Search Results

Search found 44910 results on 1797 pages for 'breadth first traversal'.

Page 413/1797 | < Previous Page | 409 410 411 412 413 414 415 416 417 418 419 420  | Next Page >

  • php: replacing double <br /> with </p><p>

    - by andufo
    i use nicEdit to write RTF data in my CMS. The problem is that it generates strings like this: hello first line<br><br />this is a second line<br />this is a 3rd line since this is for a news site, i much prefer the final html to be like this: <p>hello first line</p><p>this is a second line<br />this is a 3rd line</p> so my current solution is this: i need to trim the $data for <br /> at the start/end of the string replace <br /><br /> with </p><p> (one single <br /> is allowed). finally, add <p> at the start and </p> at the end i only have the 3rd step so far. can someone give me a hand with steps 1 and 2? function replace_br($data) { # step 3 $data = '<p>'.$data.'</p>'; return $data; } thanks! ps: it would be even better to avoid specific situations. example: "hello<br /><br /><br /><br /><br />too much space" -- those 5 breaklines should also be converted to just one "</p><p>"

    Read the article

  • form change with javascript

    - by aslum
    I have two drop down lists <select name="branch"> <option value="b">Blacksburg</option> <option value="c">Christiansburg</option> <option value="f">Floyd</option> <option value="m">Meadowbrook</option> </select> but I would like the second list to be different based upon what is selected from the first list. So FREX Blacksburg's might be <select name="room"> <option value="Kitchen">Kitchen Side</option> <option value="Closet">Closet Side</option> <option value="Full">Full Room</option> </select While Christiansburg's is <select name="room"> <option value="Window">Window Side</option> <option value="Door">Door Side</option> <option value="Full">Full Room</option> and of course the options are also different for the other branches... Is it possible to change the second drop down list based on what they select for the first one? I have used javascript a teensy bit, but not much so please explain in detail. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Can I version dotfiles within a project without merging their history into the main line?

    - by istrasci
    I'm sure this title is fairly obscure. I'm wondering if there is some way in git to tell it that you want a certain file to use different versions of a file when moving between branches, but to overall be .gitignored from the repository. Here's my scenario: I've got a Flash Builder project (for a Flex app) that I control with git. Flex apps in Flash Builder projects create three files: .actionScriptProperties, .flexProperties, and .project. These files contain lots of local file system references (source folders, output folders, etc.), so naturally we .gitignore them from our repo. Today, I wanted to use a new library in my project, so I made a separate git branch called lib, removed the old version of the library and put in the new one. Unfortunately, this Flex library information gets stored in one of those three dot files (not sure which offhand). So when I had to switch back to the first branch (master) earlier, I was getting compile errors because master was now linked to the new library (which basically negated why I made lib in the first place). So I'm wondering if there's any way for me to continue to .gitignore these files (so my other developers don't get them), but tell git that I want it to use some kind of local "branch version" so I can locally use different versions of the files for different branches.

    Read the article

  • How do you protect a common resource using mutexes?

    - by Steve
    I have a common resource, which I want 1 and only 1 instance of my application (or it's COM API) to have access to at any time. I have tried to protect this resource using mutexes, but when multiple threads of a host dotnet application try to access the COM object, the mutex doesn't seem to be released. This is the code I have used to protect my resource. repeat Mutex := CreateMutex(nil, True, PChar('Connections')); until (Mutex <> 0) and (GetLastError <> ERROR_ALREADY_EXISTS); try //use resource here! finally CloseHandle(Mutex); end; If I run the threads simultaneously, the first thread get's through (obviously, being the first one to create the mutex), but subsequent threads are caught in the repeat loop. If I run each thread at 5 second intervals, then all is ok. I suspect I'm not using mutexes correctly here, but I have found very little documentation about how to do this. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Trimming bit of the beginning off a recorder waveform

    - by Lowgain
    I've got a flash 10.1 app that lets me record microphone input to a wav without a media server, which I am saving to an Amazon S3 bucket. I have another process running on a server which gets wavs from this bucket, converts to mp3 using LAME and puts them into another bucket. This all works fine, but in converting wav mp3, about 0.1sec or so of silence is added to my sound. In the application this are being used in, perfect sync is critical, so I need to trim off that little bit. If I have to trim it off the original waveform that is okay, I don't expect anything important to happen in that first fraction of a second. What is the best way to go about this? I am using Adobe's WavWriter to convert by ByteArray into a proper waveform. Is there a way I can easily trim off the first few samples from my ByteArray without invalidating the structure? Alternatively, is there a good server-side tool I can use to trim the wav before running it through LAME, or an argument I can give LAME? Or, could I even trim that sound off the mp3 after it has been converted? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Why this Either-monad code does not type check?

    - by pf_miles
    instance Monad (Either a) where return = Left fail = Right Left x >>= f = f x Right x >>= _ = Right x this code frag in 'baby.hs' caused the horrible compilation error: Prelude> :l baby [1 of 1] Compiling Main ( baby.hs, interpreted ) baby.hs:2:18: Couldn't match expected type `a1' against inferred type `a' `a1' is a rigid type variable bound by the type signature for `return' at <no location info> `a' is a rigid type variable bound by the instance declaration at baby.hs:1:23 In the expression: Left In the definition of `return': return = Left In the instance declaration for `Monad (Either a)' baby.hs:3:16: Couldn't match expected type `[Char]' against inferred type `a1' `a1' is a rigid type variable bound by the type signature for `fail' at <no location info> Expected type: String Inferred type: a1 In the expression: Right In the definition of `fail': fail = Right baby.hs:4:26: Couldn't match expected type `a1' against inferred type `a' `a1' is a rigid type variable bound by the type signature for `>>=' at <no location info> `a' is a rigid type variable bound by the instance declaration at baby.hs:1:23 In the first argument of `f', namely `x' In the expression: f x In the definition of `>>=': Left x >>= f = f x baby.hs:5:31: Couldn't match expected type `b' against inferred type `a' `b' is a rigid type variable bound by the type signature for `>>=' at <no location info> `a' is a rigid type variable bound by the instance declaration at baby.hs:1:23 In the first argument of `Right', namely `x' In the expression: Right x In the definition of `>>=': Right x >>= _ = Right x Failed, modules loaded: none. why this happen? and how could I make this code compile ? thanks for any help~

    Read the article

  • Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManagerServerErrorException: .... The status code returned from the server w

    - by webnoob
    Hi All, I have seen a few posts regarding this issue but not one specific to my problem and I have no ideas as to what I need to do to debug this. I have some combo boxes on an aspx pages, when I select a value from the first one, it fills the second with value and so on with the third and fourth. This works with no problems until I wrap an asp.net UpdatePanel around the combo boxes and try to "ajaxify" the whole process so the page isn't dancing around. The exact error I get is: Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManagerServerErrorException: An unknown error occurred while processing the request on the server. The status code returned from the server was: 404 Some things to note: I am using URL rewriting - This is what I think is causing the problem The error will occur whenever I choose a selection for a SECOND time. This means that I could select a value from the first combo box and get the same error (so it is happening on the second postback - No matter which combo box it's from). I have tried setting the EnablePartialRendering="false" on teh scriptmanager but as I said, it works when not using ajax, so I don't know how to debug the issue. My server is Windows 2008 running IIS& with ASP.NET 2.0. I would really appreciate your help Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • How do I sign requests reliably for the Last.fm api in C#?

    - by Arda Xi
    I'm trying to implement authorization through Last.fm. I'm submitting my arguments as a Dictionary to make the signing easier. This is the code I'm using to sign my calls: public static string SignCall(Dictionary<string, string> args) { IOrderedEnumerable<KeyValuePair<string, string>> sortedArgs = args.OrderBy(arg => arg.Key); string signature = sortedArgs.Select(pair => pair.Key + pair.Value). Aggregate((first, second) => first + second); return MD5(signature + SecretKey); } I've checked the output in the debugger, it's exactly how it should be, however, I'm still getting WebExceptions every time I try. Here's my code I use to generate the URL in case it'll help: public static string GetSignedURI(Dictionary<string, string> args, bool get) { var stringBuilder = new StringBuilder(); if (get) stringBuilder.Append("http://ws.audioscrobbler.com/2.0/?"); foreach (var kvp in args) stringBuilder.AppendFormat("{0}={1}&", kvp.Key, kvp.Value); stringBuilder.Append("api_sig="+SignCall(args)); return stringBuilder.ToString(); } And sample usage to get a SessionKey: var args = new Dictionary<string, string> { {"method", "auth.getSession"}, {"api_key", ApiKey}, {"token", token} }; string url = GetSignedURI(args, true); EDIT: Oh, and the code references an MD5 function implemented like this: public static string MD5(string toHash) { byte[] textBytes = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(toHash); var cryptHandler = new System.Security.Cryptography.MD5CryptoServiceProvider(); byte[] hash = cryptHandler.ComputeHash(textBytes); return hash.Aggregate("", (current, a) => current + a.ToString("x2")); }

    Read the article

  • Oracle output: cursor, file, or very long string?

    - by Klay
    First, the setup: I have a table in an Oracle10g database with spatial columns. I need to be able to pass in a spatial reference so that I can reproject the geometry into an arbitrary coordinate system. Ultimately, I need to compress the results of this projection to a zip file and make it available for download through a Silverlight project. I would really appreciate ideas as to the best way to accomplish this. In the examples below, the SRID is the Spatial reference ID integer used to convert the geometric points into a new coordinate system. In particular, I can see a couple of possibilities. There are many more, but this is an idea of how I'm thinking: a) Pass SRID to a dynamic view -- perform projection, output a cursor -- send cursor to UTL_COMPRESS -- write output to a file (somehow) -- send URL to Silverlight app b) Use SRID to call Oracle function from Silverlight app -- perform projection, output a string -- build strings into a file -- compress file using SharpZipLib library in .NET -- send bytestream back to Silverlight app I've done the first two steps of b), and the conversion of 100 points took about 7 seconds, which is unacceptably slow. I'm hoping it would be faster doing the processing totally in Oracle. If anyone can see potential problems with either way of doing this, or can suggest a better way, it would be very helpful. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Jquery .val() for input only works once.

    - by Bolt_Head
    I'm trying to create a chat box for my game. The user type's their chat into the input:text feild and by ither pressing Enter or clicking the button submits the chat text. This all works, however for some reason after the first time a user submits a chat message it fails to get the text from the input field. Here is my code. $(document).ready(function() { $("#chatEnter").live('click',function(){ var chat = $('#chatText').val(); sendChat(chat); }); }); $(document).ready(function() { $("#chatText").keypress(function(e){ if ((e.which && e.which == 13) || (e.keyCode && e.keyCode == 13)) { var chat = $('#chatText').val(); sendChat(chat); return false; } else return true; }); }); function sendChat(chat) { alert(chat); //temp test alert $.getJSON("includes/boardUpdate.php",{chat: chat, bid: bid}); $('#chatText').val(""); } It doesn't matter if i first submit a text by clicking the button or pressing enter, all future attempts submit blank entrys until I refresh the page. Edit: I've tried it with and without the line to clear the text box, same results both ways. Your help is appreciated.

    Read the article

  • linux new/delete, malloc/free large memory blocks

    - by brian_mk
    Hi folks, We have a linux system (kubuntu 7.10) that runs a number of CORBA Server processes. The server software uses glibc libraries for memory allocation. The linux PC has 4G physical memory. Swap is disabled for speed reasons. Upon receiving a request to process data, one of the server processes allocates a large data buffer (using the standard C++ operator 'new'). The buffer size varies depening upon a number of parameters but is typically around 1.2G Bytes. It can be up to about 1.9G Bytes. When the request has completed, the buffer is released using 'delete'. This works fine for several consecutive requests that allocate buffers of the same size or if the request allocates a smaller size than the previous. The memory appears to be free'd ok - otherwise buffer allocation attempts would eventually fail after just a couple of requests. In any case, we can see the buffer memory being allocated and freed for each request using tools such as KSysGuard etc. The problem arises when a request requires a buffer larger than the previous. In this case, operator 'new' throws an exception. It's as if the memory that has been free'd from the first allocation cannot be re-allocated even though there is sufficient free physical memory available. If I kill and restart the server process after the first operation, then the second request for a larger buffer size succeeds. i.e. killing the process appears to fully release the freed memory back to the system. Can anyone offer an explanation as to what might be going on here? Could it be some kind of fragmentation or mapping table size issue? I am thinking of replacing new/delete with malloc/free and use mallopt to tune the way the memory is being released to the system. BTW - I'm not sure if it's relevant to our problem, but the server uses Pthreads that get created and destroyed on each processing request. Cheers, Brian.

    Read the article

  • XSLT inserting once off custom text

    - by BeraCim
    Hi all: The folloiwng is a pre-existing xml file. I was wondering how can I insert a element before the first element using xslt? <XmlFile> <!-- insert another <tag> element here --> <tag> <innerTag> </innerTag> </tag> <tag> <innerTag> </innerTag> </tag> <tag> <innerTag> </innerTag> </tag> </XmlFile> I was thinking of using a for-each loop and test the position = 0, but upon the first occurence of the for-each its already too late. This is a once-off text so I can't combine it with other xslt templates that are already inside the xsl file. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • rails Rake and mysql ssh port forwarding.

    - by rube_noob
    Hello, I need to create a rake task to do some active record operations via a ssh tunnel. The rake task is run on a remote windows machine so I would like to keep things in ruby. This is my latest attempt. desc "Syncronizes the tablets DB with the Server" task(:sync => :environment) do require 'rubygems' require 'net/ssh' begin Thread.abort_on_exception = true tunnel_thread = Thread.new do Thread.current[:ready] = false hostname = 'host' username = 'tunneluser' Net::SSH.start(hostname, username) do|ssh| ssh.forward.local(3333, "mysqlhost.com", 3306) Thread.current[:ready] = true puts "ready thread" ssh.loop(0) { true } end end until tunnel_thread[:ready] == true do end puts "tunnel ready" Importer.sync rescue StandardError => e puts "The Database Sync Failed." end end The task seems to hang at "tunnel ready" and never attempts the sync. I have had success when running first a rake task to create the tunnel and then running the rake sync in a different terminal. I want to combine these however so that if there is an error with the tunnel it will not attempt the sync. This is my first time using ruby Threads and Net::SSH forwarding so I am not sure what is the issue here. Any Ideas!? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Volatile fields in C#

    - by Danny Chen
    From the specification 10.5.3 Volatile fields: The type of a volatile field must be one of the following: A reference-type. The type byte, sbyte, short, ushort, int, uint, char, float, bool, System.IntPtr, or System.UIntPtr. An enum-type having an enum base type of byte, sbyte, short, ushort, int, or uint. First I want to confirm my understanding is correct: I guess the above types can be volatile because they are stored as a 4-bytes unit in memory(for reference types because of its address), which guarantees the read/write operation is atomic. A double/long/etc type can't be volatile because they are not atomic reading/writing since they are more than 4 bytes in memory. Is my understanding correct? And the second, if the first guess is correct, why a user defined struct with only one int field in it(or something similar, 4 bytes is ok) can't be volatile? Theoretically it's atomic right? Or it's not allowed simply because that all user defined structs(which is possibly more than 4 bytes) are not allowed to volatile by design?

    Read the article

  • How to replace custom IDs in the order of their appearance with a shell script?

    - by Péter Török
    I have a pair of rather large log files with very similar content, except that some identifiers are different between the two. A couple of examples: UnifiedClassLoader3@19518cc | UnifiedClassLoader3@d0357a JBossRMIClassLoader@13c2d7f | JBossRMIClassLoader@191777e That is, wherever the first file contains UnifiedClassLoader3@19518cc, the second contains UnifiedClassLoader3@d0357a, and so on. I want to replace these with identical IDs so that I can spot the really important differences between the two files. I.e. I want to replace all occurrences of both UnifiedClassLoader3@19518cc in file1 and UnifiedClassLoader3@d0357a in file2 with UnifiedClassLoader3@1; all occurrences of both JBossRMIClassLoader@13c2d7f in file1 and JBossRMIClassLoader@191777e in file2 with JBossRMIClassLoader@2 etc. Using the Cygwin shell, so far I managed to list all different identifiers occurring in one of the files with grep -o -e 'ClassLoader[0-9]*@[0-9a-f][0-9a-f]*' file1.log | sort | uniq However, now the original order is lost, so I don't know which is the pair of which ID in the other file. With grep -n I can get the line number, so the sort would preserve the order of appearance, but then I can't weed out the duplicate occurrences. Unfortunately grep can not print only the first match of a pattern. I figured I could save the list of identifiers produced by the above command into a file, then iterate over the patterns in the file with grep -n | head -n 1, concatenate the results and sort them again. The result would be something like 2 ClassLoader3@19518cc 137 ClassLoader@13c2d7f 563 ClassLoader3@1267649 ... Then I could (either manually or with sed itself) massage this into a sed command like sed -e 's/ClassLoader3@19518cc/ClassLoader3@2/g' -e 's/ClassLoader@13c2d7f/ClassLoader@137/g' -e 's/ClassLoader3@1267649/ClassLoader3@563/g' file1.log > file1_processed.log and similarly for file2. However, before I start, I would like to verify that my plan is the simplest possible working solution to this. Is there any flaw in this approach? Is there a simpler way?

    Read the article

  • Exec problem in SQL Server 2005

    - by IordanTanev
    Hi, I have the situation where i have two databases with same structure. The first have some data in its data tables. I need to create a script that will transfer the data from the first database to the second. I have created this script. DECLARE @table_name nvarchar(MAX), @query nvarchar(MAX) DECLARE @table_cursor CURSOR SET @table_cursor = CURSOR FAST_FORWARD FOR SELECT TABLE_NAME FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES OPEN @table_cursor FETCH NEXT FROM @table_cursor INTO @table_name WHILE @@FETCH_STATUS = 0 BEGIN SET @query = 'INSERT INTO ' + @table_name + ' SELECT * FROM MyDataBase.dbo.' + @table_name print @query exec @query FETCH NEXT FROM @table_cursor INTO @table_name END CLOSE @table_cursor DEALLOCATE @table_cursor The problem is that when I run the script the "print @query" statement prints statement like this INSERT INTO table SELECT * FROM MyDataBase.dbo.table When I copy this and run it from Management studio it works fine. But when the script tries to run it with exec I get this error Msg 911, Level 16, State 1, Line 21 Could not locate entry in sysdatabases for database 'INSERT INTO table SELECT * FROM MPDEV090314'. No entry found with that name. Make sure that the name is entered correctly. Hope someone can tell me whot is wront with this. Best Regards, Iordan Tanev

    Read the article

  • Using java.util.regex in Android apps - are there issues with this?

    - by johnrock
    In an Android app I have a utility class that I use to parse strings for 2 regEx's. I compile the 2 patterns in a static initializer so they only get compiled once, then activities can use the parsing methods statically. This works fine except that the first time the class is accessed and loaded, and the static initializer compiles the pattern, the UI hangs for close to a MINUTE while it compiles the pattern! After the first time, it flies on all subsequent calls to parseString(). My regEx that I am using is rather large - 847 characters, but in a normal java webapp this is lightning fast. I am testing this so far only in the emulator with a 1.5 AVD. Could this just be an emulator issue or is there some other reason that this pattern is taking so long to compile? private static final String exp1 = "(insertratherlong---847character--regexhere)"; private static Pattern regex1 = null; private static final String newLineAndTagsExp = "[<>\\s]"; private static Pattern regexNewLineAndTags = null; static { regex1 = Pattern.compile(exp1, Pattern.CASE_INSENSITIVE); regexNewLineAndTags = Pattern.compile(newLineAndTagsExp); } public static String parseString(CharSequence inputStr) { String replacementStr = "replaceMentText"; String resultString = "none"; try { Matcher regexMatcher = regex1.matcher(inputStr); try { resultString = regexMatcher.replaceAll(replacementStr); } catch (IllegalArgumentException ex) { } catch (IndexOutOfBoundsException ex) { } } catch (PatternSyntaxException ex) { } return resultString; }

    Read the article

  • What is the right pattern for a async data fetching method in .net async/await

    - by s093294
    Given a class with a method GetData. A few other clients call GetData, and instead of it fetching data each time, i would like to create a pattern where the first call starts the task to get the data, and the rest of the calls wait for the task to complete. private Task<string> _data; private async Task<string> _getdata() { return "my random data from the net"; //get_data_from_net() } public string GetData() { if(_data==null) _data=_getdata(); _data.wait(); //are there not a problem here. cant wait a task that is already completed ? if(_data.status != rantocompletion) _data.wait() is not any better, it might complete between the check and the _data.wait? return _data.Result; } How would i do the pattern correctly? (Solution) private static object _servertime_lock = new object(); private static Task<string> _servertime; private static async Task<string> servertime() { try { var thetvdb = new HttpClient(); thetvdb.Timeout = TimeSpan.FromSeconds(5); // var st = await thetvdb.GetStreamAsync("http://www.thetvdb.com/api/Updates.php?type=none"); var response = await thetvdb.GetAsync("http://www.thetvdb.com/api/Updates.php?type=none"); response.EnsureSuccessStatusCode(); Stream stream = await response.Content.ReadAsStreamAsync(); XDocument xdoc = XDocument.Load(stream); return xdoc.Descendants("Time").First().Value; } catch { return null; } } public static async Task<string> GetServerTime() { lock (_servertime_lock) { if (_servertime == null) _servertime = servertime(); } var time = await _servertime; if (time == null) _servertime = null; return time; }

    Read the article

  • Two questions on ensuring EndInvoke() gets called on a list of IAsyncResult objects

    - by RobV
    So this question is regarding the .Net IAsyncResult design pattern and the necessity of calling EndInvoke as covered in this question Background I have some code where I'm firing off potentially many asynchronous calls to a particular function and then waiting for all these calls to finish before using EndInvoke() to get back all the results. Question 1 I don't know whether any of the calls has encountered an exception until I call EndInvoke() and in the event that an exception occurs in one of the calls the entire method should fail and the exception gets wrapped into an API specific exception and thrown upwards. So my first question is what's the best way then to ensure that the remainder of the async calls get properly terminated? Is a finally block which calls EndInvoke() on the remainder of the unterminated calls (and ignores any further exceptions) the best way to do this? Question 2 Secondly when I first fire off all my asyc calls I then call WaitHandle.WaitAll() on the array of WaitHandle instances that I've got from my IAsyncResult instances. The method which is firing all these async calls has a timeout to adhere to so I provide this to the WaitAll() method. Then I test whether all the calls have completed, if not then the timeout must have been reached so the method should also fail and throw another API specific exception. So my second question is what should I do in this case? I need to call EndInvoke() to terminate all these async calls before I throw the error but at the same time I don't want the code to get stuck since EndInvoke() is blocking. In theory at least if the WaitAll() call times out then all the async calls should themselves have timed out and thrown exceptions (thus completing the call) since they are also governed by a timeout but this timeout is potentially different from the main timeout

    Read the article

  • Join two tables with same # of row but sorted for NULL

    - by VISQL
    I need to join two tables with the same number of rows. Each table has 1 column. There is NO CONNECTING COLUMN to reference for a join. I need to join them side by side because each table was sorted separately so that numeric values are at the top in descinding order. The Table Earners has income values from say 200K down to 0. I cannot just select using 2 cases, because then I will have my first row with Incomes above 100K, but the first 20 or so entries in the second row are NULL. I want the second row to also be sorted descending. I looked up using ORDER BY within CASE but there is no such thing. I have tried to read about row_number() but none of the examples seem to match or make sense. drop table #20plus select case when Income >= 20000 AND Income < 100000 then Income end as 'mula' into #20plus from Earners order by mula desc drop table #100plus select case when Income >= 100000 then Income end as 'dinero' into #100plus from Earners order by dinero desc Select A.dinero, B.mula FROM #100plus as A JOIN #20plus as B ON A.????? = B.????? Since both A and B are sorted descending, moving all NULL to the bottom, what can I reference to join the two tables? Previous output using one SELECT statement with 2 CASE statements dinero mula 2.12688e+007 NULL 1.80031e+007 NULL 1.92415e+006 NULL … … NULL 93530.7 NULL 91000 NULL 84500 Desired output using one SELECT statement after creating two temp TABLES dinero mula 2.12688e+007 93530.7 1.80031e+007 91000 1.92415e+006 84500 … 82500 NULL 82000 NULL … NULL NULL This is Microsoft SQL Server 2008. I'm super new to this, so please give an answer as clear and simplified as possible. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • jQuery Tablesorter - column not sorting alphabetically

    - by McGirl
    I'm not sure what's going wrong here. This is the page: http://www.utexas.edu/ssw/cswr/projects/project-list/ The first column sorts, but it isn't returning data in the correct order (alphabetical). The table itself is being generated by a custom PHP function that pulls info from a WordPress database. I thought that might be the issue, but as you can see the fourth column (End Date) sorts correctly. I also thought it might be the links in the first column that were messing things up, but adding the text-extraction code from this page broke the sorting altogether. This is the jQuery code I'm current using to call Tablesorter: <script type="text/javascript" id="js"> jQuery(document).ready(function($) { $(document).ready(function() { // call the tablesorter plugin, the magic happens in the markup $("#projectTable").tablesorter({ // pass the headers argument and assing a object //debug: true, //sortList: [[0,0]], headers: { 0: { // set the column to sort as text sorter: 'text', }, // assign the secound column (we start counting zero) 1: { // disable it by setting the property sorter to false sorter: false, }, // assign the third column (we start counting zero) 2: { // disable it by setting the property sorter to false sorter: false }, 3: { sorter:'digit' } } }); // Works only with plugin modification $("#projectTable").bind("sortStart",function(e) { if( $(e.target).hasClass('header') ) { $("#overlay").show(); } }).bind("sortEnd",function(e) { if( $(e.target).hasClass('header') ) { $("#overlay").hide(); } }); }); }); </script> Thanks for your help!

    Read the article

  • How do I reliably get the size of my iPhone view taking rotations into consideration?

    - by Sebastian Celis
    My application uses a UITabBarController, multiple UINavigationControllers, and supports autorotation. In order to properly layout the subviews within each UIViewController's main view, I really need to know the size available to the UIViewContoller. I need this size to take the UINavigationBar, the UITabBar, and the status bar all into account, and thus only return the size available to the content view. I thought for sure I could use the following from within the UIViewController's code: CGRect viewControllerBounds = [[self view] bounds]; However, there are a couple of issues with this approach: The first time the view is loaded, viewControllerBounds reports the view as being 320 pixels wide by 460 pixels tall. This is wrong. With a status bar and a navigation bar showing, the height should only be 416 pixels. However, if I rotate the simulator to landscape and then rotate back, the height of viewControllerBounds changes to 416. If I rotate the first view in the navigation controller to landscape mode and then push another view controller onto the stack, viewControllerBounds for the new view reports a width of 300 pixels and a height of 480 pixels. So the view's bounds didn't even take the rotation into account. Is there a better way to do this? I really don't want to have to start hardcoding the widths and heights of all the various UI elements the iPhone OS provides. I have tried setting the autoresizing mask of the UIViewController's view, but that doesn't seem to change anything. The views definitely seem to be displaying properly. When I set a background color that view looks like it takes up all of the space available to it. Any pointers would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Python Newbie: Sphinx on App Engine - too much at a time?

    - by Pekka
    Following up on my last year's question on documentation, I now want to get started and try out Python-based Sphinx for putting together the developer documentation for a PHP CMS I've been working on. Instead of setting up Python locally on my workstation, I would like to run it on a publicly accessible web server from the start. All the web hosting packages I have access to run on the LAMP stack, and I'm reluctant to buy Python-based hosting. I am very interested in the Google App Engine, the free quotas they provide will do for me a hundred times over, and even if not, their pricing looks very reasonable. Now I have zero knowledge of Python - getting Sphinx to work would be my first contact with it - and very little time. As far as I understand, the platform and python libraries the App Engine provides are very compatible to a standard Python library but not identical. So my question is: Can Sphinx run on App Engine at all? Is installing Sphinx on the App Engine as straightforward as if I would install it on top of a normal Python installation? Or will the App Engine's environment require tweaking of the source code that I can't perform in reasonable time with my current level of Python? Should I be installing Sphinx on a local server and a "normal" Python stack instead first? Does anybody know any helpful How-to's, tutorials or other resources for this?

    Read the article

  • Jquery Tabs Help

    - by Jacinto
    So I am trying to make a tabs in a menu but cant make the whole width of each of the tabs 219px. it only allows me to make the li 219 but I wanna make the li a 219px. I cant seem to figure it out. Also is there a way to make a next button or would the best way to go to each tab and literally put in the next tab in a type of way? any help would be greatly appreciated Css .servicesNavigation li { float: left; list-style: none; width: 219px; } ul.servicesNavigation li a { padding: 3px 5px; background-color: #ccc; color: #000; text-decoration: none; width: 219px; } ul.servicesNavigation li a.selected, ul.tabNavigation li a:hover { background-color: #333; color: #fff; padding-top: 7px; } ul.servicesNavigation li a:focus { outline: 0; } HTML <ul class="servicesNavigation"> <li><a href="#Web">Web</a></li> <li><a href="#Print">Print</a></li> <li><a href="#DynamicContent">Dynamic Content</a></li> <li><a href="#Hosting">Hosting</a></li> </ul> Jquery var tabContainers = $('div.servicesInfo > div'); tabContainers.hide().filter(':first').show(); $('div.servicesInfo ul.servicesNavigation a').click(function () { tabContainers.hide(); tabContainers.filter(this.hash).show(); $('div.servicesInfo ul.servicesNavigation a').removeClass('selected'); $(this).addClass('selected'); return false; }).filter(':first').click();

    Read the article

  • PHP - Best practice to retain form values across postback

    - by Adam
    Hello, Complete PHP novice here, almost all my previous work was in ASP.NET. I am now working on a PHP project, and the first rock I have stumbled upon is retaining values across postback. For the most simple yet still realistic example, i have 10 dropdowns. They are not even databound yet, as that is my next step. They are simple dropdowns. I have my entire page inclosed in a tag. the onclick() event for each dropdown, calls a javascript function that will populate the corrosponding dropdowns hidden element, with the dropdowns selected value. Then, upon page reload, if that hidden value is not empty, i set the selected option = that of my hidden. This works great for a single postback. However, when another dropdown is changed, the original 1'st dropdown loses its value, due to its corrosponding hidden value losing its value as well! This draws me to look into using querystring, or sessions, or... some other idea. Could someone point me in the right direction, as to which option is the best in my situation? I am a PHP novice, however I am being required to do some pretty intense stuff for my skill level, so I need something flexable and preferribly somewhat easy to use. Thanks! -----edit----- A little more clarification on my question :) When i say 'PostBack' I am referring to the page/form being submitted. The control is passed back to the server, and the HTML/PHP code is executed again. As for the dropdowns & hiddens, the reason I used hidden variables to retain the "selected value" or "selected index", is so that when the page is submitted, I am able to redraw the dropdown with the previous selection, instead of defaulting back to the first index. When I use the $_POST[] command, I am unable to retrieve the dropdown by name, but I am able to retrieve the hidden value by name. This is why upon dropdown-changed event, I call javascript which sets the selected value from the dropdown into its corrosponding hidden.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 409 410 411 412 413 414 415 416 417 418 419 420  | Next Page >