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  • What are the rules governing how a bind variable can be used in Postgres and where is this defined?

    - by Craig Miles
    I can have a table and function defined as: CREATE TABLE mytable ( mycol integer ); INSERT INTO mytable VALUES (1); CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION myfunction (l_myvar integer) RETURNS mytable AS $$ DECLARE l_myrow mytable; BEGIN SELECT * INTO l_myrow FROM mytable WHERE mycol = l_myvar; RETURN l_myrow; END; $$ LANGUAGE plpgsql; In this case l_myvar acts as a bind variable for the value passed when I call: SELECT * FROM myfunction(1); and returns the row where mycol = 1 If I redefine the function as: CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION myfunction (l_myvar integer) RETURNS mytable AS $$ DECLARE l_myrow mytable; BEGIN SELECT * INTO l_myrow FROM mytable WHERE mycol IN (l_myvar); RETURN l_myrow; END; $$ LANGUAGE plpgsql; SELECT * FROM myfunction(1); still returns the row where mycol = 1 However, if I now change the function definition to allow me to pass an integer array and try to this array in the IN clause, I get an error: CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION myfunction (l_myvar integer[]) RETURNS mytable AS $$ DECLARE l_myrow mytable; BEGIN SELECT * INTO l_myrow FROM mytable WHERE mycol IN (array_to_string(l_myvar, ',')); RETURN l_myrow; END; $$ LANGUAGE plpgsql; Analysis reveals that although: SELECT array_to_string(ARRAY[1, 2], ','); returns 1,2 as expected SELECT * FROM myfunction(ARRAY[1, 2]); returns the error operator does not exist: integer = text at the line: WHERE mycol IN (array_to_string(l_myvar, ',')); If I execute: SELECT * FROM mytable WHERE mycol IN (1,2); I get the expected result. Given that array_to_string(l_myvar, ',') evaluates to 1,2 as shown, why arent these statements equivalent. From the error message it is something to do with datatypes, but doesnt the IN(variable) construct appear to be behaving differently from the = variable construct? What are the rules here? I know that I could build a statement to EXECUTE, treating everything as a string, to achieve what I want to do, so I am not looking for that as a solution. I do want to understand though what is going on in this example. Is there a modification to this approach to make it work, the particular example being to pass in an array of values to build a dynamic IN clause without resorting to EXECUTE? Thanks in advance Craig

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  • Can highlight the current menu item, but can't add the class= to style unhighleted menu items

    - by bradpotts
    <?php $activesidebar[$currentsidebar]="id=isactive";?> <div class="span3"> <div class="well sidebar-nav hidden-phone"> <ul class="nav nav-list"> <li class="nav-header" <?php echo $activesidebar[1] ?>>Marketing Services</li> <li><a href="#">Marketing Technology</a></li> <li><a href="#">Generate More Sales</a></li> <li><a href="#">Direct Email Marketing</a></li> <li class="nav-header" <?php echo $activesidebar[2] ?>>Advertising Services</li> <li><a href="../services-advertising-mass-media-network.php">Traditional Medias</a></li> <li><a href="#">Online & Social Medias</a></li> <li><a href="#">Media Planing & Purchasing</a></li> <li class="nav-header" <?php echo $activesidebar[3] ?>>Technology Services</li> <li><a href="#">Managed Websites</a></li> <li><a href="#">Managed Web Servers</a></li> <li><a href="#">Managed Databases</a></li> <li class="nav-header" <?php echo $activesidebar[4] ?>>About Us</li> <li><a href="../aboutus-contactus.php">Contact Us</a></li> </ul> </div> This is added to the current page I want to add this on. <?php $currentsidebar =2; include('module-sidebar-navigation.php');?> I had programmed this menu individually on each page, but to make my website dynamic I used one file and use php includes to load the file. I can get the menu to highlight on the current page assigning an id="isactive", how can I assign id="notactive" to the other 3 menu items that are not active on that page. Is there an else or elseif I have to include?

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  • Calling a function that resides in the main page from a plugin?

    - by Justin Lee
    I want to call a function from within plugin, but the function is on the main page and not the plugin's .js file. EDIT I have jQuery parsing a very large XML file and building, subsequently, a large list (1.1 MB HTML file when dynamic content is copied, pasted, then saved) that has expand/collapse functionality through a plugin. The overall performance on IE is super slow and doggy, assuming since the page/DOM is so big. I am currently trying to save the collapsed content in the event.data when it is collapsed and remove it from the DOM, then bring it back when it is told to expand... the issue that I am having is that when I bring the content back, obviously the "click" and "hover" events are gone. I'm trying to re-assign them, currently doing so inside the plugin after the plugin expands the content. The issue then though is that is says the function that I declare within the .click() is not defined. Also the hover event doesn't seem to be re-assigning either.... if ($(event.data.trigger).attr('class').indexOf('collapsed') != -1 ) { // if expanding // console.log(event.data.targetContent); $(event.data.trigger).after(event.data.targetContent); $(event.data.target).hide(); /* This Line --->*/ $(event.data.target + 'a.addButton').click(addResourceToList); $(event.data.target + 'li.resource') .hover( function() { if (!($(this).attr("disabled"))) { $(this).addClass("over"); $(this).find("a").css({'display':'block'}); } }, function () { if (!($(this).attr("disabled"))) { $(this).removeClass("over"); $(this).children("a").css({'display':'none'}); } } ); $(event.data.target).css({ "height": "0px", "padding-top": "0px", "padding-bottom": "0px", "margin-top": "0px", "margin-bottom": "0px"}); $(event.data.target).show(); $(event.data.target).animate({ height: event.data.heightVal + "px", paddingTop: event.data.topPaddingVal + "px", paddingBottom: event.data.bottomPaddingVal + "px", marginTop: event.data.topMarginVal + "px", marginBottom: event.data.bottomMarginVal + "px"}, "normal");//, function(){$(this).hide();}); $(event.data.trigger).removeClass("collapsed"); $.cookies.set('jcollapserSub_' + event.data.target, 'expanded', {hoursToLive: 24 * 365}); } else if ($(event.data.trigger).attr('class').indexOf('collapsed') == -1 ) { // if collapsing $(event.data.target).animate({ height: "0px", paddingTop: "0px", paddingBottom: "0px", marginTop: "0px", marginBottom: "0px"}, "normal", function(){$(this).hide();$(this).remove();}); $(event.data.trigger).addClass("collapsed"); $.cookies.set('jcollapserSub_' + event.data.target, 'collapsed', {hoursToLive: 24 * 365}); } EDIT So, having new eyes truly makes a difference. As I was reviewing the code in this post this morning after being away over the weekend, I found where I had err'd. This: $(event.data.target + 'a.addButton').click(addResourceToList); Should be this (notice the space before a.addbutton): $(event.data.target + ' a.addButton').click(addResourceToList); Same issue with the "li.resource". So it was never pointing to the right elements... Thank you, Rene, for your help!!

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  • Symfony2 Forms: is it possible to bind a form in an "unconventional way"?

    - by DonCallisto
    Imagine this scenario: in our company there is an employee that "play" around graphic,css,html and so on. Our new project will born under symfony2 so we're trying some silly - but "real" - stuff (like authentication from db, submit data from a form and persist it to db and so on..) The problem As far i know, learnt from symfony2 "book" that i found on the site (you can find it here), there is an "automated" way for creating and rendering forms: 1) Build the form up into a controller in this way $form = $this->createFormBuilder($task) ->add('task','text'), ->add('dueDate','date'), ->getForm(); return $this->render('pathToBundle:Controller:templateTwig', array('form'=>$form->createview()); 2) Into templateTwig render the template {{ form_widget(form) }} // or single rows method 3) Into a controller (the same that have a route where you can submit data), take back submitted information if($rquest->getMethod()=='POST'){ $form->bindRequest($request); /* and so on */ } Return to scenario Our graphic employee don't want to access controllers, write php and other stuff like those. So he'll write a twig template with a "unconventional" (from symfony2 point of view, but conventional from HTML point of view) method: /* into twig template */ <form action="{{ path('SestanteUserBundle_homepage') }}" method="post" name="userForm"> <div> USERNAME: <input type="text" name="user_name" value="{{ user.username}}"/> </div> <div> EMAIL: <input type="text" name="user_mail" value="{{ user.email }}"/> </div> <input type="hidden" name="user_id" value="{{ id }}" /> <input type="submit" value="modifica i dati"> </form> Now, if into the controller that handle the submission of data we do something like that public function indexAction(Request $request) { if($request->getMethod() == 'POST'){ // sono arrivato per via di un submit, quindi devo modificare i dati prima di farli vedere a video $defaultData = array('message'=>'ho visto questa cosa in esempio, ma non capisco se posso farne a meno'); $form = $this->createFormBuilder($defaultData) ->add('user_name','text') ->add('user_mail','email') ->add('user_id','integer') ->getForm(); $form->bindRequest($request); //bindo la form ad una request $data = $form->getData(); //mi aspetto un'array chiave=>valore /* .... */ We expected that $data will contain an array with key,value from the submitted form. We found that it isn't true. After googling for a while and try with other "bad" ideas, we're frozen into that. So, if you have a "graphic office" that can't handle directly php code, how can we interface from form(s) to controller(s) ? UPDATE It seems that Symfony2 use a different convention for form's field name and lookup once you've submitted that. In particular, if my form's name is addUser and a field is named userName, the field's name will be AddUser[username] so maybe it have a "dynamic" lookup method that will extract form's name, field's name, concat them and lookup for values. Is it possible?

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  • Retain a list of objects and pass it to the create/edit view when validation fails in ASP.NET MVC 2

    - by brainnovative
    I am binding a Foreign key property in my model. I am passing a list of possible values for that property in my model. The model looks something like this: public class UserModel { public bool Email { get; set; } public bool Name { get; set; } public RoleModel Role { get; set; } public IList<RoleModel> Roles { get; set; } } public class RoleModel { public string RoleName { get; set; } } This is what I have in the controller: public ActionResult Create() { IList<RoleModel> roles = RoleModel.FromArray(_userService.GetAllRoles()); UserModel model = new UserModel() { Roles = roles }; return View(model); } In the view I have: <div class="editor-label"> <%= Html.LabelFor(model => model.Role) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%= Html.DropDownListFor(model => model.Role, new SelectList(Model.Roles, "RoleName", "RoleName", Model.Role))%> <%= Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Role)%> </div> What do I need to do to get the list of roles back to my controller to pass it again to the view when validation fails. This is what I need: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Create(UserModel model) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { // insert logic here } //the validation fails so I pass the model again to the view for user to update data but model.Roles is null :( return View(model); } As written in the comments above I need to pass the model with the list of roles again to my view but model.Roles is null. Currently I ask the service again for the roles (model.Roles = RoleModel.FromArray(_userService.GetAllRoles());) but I don't want to add an extra overhead of getting the list from DB when I have already done that.. Anyone knows how to do it?

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  • Having problems creating an array from XML data in Acrobat Javascript, please help if you can

    - by Kevin Minke
    I have a manually created array that already works example below: var PartsData = { 179: { ref:"", partNum: "201-2007-C00-00", descript: "System Monitor Card (Tracewell Only)", cage: "39764", qty: "1", SMR: "XBOZZ", UOC: "A" }}; Now this array above is is just one value in the array and it works fine. Here is the XML that I am trying to use to dynamically change the values. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <partsTables> <partsList> <part sheetNum="ta1"> <breakDownIndexNo>-1 </breakDownIndexNo> <referenceDesg/> <indent>20534220P01 </indent> <description/> <cage>TAC RI, GRADE-A SHOCK (TEC RACK), ALT P/N 72304-1</cage> <qtyPerAssy>23991 </qtyPerAssy> <smr>1 </smr> <uoc>ADODD </uoc> <blank/> </part> </partsList> </partsTables> I have this parsing just fine in Acrobat. Now I want to make the array work for me in using these values. if I have the following below it will work. Where part.item(i).indent.value equals the value of the indent node, etc. newArr = { 179: { ref: part.item(i).referenceDesg.value, partNum: part.item(i).indent.value, descript: part.item(i).cage.value, cage: part.item(i).qtyPerAssy.value, qty: part.item(i).smr.value, SMR: part.item(i).uoc.value, UOC: part.item(i).blank.value}}; As soon as I try to make the 179 value, which is in the breakDownIndexNo node, dynamic by using the direct part.item(i).breakDownIndexNo.value it will not compile. Acrobat is using javascript so I'm not sure why I can not get this to parse. I have tried to create a variable out of the breakDownIndexNo node and typed it to both a String and an Integer. this will let it create the array but it will not let me output from the array. newArr[indexNum].partNum gives me "no properties" where newArr[179].partNum if I were to manually set the index number to 179 will print out the value of part.item(i).indent.value. If any of you have an idea or an answer please let me know.

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  • Implications of trying to double free memory space in C

    - by SidNoob
    Here' my piece of code: #include <stdio.h> #include<stdlib.h> struct student{ char *name; }; int main() { struct student s; s.name = malloc(sizeof(char *)); // I hope this is the right way... printf("Name: "); scanf("%[^\n]", s.name); printf("You Entered: \n\n"); printf("%s\n", s.name); free(s.name); // This will cause my code to break } All I know is that dynamic allocation on the 'heap' needs to be freed. My question is, when I run the program, sometimes the code runs successfully. i.e. ./struct Name: Thisis Myname You Entered: Thisis Myname I tried reading this I've concluded that I'm trying to double-free a piece of memory i.e. I'm trying to free a piece of memory that is already free? (hope I'm correct here. If Yes, what could be the Security Implications of a double-free?) While it fails sometimes as its supposed to: ./struct Name: CrazyFishMotorhead Rider You Entered: CrazyFishMotorhead Rider *** glibc detected *** ./struct: free(): invalid next size (fast): 0x08adb008 *** ======= Backtrace: ========= /lib/tls/i686/cmov/libc.so.6(+0x6b161)[0xb7612161] /lib/tls/i686/cmov/libc.so.6(+0x6c9b8)[0xb76139b8] /lib/tls/i686/cmov/libc.so.6(cfree+0x6d)[0xb7616a9d] ./struct[0x8048533] /lib/tls/i686/cmov/libc.so.6(__libc_start_main+0xe6)[0xb75bdbd6] ./struct[0x8048441] ======= Memory map: ======== 08048000-08049000 r-xp 00000000 08:01 288098 /root/struct 08049000-0804a000 r--p 00000000 08:01 288098 /root/struct 0804a000-0804b000 rw-p 00001000 08:01 288098 /root/struct 08adb000-08afc000 rw-p 00000000 00:00 0 [heap] b7400000-b7421000 rw-p 00000000 00:00 0 b7421000-b7500000 ---p 00000000 00:00 0 b7575000-b7592000 r-xp 00000000 08:01 788956 /lib/libgcc_s.so.1 b7592000-b7593000 r--p 0001c000 08:01 788956 /lib/libgcc_s.so.1 b7593000-b7594000 rw-p 0001d000 08:01 788956 /lib/libgcc_s.so.1 b75a6000-b75a7000 rw-p 00000000 00:00 0 b75a7000-b76fa000 r-xp 00000000 08:01 920678 /lib/tls/i686/cmov/libc-2.11.1.so b76fa000-b76fc000 r--p 00153000 08:01 920678 /lib/tls/i686/cmov/libc-2.11.1.so b76fc000-b76fd000 rw-p 00155000 08:01 920678 /lib/tls/i686/cmov/libc-2.11.1.so b76fd000-b7700000 rw-p 00000000 00:00 0 b7710000-b7714000 rw-p 00000000 00:00 0 b7714000-b7715000 r-xp 00000000 00:00 0 [vdso] b7715000-b7730000 r-xp 00000000 08:01 788898 /lib/ld-2.11.1.so b7730000-b7731000 r--p 0001a000 08:01 788898 /lib/ld-2.11.1.so b7731000-b7732000 rw-p 0001b000 08:01 788898 /lib/ld-2.11.1.so bffd5000-bfff6000 rw-p 00000000 00:00 0 [stack] Aborted So why is it that my code does work sometimes? i.e. the compiler is not able to detect at times that I'm trying to free an already freed memory. Has it got to do something with my stack/heap size?

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  • Why the parent page get refreshed when I click the link to open thickbox-styled form?

    - by user333205
    Hi, all: I'm using Thickbox 3.1 to show signup form. The form content comes from jquery ajax post. The jquery lib is of version 1.4.2. I placed a "signup" link into a div area, which is a part of my other large pages, and the whole content of that div area is ajax+posted from my server. To make thickbox can work in my above arangement, I have modified the thickbox code a little like that: //add thickbox to href & area elements that have a class of .thickbox function tb_init(domChunk){ $(domChunk).live('click', function(){ var t = this.title || this.name || null; var a = this.href || this.alt; var g = this.rel || false; tb_show(t,a,g); this.blur(); return false; });} This modification is the only change against the original version. Beacause the "signup" link is placed in ajaxed content, so I Use live instead of binding the click event directly. When I tested on my pc, the thickbox works well. I can see the signup form quickly, without feeling the content of the parent page(here, is the other large pages) get refreshed. But after transmiting my site files into VHost, when I click the "signup" link, the signup form get presented very slowly. The large pages get refreshed evidently, because the borwser(ie6) are reloading images from server incessantly. These images are set as background images in CSS files. I think that's because the slow connection of network. But why the parent pages get refreshed? and why the browser reloads those images one more time? Havn't those images been placed in local computer's disk? Is there one way to stop that reloadding? Because the signup form can't get displayed sometimes due to slow connection of network. To verified the question, you can access http://www.juliantec.info/track-the-source.html and click the second link in left grey area, that is the "signup" link mentioned above. Thinks!

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  • jquery function call with parameters

    - by Kaushik Gopal
    Hi a newb question: I have a table with a bunch of buttons like so: <tr class="hr-table-cell" > <td>REcord 1</td> <td> <INPUT type="button" value="Approve" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Reject" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Delete" onclick="fnDeletePpAppl(222445,704);" /> </td> </tr> <tr class="hr-table-cell" > <td>REcord 1</td> <td align="center" class="hr-table-bottom-blue-border" valign="middle"> <INPUT type="button" value="Approve" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Reject" onclick="" /> <INPUT type="button" value="Delete" onclick="fnDeletePpAppl(237760,776);" /> </td> </tr> I have my jquery like so: <script type="text/javascript"> // JQUERY stuff $(document).ready(function(){ function fnDeletePpAppl(empno, applno) { alert('Entering here'); $("form").get(0).empno.value = empno; $("form").get(0).applNo.value = applno; $("form").get(0).listPageAction.value = "delete"; $("form").get(0).action.value = "pprelreqlist.do"; $("form").get(0).submit(); } }); This doesn't seem to work.I thought this means, the function is ready only after the dom is ready. After the dom is ready and i click the button, why is not recognizing the function declaration within the .ready() function? However if i use the function directly: <script type="text/javascript"> function fnDeletePpAppl(empno, applno) { alert('Entering here'); $("form").get(0).empno.value = empno; $("form").get(0).applNo.value = applno; $("form").get(0).listPageAction.value = "delete"; $("form").get(0).action.value = "pprelreqlist.do"; $("form").get(0).submit(); } This works. I want to get my fundamentals straight here... If i do the declaration without the .ready() , does that mean i'm using plain vanilla jscript? If i were to do this with the document.ready - the usual jquery declaration way, what would i have to change to make it work? I understand there are much better ways to do this like binding with buttons etc, but I want to know why this particular way doesn't seem to be working. Thanks. Cheers. K

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  • How do you select form elements in JQuery based upon an html table?

    - by Swoop
    I am working on some ASP.NET web forms which involves some dynamic generation, and I need to add some onClick helpers on the client side. I have a basic outline of something working, except for one huge problem. There are multiple HTML tables, each generated by a different ASP.NET web control. Each table can contain overlapping field names, which is causing a problem with my JQuery click event handlers. The click event handler is linking to unintended form fields in addition to the intended form field. I have provided a simplified sample version of the code below. This code is trying to set the value of textbox box1 when a particular radiobutton is selected in the table with id=thing1. Obviously, the jquery code will be triggered for the form fields in both tables. The tables are dynamically added to the webpage based upon different conditions. It is possible that no tables will be loaded, only 1 table, or both tables might load. In the future, other tables could be added. Each table comes from a different .net web control. Other than renaming the form fields to make sure they are unique across all user controls, is there a way to have JQuery act only on the intended form fields? In other words, could the table ID be incorporated into the JQuery code in a manner that does not become a nightmare to maintain later? <script> $(document).ready(function() { $("[id$=radio1_0]").click(function() { $("[id$=box1]").attr("value", ""); }); $("[id$=radio1_1]").click(function() { $("[id$=box1]").attr("value", "N/A"); }); </script> <table id="thing1"> <tr><td> <radiobuttonlist id="radio1"/> <listitem>yes</listitem> <listitem>no</listitem> </td></tr> <tr><td> <textbox id="box1"/> </td></tr> </table> <table id="thing2"> <tr><td> <radiobuttonlist id="radio1"/> <listitem>yes</listitem> <listitem>no</listitem> </td></tr> <tr><td> <textbox id="box1"/> </tr></td> </table>

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  • Image animation problem in silverlight

    - by Jak
    Hi followed " http://www.switchonthecode.com/tutorials/silverlight-3-tutorial-planeprojection-and-perspective-3d#comment-4688 ".. the animation is working fine. I am new to silver light. when i use dynamic image from xml instead of static image as in tutorial,.. it is not working fine, please help me on this. i used list box.. for this animation effect do i need to change listbox to some other arrangement ? if your answer yes means, pls give me some sample code. Thanks in advance. Xaml code: <ListBox Name="listBox1"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel> <Image Source="{Binding imgurl}" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Name="image1" Stretch="Fill" VerticalAlignment="Top" MouseLeftButtonUp="FlipImage" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> My C# code: //getting image URL from xml XElement xmlads = XElement.Parse(e.Result); //i bind the url in to listBox listBox1.ItemsSource = from ads in xmlads.Descendants("ad") select new zestItem { imgurl = ads.Element("picture").Value }; public class zestItem { public string imgurl { get; set; } } private int _zIndex = 10; private void FlipImage(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { Image image = sender as Image; // Make sure the image is on top of all other images. image.SetValue(Canvas.ZIndexProperty, _zIndex++); // Create the storyboard. Storyboard flip = new Storyboard(); // Create animation and set the duration to 1 second. DoubleAnimation animation = new DoubleAnimation() { Duration = new TimeSpan(0, 0, 1) }; // Add the animation to the storyboard. flip.Children.Add(animation); // Create a projection for the image if it doesn't have one. if (image.Projection == null) { // Set the center of rotation to -0.01, which will put a little space // between the images when they're flipped. image.Projection = new PlaneProjection() { CenterOfRotationX = -0.01 }; } PlaneProjection projection = image.Projection as PlaneProjection; // Set the from and to properties based on the current flip direction of // the image. if (projection.RotationY == 0) { animation.To = 180; } else { animation.From = 180; animation.To = 0; } // Tell the animation to animation the image's PlaneProjection object. Storyboard.SetTarget(animation, projection); // Tell the animation to animation the RotationYProperty. Storyboard.SetTargetProperty(animation, new PropertyPath(PlaneProjection.RotationYProperty)); flip.Begin(); }

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  • All possible combinations of length 8 in a 2d array

    - by CodeJunki
    Hi, I've been trying to solve a problem in combinations. I have a matrix 6X6 i'm trying to find all combinations of length 8 in the matrix. I have to move from neighbor to neighbor form each row,column position and i wrote a recursive program which generates the combination but the problem is it generates a lot of duplicates as well and hence is inefficient. I would like to know how could i eliminate calculating duplicates and save time. int a={{1,2,3,4,5,6}, {8,9,1,2,3,4}, {5,6,7,8,9,1}, {2,3,4,5,6,7}, {8,9,1,2,3,4}, {5,6,7,8,9,1}, } void genSeq(int row,int col,int length,int combi) { if(length==8) { printf("%d\n",combi); return; } combi = (combi * 10) + a[row][col]; if((row-1)>=0) genSeq(row-1,col,length+1,combi); if((col-1)>=0) genSeq(row,col-1,length+1,combi); if((row+1)<6) genSeq(row+1,col,length+1,combi); if((col+1)<6) genSeq(row,col+1,length+1,combi); if((row+1)<6&&(col+1)<6) genSeq(row+1,col+1,length+1,combi); if((row-1)>=0&&(col+1)<6) genSeq(row-1,col+1,length+1,combi); if((row+1)<6&&(row-1)>=0) genSeq(row+1,col-1,length+1,combi); if((row-1)>=0&&(col-1)>=0) genSeq(row-1,col-1,length+1,combi); } I was also thinking of writing a dynamic program basically recursion with memorization. Is it a better choice?? if yes than I'm not clear how to implement it in recursion. Have i really hit a dead end with approach??? Thankyou Edit Eg result 12121212,12121218,12121219,12121211,12121213. the restrictions are that you have to move to your neighbor from any point, you have to start for each position in the matrix i.e each row,col. you can move one step at a time, i.e right, left, up, down and the both diagonal positions. Check the if conditions. i.e if your in (0,0) you can move to either (1,0) or (1,1) or (0,1) i.e three neighbors. if your in (2,2) you can move to eight neighbors. so on...

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  • C - What is the proper format to allow a function to show an error was encountered?

    - by BrainSteel
    I have a question about what a function should do if the arguments to said function don't line up quite right, through no fault of the function call. Since that sentence doesn't make much sense, I'll offer my current issue. To keep it simple, here is the most relevant and basic function I have. float getYValueAt(float x, PHYS_Line line, unsigned short* error) *error = 0; if(x < line.start.x || x > line.end.x){ *error = 1; return -1; } if(line.slope.value != 0){ //line's equation: y - line.start.y = line.slope.value(x - line.start.x) return line.slope.value * (x - line.start.x) + line.start.y; } else if(line.slope.denom == 0){ if(line.start.x == x) return line.start.y; else{ *error = 1; return -1; } } else if(line.slope.num == 0){ return line.start.y; } } The function attempts to find the point on a line, given a certain x value. However, under some circumstances, this may not be possible. For example, on the line x = 3, if 5 is passed as a value, we would have a problem. Another problem arises if the chosen x value is not within the interval the line is on. For this, I included the error pointer. Given this format, a function call could work as follows: void foo(PHYS_Line some_line){ unsigned short error = 0; float y = getYValueAt(5, some_line, &error); if(error) fooey(); else do_something_with_y(y); } My question pertains to the error. Note that the value returned is allowed to be negative. Returning -1 does not ensure that an error has occurred. I know that it is sometimes preferred to use the following method to track an error: float* getYValueAt(float x, PHYS_Line line); and then return NULL if an error occurs, but I believe this requires dynamic memory allocation, which seems even less sightly than the solution I was using. So, what is standard practice for an error occurring?

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  • Perl - Calling subclass constructor from superclass (OO)

    - by Emmel
    This may turn out to be an embarrassingly stupid question, but better than potentially creating embarrassingly stupid code. :-) This is an OO design question, really. Let's say I have an object class 'Foos' that represents a set of dynamic configuration elements, which are obtained by querying a command on disk, 'mycrazyfoos -getconfig'. Let's say that there are two categories of behavior that I want 'Foos' objects to have: Existing ones: one is, query ones that exist in the command output I just mentioned (/usr/bin/mycrazyfoos -getconfig`. Make modifications to existing ones via shelling out commands. Create new ones that don't exist; new 'crazyfoos', using a complex set of /usr/bin/mycrazyfoos commands and parameters. Here I'm not really just querying, but actually running a bunch of system() commands. Affecting changes. Here's my class structure: Foos.pm package Foos, which has a new($hashref-{name = 'myfooname',) constructor that takes a 'crazyfoo NAME' and then queries the existence of that NAME to see if it already exists (by shelling out and running the mycrazyfoos command above). If that crazyfoo already exists, return a Foos::Existing object. Any changes to this object requires shelling out, running commands and getting confirmation that everything ran okay. If this is the way to go, then the new() constructor needs to have a test to see which subclass constructor to use (if that even makes sense in this context). Here are the subclasses: Foos/Existing.pm As mentioned above, this is for when a Foos object already exists. Foos/Pending.pm This is an object that will be created if, in the above, the 'crazyfoo NAME' doesn't actually exist. In this case, the new() constructor above will be checked for additional parameters, and it will go ahead and, when called using -create() shell out using system() and create a new object... possibly returning an 'Existing' one... OR As I type this out, I am realizing it is perhaps it's better to have a single: (an alternative arrangement) Foos class, that has a -new() that takes just a name -create() that takes additional creation parameters -delete(), -change() and other params that affect ones that exist; that will have to just be checked dynamically. So here we are, two main directions to go with this. I'm curious which would be the more intelligent way to go.

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  • backbone.js - Having multiple instances of the same view

    - by TrueWheel
    I am having problems having multiple instances in of the same view in different div elements. When I try to initialize them only the second of the two elements appear no matter what order I put them in. Here is the code for my view. var BodyShapeView = Backbone.View.extend({ thingiview: null, scene: null, renderer: null, model: null, mouseX: 0, mouseY: 0, events:{ 'click button#front' : 'front', 'click button#diag' : 'diag', 'click button#in' : 'zoomIn', 'click button#out' : 'zoomOut', 'click button#on' : 'rotateOn', 'click button#off' : 'rotateOff', 'click button#wireframeOn' : 'wireOn', 'click button#wireframeOff' : 'wireOff', 'click button#distance' : 'dijkstra' }, initialize: function(name){ _.bindAll(this, 'render', 'animate'); scene = new THREE.Scene(); camera = new THREE.PerspectiveCamera( 15, 400 / 700, 1, 4000 ); camera.position.z = 3; scene.add( camera ); camera.position.y = -5; var ambient = new THREE.AmbientLight( 0x202020 ); scene.add( ambient ); var directionalLight = new THREE.DirectionalLight( 0xffffff, 0.75 ); directionalLight.position.set( 0, 0, 1 ); scene.add( directionalLight ); var pointLight = new THREE.PointLight( 0xffffff, 5, 29 ); pointLight.position.set( 0, -25, 10 ); scene.add( pointLight ); var loader = new THREE.OBJLoader(); loader.load( "img/originalMeanModel.obj", function ( object ) { object.children[0].geometry.computeFaceNormals(); var geometry = object.children[0].geometry; console.log(geometry); THREE.GeometryUtils.center(geometry); geometry.dynamic = true; var material = new THREE.MeshLambertMaterial({color: 0xffffff, shading: THREE.FlatShading, vertexColors: THREE.VertexColors }); mesh = new THREE.Mesh(geometry, material); model = mesh; // model = object; scene.add( model ); } ); // RENDERER renderer = new THREE.WebGLRenderer(); renderer.setSize( 400, 700 ); $(this.el).find('.obj').append( renderer.domElement ); this.animate(); }, Here is how I create the instances var morphableBody = new BodyShapeView({ el: $("#morphable-body") }); var bodyShapeView = new BodyShapeView({ el: $("#mean-body") }); Any help would be really appreciated. Thanks in advance.

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  • codeIgniter: pass parameter to a select query from previous query

    - by krike
    I'm creating a little management tool for the browser game travian. So I select all the villages from the database and I want to display some content that's unique to each of the villages. But in order to query for those unique details I need to pass the id of the village. How should I do this? this is my code (controller): function members_area() { global $site_title; $this->load->model('membership_model'); if($this->membership_model->get_villages()) { $data['rows'] = $this->membership_model->get_villages(); $id = 1;//this should be dynamic, but how? if($this->membership_model->get_tasks($id)): $data['tasks'] = $this->membership_model->get_tasks($id); endif; } $data['title'] = $site_title." | Your account"; $data['main_content'] = 'account'; $this->load->view('template', $data); } and this is the 2 functions I'm using in the model: function get_villages() { $q = $this->db->get('villages'); if($q->num_rows() > 0) { foreach ($q->result() as $row) { $data[] = $row; } return $data; } } function get_tasks($id) { $this->db->select('name'); $this->db->from('tasks'); $this->db->where('villageid', $id); $q = $this->db->get(); if($q->num_rows() > 0) { foreach ($q->result() as $task) { $data[] = $task; } return $data; } } and of course the view: <?php foreach($rows as $r) : ?> <div class="village"> <h3><?php echo $r->name; ?></h3> <ul> <?php foreach($tasks as $task): ?> <li><?php echo $task->name; ?></li> <?php endforeach; ?> </ul> <?php echo anchor('site/add_village/'.$r->id.'', '+ add new task'); ?> </div> <?php endforeach; ?> ps: please do not remove the comment in the first block of code!

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  • Returning JSON in CFFunction and appending it to layer is causing an error

    - by Mel
    I'm using the qTip jQuery plugin to generate a dynamic tooltip. I'm getting an error in my JS, and I'm unsure if its source is the JSON or the JS. The tooltip calls the following function: (sorry about all this code, but it's necessary) <cffunction name="fGameDetails" access="remote" returnType="any" returnformat="JSON" output="false" hint="This grabs game details for the games.cfm page"> <!---Argument, which is the game ID---> <cfargument name="gameID" type="numeric" required="true" hint="CFC will look for GameID and retrieve its details"> <!---Local var---> <cfset var qGameDetails = ""> <!---Database query---> <cfquery name="qGameDetails" datasource="#REQUEST.datasource#"> SELECT titles.titleName AS tName, titles.titleBrief AS tBrief, games.gameID, games.titleID, games.releaseDate AS rDate, genres.genreName AS gName, platforms.platformAbbr AS pAbbr, platforms.platformName AS pName, creviews.cReviewScore AS rScore, ratings.ratingName AS rName FROM games Inner Join platforms ON platforms.platformID = games.platformID Inner Join titles ON titles.titleID = games.titleID Inner Join genres ON genres.genreID = games.genreID Inner Join creviews ON games.gameID = creviews.gameID Inner Join ratings ON ratings.ratingID = games.ratingID WHERE (games.gameID = #ARGUMENTS.gameID#); </cfquery> <cfreturn qGameDetails> </cffunction> This function returns the following JSON: { "COLUMNS": [ "TNAME", "TBRIEF", "GAMEID", "TITLEID", "RDATE", "GNAME", "PABBR", "PNAME", "RSCORE", "RNAME" ], "DATA": [ [ "Dark Void", "Ancient gods known as 'The Watchers,' once banished from our world by superhuman Adepts, have returned with a vengeance.", 154, 54, "January, 19 2010 00:00:00", "Action & Adventure", "PS3", "Playstation 3", 3.3, "14 Anos" ] ] } The problem I'm having is every time I try to append the JSON to the layer #catalog, I get a syntax error that says "missing parenthetical." This is the JavaScript I'm using: $(document).ready(function() { $('#catalog a[href]').each(function() { $(this).qtip( { content: { url: '/gamezilla/resources/components/viewgames.cfc?method=fGameDetails', data: { gameID: $(this).attr('href').match(/gameID=([0-9]+)$/)[1] }, method: 'get' }, api: { beforeContentUpdate: function(content) { var json = eval('(' + content + ')'); content = $('<div />').append( $('<h1 />', { html: json.TNAME })); return content; } }, style: { width: 300, height: 300, padding: 0, name: 'light', tip: { corner: 'leftMiddle', size: { x: 40, y : 40 } } }, position: { corner: { target: 'rightMiddle', tooltip: 'leftMiddle' } } }); }); }); Any ideas where I'm going wrong? I tried many things for several days and I can't find the issue. Many thanks!

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  • Which is the "best" data access framework/approach for C# and .NET?

    - by Frans
    (EDIT: I made it a community wiki as it is more suited to a collaborative format.) There are a plethora of ways to access SQL Server and other databases from .NET. All have their pros and cons and it will never be a simple question of which is "best" - the answer will always be "it depends". However, I am looking for a comparison at a high level of the different approaches and frameworks in the context of different levels of systems. For example, I would imagine that for a quick-and-dirty Web 2.0 application the answer would be very different from an in-house Enterprise-level CRUD application. I am aware that there are numerous questions on Stack Overflow dealing with subsets of this question, but I think it would be useful to try to build a summary comparison. I will endeavour to update the question with corrections and clarifications as we go. So far, this is my understanding at a high level - but I am sure it is wrong... I am primarily focusing on the Microsoft approaches to keep this focused. ADO.NET Entity Framework Database agnostic Good because it allows swapping backends in and out Bad because it can hit performance and database vendors are not too happy about it Seems to be MS's preferred route for the future Complicated to learn (though, see 267357) It is accessed through LINQ to Entities so provides ORM, thus allowing abstraction in your code LINQ to SQL Uncertain future (see Is LINQ to SQL truly dead?) Easy to learn (?) Only works with MS SQL Server See also Pros and cons of LINQ "Standard" ADO.NET No ORM No abstraction so you are back to "roll your own" and play with dynamically generated SQL Direct access, allows potentially better performance This ties in to the age-old debate of whether to focus on objects or relational data, to which the answer of course is "it depends on where the bulk of the work is" and since that is an unanswerable question hopefully we don't have to go in to that too much. IMHO, if your application is primarily manipulating large amounts of data, it does not make sense to abstract it too much into objects in the front-end code, you are better off using stored procedures and dynamic SQL to do as much of the work as possible on the back-end. Whereas, if you primarily have user interaction which causes database interaction at the level of tens or hundreds of rows then ORM makes complete sense. So, I guess my argument for good old-fashioned ADO.NET would be in the case where you manipulate and modify large datasets, in which case you will benefit from the direct access to the backend. Another case, of course, is where you have to access a legacy database that is already guarded by stored procedures. ASP.NET Data Source Controls Are these something altogether different or just a layer over standard ADO.NET? - Would you really use these if you had a DAL or if you implemented LINQ or Entities? NHibernate Seems to be a very powerful and powerful ORM? Open source Some other relevant links; NHibernate or LINQ to SQL Entity Framework vs LINQ to SQL

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  • PHP, PEAR, and oci8 configuration

    - by zack_falcon
    I'll make this quick. I installed Oracle 11g (with appropriate database, users, etc), Apache 2.4.6, and PHP 5.5.4 on a Fedora 19 system. I wanted to connect PHP to Oracle. What I really wanted to do was to download MDB2_Driver_oci8, which I thought would be easy, but before I can do such a thing, PHP needs to have that plug-in enabled, so here's what I did: Tried to install oci8 via the following: pecl install oci8 When that didn't exactly work the first few times, I figured out I, for some reason, needed "Development tools" - via yum groupinstall "Development Tools" Then I figured out later that PHP actually doesn't do oci8 - it's PHP Devel. So, I had to install that too, via yum install php-devel. And then, I finally got to install oci8. It asked for the Oracle Directory, and that was that. But it said the following: Configuration option 'php_ini' is not set to php.ini location You should add 'extensions=oci8.so' to php.ini First, I did a locate oci8.so - found it in /usr/lib64/php/modules/ Second, I added what it told me to, to the php.ini file. Third, I checked the usual php_info() test page - no mention of OCI8. Uh-oh. Fourth, running both php -i and php -m listed oci8 as one of the modules. Weird. In desperation, I went ahead and downloaded the MDB2_Driver_oci8. Maybe that will fix things. Nope. When I loaded my PHP Webpage, it returned the following: Error message: extension oci8 is not compiled into PHP As well as: MDB2 error: not found Strange. And then I decided to check the error logs: PHP Startup - unable to load dynamic library '/usr/lib64/php/modules/oci8.so' - libclntsh.so.11.1: cannot open shared object file: No such file or directory in Unknown on line 0 And now I'm stuck. I tried going into the php.ini, and found that the extension_dir was commented out. I put it back in, which only seemed to break stuff. Things of note: I followed this (link) guide on how to configure PHP and install oci8. ./configure --with-oci8 doesn't work. Fedora says no such directory. As both the webpage files and the actual server reside on the same PC, I did not install the Oracle Client files. The extension_dir is commented out by default in the php.ini. This is just one of my problems in a long line of problems concerning the replication of an already existing and working, but dying, setup. It seems whenever I want to solve a problem, I have to do X first. And by doing X, I uncover another problem, which I have to solve by doing Y, which has its own problems, etc, etc. Any help would be much appreciated. Thanks.

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  • ZF Autoloader to load ancestor and requested class

    - by Pekka
    I am integrating Zend Framework into an existing application. I want to switch the application over to Zend's autoloading mechanism to replace dozens of include() statements. I have a specific requirement for the autoloading mechanism, though. Allow me to elaborate. The existing application uses a core library (independent from ZF), for example: /Core/Library/authentication.php /Core/Library/translation.php /Core/Library/messages.php this core library is to remain untouched at all times and serves a number of applications. The library contains classes like class ancestor_authentication { ... } class ancestor_translation { ... } class ancestor_messages { ... } in the application, there is also a Library directory: /App/Library/authentication.php /App/Library/translation.php /App/Library/messages.php these includes extend the ancestor classes and are the ones that actually get instantiated in the application. class authentication extends ancestor_authentication { } class translation extends ancestor_translation { } class messages extends ancestor_messages { } usually, these class definitions are empty. They simply extend their ancestors and provide the class name to instantiate. $authentication = new authentication(); The purpose of this solution is to be able to easily customize aspects of the application without having to patch the core libraries. Now, the autoloader I need would have to be aware of this structure. When an object of the class authentication is requested, the autoloader would have to: 1. load /Core/Library/authentication.php 2. load /App/Library/authentication.php My current approach would be creating a custom function, and binding that to Zend_Loader_Autoloader for a specific namespace prefix. Is there already a way to do this in Zend that I am overlooking? The accepted answer in this question kind of implies there is, but that may be just a bad choice of wording. Are there extensions to the Zend Autoloader that do this? Can you - I am new to ZF - think of an elegant way, conforming with the spirit of the framework, of extending the Autoloader with this functionality? I'm not necessary looking for a ready-made implementation, some pointers (This should be an extension to the xyz method that you would call like this...) would already be enough.

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  • Primary language - QtC++, C#, Java?

    - by Airjoe
    I'm looking for some input, but let me start with a bit of background (for tl;dr skip to end). I'm an IT major with a concentration in networking. While I'm not a CS major nor do I want to program as a vocation, I do consider myself a programmer and do pretty well with the concepts involved. I've been programming since about 6th grade, started out with a proprietary game creation language that made my transition into C++ at college pretty easy. I like to make programs for myself and friends, and have been paid to program for local businesses. A bit about that- I wrote some programs for a couple local businesses in my senior year in high school. I wrote management systems for local shops (inventory, phone/pos orders, timeclock, customer info, and more stuff I can't remember). It definitely turned out to be over my head, as I had never had any formal programming education. It was a great learning experience, but damn was it crappy code. Oh yeah, by the way, it was all vb6. So, I've used vb6 pretty extensively, I've used c++ in my classes (intro to programming up to algorithms), used Java a little bit in another class (had to write a ping client program, pretty easy) and used Java for some simple Project Euler problems to help learn syntax and such when writing the program for the class. I've also used C# a bit for my own simple personal projects (simple programs, one which would just generate an HTTP request on a list of websites and notify if one responded unexpectedly or not at all, and another which just held a list of things to do and periodically reminded me to do them), things I would've written in vb6 a year or two ago. I've just started using Qt C++ for some undergrad research I'm working on. Now I've had some formal education, I [think I] understand organization in programming a lot better (I didn't even use classes in my vb6 programs where I really should have), how it's important to structure code, split into functions where appropriate, document properly, efficiency both in memory and speed, dynamic and modular programming etc. I was looking for some input on which language to pick up as my "primary". As I'm not a "real programmer", it will be mostly hobby projects, but will include some 'real' projects I'm sure. From my perspective: QtC++ and Java are cross platform, which is cool. Java and C# run in a virtual machine, but I'm not sure if that's a big deal (something extra to distribute, possibly a bit slower? I think Qt would require additional distributables too, right?). I don't really know too much more than this, so I appreciate any help, thanks! TL;DR Am an avocational programmer looking for a language, want quick and straight forward development, liked vb6, will be working with database driven GUI apps- should I go with QtC++, Java, C#, or perhaps something else?

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  • Passing ViewModel for backbone.js from MVC3 Server-Side

    - by Roman
    In ASP.NET MVC there is Model, View and Controller. MODEL represents entities which are stored in database and essentially is all the data used in a application (for example, generated by EntityFramework, "DB First" approach). Not all data from model you want to show in the view (for example, hashs of passwords). So you create VIEW MODEL, each for every strongly-typed-razor-view you have in application. Like this: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Web; namespace MyProject.ViewModels.SomeController.SomeAction { public class ViewModel { public ViewModel() { Entities1 = new List<ViewEntity1>(); Entities2 = new List<ViewEntity2>(); } public List<ViewEntity1> Entities1 { get; set; } public List<ViewEntity2> Entities2 { get; set; } } public class ViewEntity1 { //some properties from original DB-entity you want to show } public class ViewEntity2 { } } When you create complex client-side interfaces (I do), you use some pattern for javascript on client, MVC or MVVM (I know only these). So, with MVC on client you have another model (Backbone.Model for example), which is third model in application. It is a bit much. Why don`t we use the same ViewModel model on a client (in backbone.js or another framework)? Is there a way to transfer CS-coded model to JS-coded? Like in MVVM pattern, with knockout.js, when you can do like this: in SomeAction.cshtml: <div style="display: none;" id="view_model">@Json.Encode(Model)</div> after that in Javascript-code var ViewModel = ko.mapping.fromJSON($("#view_model").get(0).innerHTML); now you can extend your ViewModel with some actions, event handlers, etc: ko.utils.extend(ViewModel, { some_function: function () { //some code } }); So, we are not building the same view model on the client again, we are transferring existing view model from server. At least, data. But knockout.js is not suitable for me, you can`t build complex UI with it, it is just data-binding. I need something more structural, like backbone.js. The only way to build ViewModel for backbone.js I can see now is re-writing same ViewModel in JS from server with hands. Is there any ways to transfer it from server? To reuse the same viewmodel on server view and client view?

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  • C# 'could not found' existing method

    - by shybovycha
    Greetings! I've been fooling around (a bit) with C# and its assemblies. And so i've found such an interesting feature as dynamic loading assemblies and invoking its class members. A bit of google and here i am, writing some kind of 'assembly explorer'. (i've used some portions of code from here, here and here and none of 'em gave any of expected results). But i've found a small bug: when i tried to invoke class method from assembly i've loaded, application raised MissingMethod exception. I'm sure DLL i'm loading contains class and method i'm tryin' to invoke (my app ensures me as well as RedGate's .NET Reflector): The main application code seems to be okay and i start thinking if i was wrong with my DLL... Ah, and i've put both of projects into one solution, but i don't think it may cause any troubles. And yes, DLL project has 'class library' target while the main application one has 'console applcation' target. So, the question is: what's wrong with 'em? Here are some source code: DLL source: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace ClassLibrary1 { public class Class1 { public void Main() { System.Console.WriteLine("Hello, World!"); } } } Main application source: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Reflection; namespace ConsoleApplication1 { class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Assembly asm = Assembly.LoadFrom(@"a\long\long\path\ClassLibrary1.dll"); try { foreach (Type t in asm.GetTypes()) { if (t.IsClass == true && t.FullName.EndsWith(".Class1")) { object obj = Activator.CreateInstance(t); object res = t.InvokeMember("Main", BindingFlags.Default | BindingFlags.InvokeMethod, null, obj, null); // Exception is risen from here } } } catch (Exception e) { System.Console.WriteLine("Error: {0}", e.Message); } System.Console.ReadKey(); } } } UPD: worked for one case - when DLL method takes no arguments: DLL class (also works if method is not static): public class Class1 { public static void Main() { System.Console.WriteLine("Hello, World!"); } } Method invoke code: object res = t.InvokeMember("Main", BindingFlags.Default | BindingFlags.InvokeMethod, null, null, null);

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  • Animate UserControl (When It Gets Collapsed) in WPF

    - by sanjeev40084
    I have two xaml file one is MainWindow.xaml and other is userControl EditTaskView.xaml. In MainWindow.xaml it consists of listbox and when double clicked any item of listbox, it displays edit window (EditView userControl). Whenever edit window gets displayed, it plays an animation (sliding from right to left). The EditView userControl has two buttons 'Save' and 'Cancel'. Now I want to add animation (sliding edit window from left to right) when any of the button (Save or Cancel) button is clicked. When 'Save' or 'Cancel' button is clicked, it Collapse the edit window. Here is the story board which slides window from right to left. <Storyboard x:Key="AnimateEditView"> <ThicknessAnimationUsingKeyFrames Storyboard.TargetProperty="(FrameworkElement.Margin)" Storyboard.TargetName="EditTask" > <EasingThicknessKeyFrame KeyTime="0" Value="100,0,0,0"> <EasingThicknessKeyFrame.EasingFunction> <ExponentialEase EasingMode="EaseOut"/> </EasingThicknessKeyFrame.EasingFunction> </EasingThicknessKeyFrame> <EasingThicknessKeyFrame KeyTime="0:0:1" Value="0,0,0,0"> <EasingThicknessKeyFrame.EasingFunction> <ExponentialEase EasingMode="EaseOut"/> </EasingThicknessKeyFrame.EasingFunction> </EasingThicknessKeyFrame> </ThicknessAnimationUsingKeyFrames> </Storyboard> </Window.Resources> <Window.Triggers> <EventTrigger RoutedEvent="Control.MouseDoubleClick" SourceName="lstBxTask"> <BeginStoryboard Storyboard="{StaticResource AnimateEditView}"/> </EventTrigger> <Window.Triggers> Here is the xaml within MainWindow. <ListBox x:Name="lstBxTask" Style="{StaticResource ListBoxItems}" MouseDoubleClick="lstBxTask_MouseDoubleClick"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel> <Rectangle Style="{StaticResource LineBetweenListBox}"/> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Taskname}" Style="{StaticResource TextInListBox}"/> <Button Name="btnDelete" Style="{StaticResource DeleteButton}" Click="btnDelete_Click"/> </StackPanel> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> <ToDoTask:EditTaskView x:Name="EditTask" Grid.Row="0" Grid.RowSpan="3" Grid.ColumnSpan="2" Visibility="Collapsed" > Any suggestions?

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  • Are there compelling reasons not to use Groovy?

    - by Leonard H Martin
    I'm developing a LoB application in Java after a long absence from the platform (having spent the last 8 years or so entrenched in Fortran, C, a smidgin of C++ and latterly .Net). Java, the language, is not much changed from how I remember it. I like it's strengths and I can work around its weaknesses - the platform has grown and deciding upon the myriad of different frameworks which appear to do much the same thing as one another is a different story; but that can wait for another day - all-in-all I'm comfortable with Java. However, over the last couple of weeks I've become enamoured with Groovy, and purely from a selfish point of view: but not just because it makes development against the JVM a more succinct and entertaining (and, well, "groovy") proposition than Java (the language). What strikes me most about Groovy is its inherent maintainability. We all (I hope!) strive to write well documented, easy to understand code. However, sometimes the languages we use themselves defeat us. An example: in 2001 I wrote a library in C to translate EDIFACT EDI messages into ANSI X12 messages. This is not a particularly complicated process, if slightly involved, and I thought at the time I had documented the code properly - and I probably had - but some six years later when I revisited the project (and after becoming acclimatised to C#) I found myself lost in so much C boilerplate (mallocs, pointers, etc. etc.) that it took three days of thoughtful analysis before I finally understood what I'd been doing six years previously. This evening I've written about 2000 lines of Java (it is the day of rest, after all!). I've documented as best as I know how, but, but, of those 2000 lines of Java a significant proportion is Java boiler plate. This is where I see Groovy and other dynamic languages winning through - maintainability and later comprehension. Groovy lets you concentrate on your intent without getting bogged down on the platform specific implementation; it's almost, but not quite, self documenting. I see this as being a huge boon to me when I revisit my current project (which I'll port to Groovy asap) in several years time and to my successors who will inherit it and carry on the good work. So, are there any reasons not to use Groovy?

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