./plugin_options.php) inside it with the required POST vars sent. What POST data is sent is based on the value of a select list (#pluginDD) and the click of a button (#pluginOptionsBtn)... It works fine in Firefox, but doesn't work in IE.. The '$("#pluginOptionsContainer").load()' request never seems to finish in IE - I only see the loading message forever... bind(), empty() and append() all seem to work fine in IE.. But not load().. Here is my code: // wait for the DOM to be loaded $(document).ready(function() { // hide the plugin options $('#pluginOptionsContainer').hide(); // This is the hack for IE if ($.browser.msie) { $("#pluginDD").click(function() { this.blur(); this.focus(); }); } // set the main function $(function() { // the button shows hides the plugin options page (and its container) $("#pluginOptionsBtn") .click(function() { // show the container of the plugin options page $('#pluginOptionsContainer').empty().append('<div style="text-align:center;width:99%;">Loading...</div>'); $('#pluginOptionsContainer').toggle(); }); // set the loading message if user changes selection with either the dropdown or button $("#pluginDD,#pluginOptionsBtn").bind('change', function() { $('#pluginOptionsContainer').empty().append('<div style="text-align:center;width:99%;">Loading...</div>'); }); // then update the page when the plugin is changed when EITHER the plugin button or dropdown or clicked or changed $("#pluginDD,#pluginOptionsBtn").bind('change click', function() { // set form fields as vars in js var pid = <?=$pid;?>; var cid = <?=$contentid;?>; var pDD = $("#pluginDD").val(); // add post vars (must use JSON) to be sent into the js var 'dataString' var dataString = {plugin_options: true, pageid: pid, contentid: cid, pluginDD: pDD }; // include the plugin option page inside the container, with the required values already added into the query string $("#pluginOptionsContainer").load("/admin/inc/edit/content/plugin_options.php#pluginTop", dataString); // add this to stop page refresh return false; }); // end submit function }); // end main function }); // on DOM load Any help would be GREATLY appreciated! I hate IE!

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  • How to return a property name when comparing two properties at class-level

    - by CodeMonkey
    Hi I have implemented an 'EqualTo' Validation Attribute, that compares two Properties of an object, during ModelBinding in ASP.NET MVC 2. The problem I have is not with it not working, because it does work. The problem is, when I do my request - which is an ajax request - I get back errors to my front-end, where it sets a class on the input fields to indicate invalid input. What it does is iterate through a list of Errors (in a JsonResult), and set a class. This is all dandy. But the ValidationAtrribute I am having trouble with is set at a Class-level, i.e., it's not like other ValidationAttributes where you set something like "[Required]" or something like that. [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Class, AllowMultiple=true, Inherited=false)] public class EqualToAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public String SourceProperty { get; set; } public String MatchProperty { get; set; } public EqualToAttribute(string source, string match) { SourceProperty = source; MatchProperty = match; } public override Boolean IsValid(Object value) { Type objectType = value.GetType(); PropertyInfo[] properties = objectType.GetProperties(); object sourceValue = new object(); object matchValue = new object(); Type sourceType = null; Type matchType = null; int counter = 0; foreach (PropertyInfo propertyInfo in properties) { if (propertyInfo.Name == SourceProperty || propertyInfo.Name == MatchProperty) { if (counter == 0) { sourceValue = propertyInfo.GetValue(value, null); sourceType = propertyInfo.GetValue(value, null).GetType(); } if (counter == 1) { matchValue = propertyInfo.GetValue(value, null); matchType = propertyInfo.GetValue(value, null).GetType(); } counter++; if (counter == 2) { break; } } } if (sourceType != null && matchType != null) { return sourceValue.ToString().Equals(matchValue.ToString()); //return Convert.ChangeType(sourceValue, sourceType) == Convert.ChangeType(matchValue, matchType); } return false; } private object _typeId = new object(); public override object TypeId { get { return this._typeId; } } } Now this code works, except for the fact that the validation process does not return which Property failed. And I simply can't figure out how to make it return one of the two. In reality I don't care which one it returns.. because both are failing.. Do you have an idea how to make it return the/or both Property/Properties that is/are failing.

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  • Helping linqtosql datacontext use implicit conversion between varchar column in the database and tab

    - by user213256
    I am creating an mssql database table, "Orders", that will contain a varchar(50) field, "Value" containing a string that represents a slightly complex data type, "OrderValue". I am using a linqtosql datacontext class, which automatically types the "Value" column as a string. I gave the "OrderValue" class implicit conversion operators to and from a string, so I can easily use implicit conversion with the linqtosql classes like this: // get an order from the orders table MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); Order order = db.Orders(o => o.id == 1); // use implicit converstion to turn the string representation of the order // value into the complex data type. OrderValue value = order.Value; // adjust one of the fields in the complex data type value.Shipping += 10; // use implicit conversion to store the string representation of the complex // data type back in the linqtosql order object order.Value = value; // save changes db.SubmitChanges(); However, I would really like to be able to tell the linqtosql class to type this field as "OrderValue" rather than as "string". Then I would be able to avoid complex code and re-write the above as: // get an order from the orders table MyDataContext db = new MyDataContext(); Order order = db.Orders(o => o.id == 1); // The Value field is already typed as the "OrderValue" type rather than as string. // When a string value was read from the database table, it was implicity converted // to "OrderValue" type. order.Value.Shipping += 10; // save changes db.SubmitChanges(); In order to achieve this desired goal, I looked at the datacontext designer and selected the "Value" field of the "Order" table. Then, in properties, I changed "Type" to "global::MyApplication.OrderValue". The "Server Data Type" property was left as "VarChar(50) NOT NULL" The project built without errors. However, when reading from the database table, I was presented with the following error message: Could not convert from type 'System.String' to type 'MyApplication.OrderValue'. at System.Data.Linq.DBConvert.ChangeType(Object value, Type type) at Read_Order(ObjectMaterializer1 ) at System.Data.Linq.SqlClient.ObjectReaderCompiler.ObjectReader2.MoveNext() at System.Linq.Buffer1..ctor(IEnumerable1 source) at System.Linq.Enumerable.ToArray[TSource](IEnumerable`1 source) at Example.OrdersProvider.GetOrders() at ... etc From the stack trace, I believe this error is happening while reading the data from the table. When presented with converting a string to my custom data type, even though the implicit conversion operators are present, the DBConvert class gets confused and throws an error. Is there anything I can do to help it not get confused and do the implicit conversion? Thanks in advance, and apologies if I have posted in the wrong forum. cheers / Ben

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  • Trouble passing a string as a SQLite ExecSQL command

    - by Hackbrew
    I keep getting the ERROR: near "PassWord": syntax error when trying to execute the ExecSQL() statement. The command looks good in the output of the text file. In fact, I copied & pasted the command directly into SQLite Database Browser and the commend executed properly. Here's the code that's producing the error: procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); var i, iFieldSize: integer; sFieldName, sFieldType, sFieldList, sExecSQL: String; names: TStringList; f1: Textfile; begin //Open Source table - Table1 has 8 fields but has only two different field types ftString and Boolean Table1.TableName:= 'PWFile'; Table1.Open; //FDConnection1.ExecSQL('drop table PWFile'); sFieldList := ''; names := TStringList.Create; for i := 0 to Table1.FieldCount - 1 do begin sFieldName := Table1.FieldDefList.FieldDefs[i].Name; sFieldType := GetEnumName(TypeInfo(TFieldType),ord(Table1.FieldDefList.FieldDefs[i].DataType)); iFieldSize := Table1.FieldDefList.FieldDefs[i].Size; if sFieldType = 'ftString' then sFieldType := 'NVARCHAR' + '(' + IntToStr(iFieldSize) + ')'; if sFieldType = 'ftBoolean' then sFieldType := 'INTEGER'; names.Add(sFieldName + ' ' + sFieldType); if sFieldList = '' then sFieldList := sFieldName + ' ' + sFieldType else sFieldList := sFieldList + ', ' + sFieldName + ' ' + sFieldType; end; ListBox1.Items.Add(sFieldList); sExecSQL := 'create table IF NOT EXISTS PWFile (' + sFieldList + ')'; // 08/18/2014 - Entered this to log the SQLite FDConnection1.ExecSQL Command to a file AssignFile(f1, 'C:\Users\Test User\Documents\SQLite_Command.txt'); Rewrite(f1); Writeln(f1, sExecSQL); { insert code here that would require a Flush before closing the file } Flush(f1); { ensures that the text was actually written to file } CloseFile(f1); FDConnection1.ExecSQL(sFieldList); Table1.Close; end; Here's the actual command that gets executed: create table IF NOT EXISTS PWFile (PassWord NVARCHAR(10), PassName NVARCHAR(10), Dept NVARCHAR(10), Active NVARCHAR(1), Admin INTEGER, Shred INTEGER, Reports INTEGER, Maintain INTEGER)

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  • Good design of mapping Java Domain objects to Tables (using Hibernate)

    - by M. McKenzie
    Hey guys, I have a question that is more in the realm of design, than implementation. I'm also happy for anyone to point out resources for the answer and I'll gladly, research for myself. Highly simplified Java and SQL: Say I have a business domain POJO called 'Picture' with three attributes. class Picture int idPicture String fileName long size Say I have another business domain POJO called "Item" with 3 attributes Class Item int idItem String itemName ArrayList itemPictures These would be a normal simple relationship. You could say that 'Picture' object, will never exist outside an 'Item' object. Assume a picture belongs only to a specific item, but that an item can have multiple pictures Now - using good database design (3rd Normal Form), we know that we should put items and pictures in their own tables. Here is what I assume would be correct. table Item int idItem (primary key) String itemName table Picture int idPicture (primary key) varchar(45) fileName long size int idItem (foreign key) Here is my question: If you are making Hibernate mapping files for these objects. In the data design, your Picture table needs a column to refer to the Item, so that a foreign key relation can be maintained. However,in your business domain objects - your Picture does not hold a reference/attribute to the idItem - and does not need to know it. A java Picture instance is always instantiated inside an Item instance. If you want to know the Item that the Picture belongs to you are already in the correct scope. Call myItem.getIdItem() and myItem.getItemPictures(),and you have the two pieces of information you need. I know that Hibernate tools have a generator that can auto make your POJO's from looking at your database. My problem stems from the fact that I planned out the data design for this experiment/project first. Then when I went to make the domain java objects, I realized that good design dictated that the objects hold other objects in a nested way. This is obviously different from the way that a database schema is - where all objects(tables) are flat and hold no other complex types within them. What is a good way to reconcile this? Would you: (A) Make the hibernate mapping files so that Picture.hbm.xml has a mapping to the POJO parent's idItem Field (if it's even possible) (B) Add an int attribute in the Picture class to refer to the idItem and set it at instantiation, thus simplifying the hbm.xml mapping file by having all table fields as local attributes in the class (C) Fix the database design because it is wrong, dork. I'd truly appreciate any feedback

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  • Rails populate edit form for non-column attributes

    - by Rabbott
    I have the following form: <% form_for(@account, :url => admin_accounts_path) do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> <%= render :partial => 'form', :locals => {:f => f} %> <h2>Account Details</h2> <% f.fields_for :customer do |customer_fields| %> <p> <%= customer_fields.label :company %><br /> <%= customer_fields.text_field :company %> </p> <p> <%= customer_fields.label :first_name %><br /> <%= customer_fields.text_field :first_name %> </p> <p> <%= customer_fields.label :last_name %><br /> <%= customer_fields.text_field :last_name %> </p> <p> <%= customer_fields.label :phone %><br /> <%= customer_fields.text_field :phone %> </p> <% end %> <p> <%= f.submit 'Create' %> </p> <% end %> As well as attr_accessor :customer And I have a before_create method for the account model which does not store the customer_fields, but instead uses them to submit data to an API.. The only thing I store are in the form partial.. The problem I'm running into is that when a validation error gets thrown, the page renders the new action (expected) but none of the non-column attributes within the Account Detail form will show? Any ideas as to how I can change this code around a bit to make this work me?? This same solution may be the help I need for the edit form, I have a getter for the data which it asks the API for, but without place a :value = "asdf" within each text box, it doesn't populate the fields either..

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  • How to created filtered reports in WPF?

    - by Michael Goyote
    Creating reports in WPF. I have two related tables. Table A-Customer: CustomerID(PK) Names Phone Number Customer Num Table B-Items: Products Price CustomerID I want to be able to generate a report like this: CustomerA Items Price Item A 10 Item B 10 Item C 10 --------------- Total 30 So this is what I have done: <Window x:Class="ReportViewerWPF.MainWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" xmlns:rv="clr-namespace:Microsoft.Reporting.WinForms; assembly=Microsoft.ReportViewer.WinForms" Title="Customer Report" Height="300" Width="400"> <Grid> <WindowsFormsHost Name="windowsFormsHost1"> <rv:ReportViewer x:Name="reportViewer1"/> </WindowsFormsHost> </Grid> Then I created a dataset and loaded the two tables, followed by a report wizard (dragged all the available fields and dropped them to the Values pane). The code behind the WPF window is this: public partial class CustomerReport : Window { public CustomerReport() { InitializeComponent(); _reportViewer.Load += ReportViewer_Load; } private bool _isReportViewerLoaded; private void ReportViewer_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!_isReportViewerLoaded) { Microsoft.Reporting.WinForms.ReportDataSource reportDataSource1 = new Microsoft.Reporting.WinForms.ReportDataSource(); HM2DataSet dataset = new HM2DataSet(); dataset.BeginInit(); reportDataSource1.Name = "DataSet";//This is the dataset name reportDataSource1.Value = dataset.CustomerTable; this.reportViewer1.LocalReport.DataSources.Add(reportDataSource1); this.reportViewer1.LocalReport.ReportPath = "../../Report3.rdlc"; dataset.EndInit(); HM2DataSetTableAdapters.CustomerTableAdapter funcTableAdapter = new HM2DataSetTableAdapters.CustomerTableAdapter(); funcTableAdapter.ClearBeforeFill = true; funcTableAdapter.Fill(dataset.CustomerTable); _reportViewer.RefreshReport(); _isReportViewerLoaded = true; } } As you might have guessed this loaded this list of customer with items and price: Customer Items Price Customer A Items A 10 Customer A Items B 10 Customer B Items D 10 Customer B Items C 10 How can I fine-tune this report to look like the one above, where the user can filter the customer he wants displayed on the report? Thanks in advance for the help. I would have preferred to use LINQ whenever filtering data

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  • Help with IF THEN breaking when comparing results from MYSQL query.

    - by roydukkey
    I'm have a problem with an invite system. The if statement seems to break. It shows the message "Fail" but the UPDATE statement still executes. Why do both the THEN and the ELSE excute? $dbConn = new dbConn(); // Check if POST user_username and user_hash are matching and valid; both are hidden for fields $sql = "SELECT user_username " . "FROM table_users " . "WHERE user_id=".mysql_real_escape_string($_POST["user_id"])." " . "AND user_hash='".mysql_real_escape_string($_POST["user_hash"])."' " . "AND user_enabled=0;"; $objUser = $dbConn->query($sql); // If result contains 1 or more rows if( mysql_num_rows($objUser) != NULL ){ $objUser = mysql_fetch_assoc($objUser); $ssnUser->login( $objUser["user_username"] ); $sql = "UPDATE table_users SET " . "user_enabled=1, " . "user_first_name='".mysql_real_escape_string($_POST["user_first_name"])."', " . "user_last_name='".mysql_real_escape_string($_POST["user_last_name"])."', " . "user_password='".mysql_real_escape_string( md5($_POST["user_password"]) )."' " . "WHERE user_id=".mysql_real_escape_string($_POST["user_id"]).";"; $dbConn->query($sql); echo "Success"; header( "Refresh: 5; url=/account/?action=domains" ); } else { echo "Fail"; } This dbConn Class is as follows: class dbConn{ var $username = "xxxx_admin"; var $password = "xxxxxxxx"; var $server = "localhost"; var $database = "xxxx"; var $objConn; function __construct(){ $conn = mysql_connect( $this->server, $this->username, $this->password, true ); if( !$conn ){ die("Could not connect: ".mysql_error() ); } else { $this->objConn = $conn; } unset($conn); } function __destruct(){ mysql_close( $this->objConn ); unset( $this ); } function query( $query, $db = false ){ mysql_select_db( $db != false ? $db : $this->database, $this->objConn ); $result = mysql_query( $query ); unset($query,$db); return $result; } }

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  • meteor mongodb _id changing after insert (and UUID property as well)

    - by lommaj
    I have meteor method that does an insert. Im using Regulate.js for form validation. I set the game_id field to Meteor.uuid() to create a unique value that I also route to /game_show/:game_id using iron router. As you can see I'm logging the details of the game, this works fine. (image link to log below) Meteor.methods({ create_game_form : function(data){ Regulate.create_game_form.validate(data, function (error, data) { if (error) { console.log('Server side validation failed.'); } else { console.log('Server side validation passed!'); // Save data to database or whatever... //console.log(data[0].value); var new_game = { game_id: Meteor.uuid(), name : data[0].value, game_type: data[1].value, creator_user_id: Meteor.userId(), user_name: Meteor.user().profile.name, created: new Date() }; console.log("NEW GAME BEFORE INSERT: ", new_game); GamesData.insert(new_game, function(error, new_id){ console.log("GAMES NEW MONGO ID: ", new_id) var game_data = GamesData.findOne({_id: new_id}); console.log('NEW GAME AFTER INSERT: ', game_data); Session.set('CURRENT_GAME', game_data); }); } }); } }); All of the data coming out of the console.log at this point works fine After this method call the client routes to /game_show/:game_id Meteor.call('create_game_form', data, function(error){ if(error){ return alert(error.reason); } //console.log("post insert data for routing variable " ,data); var created_game = Session.get('CURRENT_GAME'); console.log("Session Game ", created_game); Router.go('game_show', {game_id: created_game.game_id}); }); On this view, I try to load the document with the game_id I just inserted Template.game_start.helpers({ game_info: function(){ console.log(this.game_id); var game_data = GamesData.find({game_id: this.game_id}); console.log("trying to load via UUID ", game_data); return game_data; } }); sorry cant upload images... :-( https://www.evernote.com/shard/s21/sh/c07e8047-de93-4d08-9dc7-dae51668bdec/a8baf89a09e55f8902549e79f136fd45 As you can see from the image of the console log below, everything matches the id logged before insert the id logged in the insert callback using findOne() the id passed in the url However the mongo ID and the UUID I inserted ARE NOT THERE, the only document in there has all the other fields matching except those two! Not sure what im doing wrong. Thanks!

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  • Postgresql count+sort performance

    - by invictus
    I have built a small inventory system using postgresql and psycopg2. Everything works great, except, when I want to create aggregated summaries/reports of the content, I get really bad performance due to count()'ing and sorting. The DB schema is as follows: CREATE TABLE hosts ( id SERIAL PRIMARY KEY, name VARCHAR(255) ); CREATE TABLE items ( id SERIAL PRIMARY KEY, description TEXT ); CREATE TABLE host_item ( id SERIAL PRIMARY KEY, host INTEGER REFERENCES hosts(id) ON DELETE CASCADE ON UPDATE CASCADE, item INTEGER REFERENCES items(id) ON DELETE CASCADE ON UPDATE CASCADE ); There are some other fields as well, but those are not relevant. I want to extract 2 different reports: - List of all hosts with the number of items per, ordered from highest to lowest count - List of all items with the number of hosts per, ordered from highest to lowest count I have used 2 queries for the purpose: Items with host count: SELECT i.id, i.description, COUNT(hi.id) AS count FROM items AS i LEFT JOIN host_item AS hi ON (i.id=hi.item) GROUP BY i.id ORDER BY count DESC LIMIT 10; Hosts with item count: SELECT h.id, h.name, COUNT(hi.id) AS count FROM hosts AS h LEFT JOIN host_item AS hi ON (h.id=hi.host) GROUP BY h.id ORDER BY count DESC LIMIT 10; Problem is: the queries runs for 5-6 seconds before returning any data. As this is a web based application, 6 seconds are just not acceptable. The database is heavily populated with approximately 50k hosts, 1000 items and 400 000 host/items relations, and will likely increase significantly when (or perhaps if) the application will be used. After playing around, I found that by removing the "ORDER BY count DESC" part, both queries would execute instantly without any delay whatsoever (less than 20ms to finish the queries). Is there any way I can optimize these queries so that I can get the result sorted without the delay? I was trying different indexes, but seeing as the count is computed it is possible to utilize an index for this. I have read that count()'ing in postgresql is slow, but its the sorting that are causing me problems... My current workaround is to run the queries above as an hourly job, putting the result into a new table with an index on the count column for quick lookup. I use Postgresql 9.2.

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  • How to use input type="tel" in a contact form

    - by user1678664
    PHP newbie here trying to use a simple contact form. The fields I have are: "Name", "Email", "Phone", and "Message". I am trying to figure out what to do with the "Phone" field – I want it to output to the same place that "Message" does, so that when the email is received it will output both the message and the phone number to the body of the email. How do I do this? if( isset( $_POST['submit'] ) ) : wp_mail( get_option( 'admin_email' ), 'Website Contact Form', ( isset($_POST['message'] ) ? $_POST['message'] : '(blank)' ), 'From: ' . ( isset( $_POST['from_name'] ) ? $_POST['from_name'] : 'Website Contact Form' ) . ' <' . ( isset( $_POST['from_email'] ) ? $_POST['from_email'] : get_option( 'admin_email' ) ). '>' . "\r\n" ); $output = '<p>Thank you! Your message has been sent.</p>'; else : $output = ' <form action="" method="post"><ul> <li> <label for="from_name">Name</label> <input type="text" name="from_name" id="from_name" /> </li> <li> <label for="from_email">Email</label> <input type="email" name="from_email" id="from_email" /> </li> <li> <label for="from_tel">Phone</label> <input type="tel" name="from_tel" id="from_tel" /> </li> <li> <textarea name="message" id="message"></textarea> </li> <li class="submit"> <input name="submit" type="submit" value="Say Hello!" /> </li> </ul></form>'; endif; return $output;

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  • JPA Database strcture for internationalisation

    - by IrishDubGuy
    I am trying to get a JPA implementation of a simple approach to internationalisation. I want to have a table of translated strings that I can reference in multiple fields in multiple tables. So all text occurrences in all tables will be replaced by a reference to the translated strings table. In combination with a language id, this would give a unique row in the translated strings table for that particular field. For example, consider a schema that has entities Course and Module as follows :- Course int course_id, int name, int description Module int module_id, int name The course.name, course.description and module.name are all referencing the id field of the translated strings table :- TranslatedString int id, String lang, String content That all seems simple enough. I get one table for all strings that could be internationalised and that table is used across all the other tables. How might I do this in JPA, using eclipselink 2.4? I've looked at embedded ElementCollection, ala this... JPA 2.0: Mapping a Map - it isn't exactly what i'm after cos it looks like it is relating the translated strings table to the pk of the owning table. This means I can only have one translatable string field per entity (unless I add new join columns into the translatable strings table, which defeats the point, its the opposite of what I am trying to do). I'm also not clear on how this would work across entites, presumably the id of each entity would have to use a database wide sequence to ensure uniqueness of the translatable strings table. BTW, I tried the example as laid out in that link and it didn't work for me - as soon as the entity had a localizedString map added, persisting it caused the client side to bomb but no obvious error on the server side and nothing persisted in the DB :S I been around the houses on this about 9 hours so far, I've looked at this Internationalization with Hibernate which appears to be trying to do the same thing as the link above (without the table definitions it hard to see what he achieved). Any help would be gratefully achieved at this point... Edit 1 - re AMS anwser below, I'm not sure that really addresses the issue. In his example it leaves the storing of the description text to some other process. The idea of this type of approach is that the entity object takes the text and locale and this (somehow!) ends up in the translatable strings table. In the first link I gave, the guy is attempting to do this by using an embedded map, which I feel is the right approach. His way though has two issues - one it doesn't seem to work! and two if it did work, it is storing the FK in the embedded table instead of the other way round (I think, I can't get it to run so I can't see exactly how it persists). I suspect the correct approach ends up with a map reference in place of each text that needs translating (the map being locale-content), but I can't see how to do this in a way that allows for multiple maps in one entity (without having corresponding multiple columns in the translatable strings table)...

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  • Form validation with optional File Upload field callback

    - by MotiveKyle
    I have a form with some input fields and a file upload field in the same form. I am trying to include a callback into the form validation to check for file upload errors. Here is the controller for adding and the callback: public function add() { if ($this->ion_auth->logged_in()): //validate form input $this->form_validation->set_rules('title', 'title', 'trim|required|max_length[66]|min_length[2]'); // link url $this->form_validation->set_rules('link', 'link', 'trim|required|max_length[255]|min_length[2]'); // optional content $this->form_validation->set_rules('content', 'content', 'trim|min_length[2]'); $this->form_validation->set_rules('userfile', 'image', 'callback_validate_upload'); $this->form_validation->set_error_delimiters('<small class="error">', '</small>'); // if form was submitted, process form if ($this->form_validation->run()) { // add pin $pin_id = $this->pin_model->create(); $slug = strtolower(url_title($this->input->post('title'), TRUE)); // path to pin folder $file_path = './uploads/' . $pin_id . '/'; // if folder doesn't exist, create it if (!is_dir($file_path)) { mkdir($file_path); } // file upload config variables $config['upload_path'] = $file_path; $config['allowed_types'] = 'jpg|png'; $config['max_size'] = '2048'; $config['max_width'] = '1920'; $config['max_height'] = '1080'; $config['encrypt_name'] = TRUE; $this->load->library('upload', $config); // upload image file if ($this->upload->do_upload()) { $this->load->model('file_model'); $image_id = $this->file_model->insert_image_to_db($pin_id); $this->file_model->add_image_id_to_pin($pin_id, $image_id); } } // build page else: // User not logged in redirect("login", 'refresh'); endif; } The callback: function validate_upload() { if ($_FILES AND $_FILES['userfile']['name']): if ($this->upload->do_upload()): return true; else: $this->form_validation->set_message('validate_upload', $this->upload->display_errors()); return false; endif; else: return true; endif; } I am getting the error Fatal error: Call to a member function do_upload() on a non-object on line 92 when I try to run this. Line 92 is the if ($this->upload->do_upload()): line in the validate_upload callback. Am I going about this the right way? What's triggering this error?

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