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  • Bound checkbox does not update its datasource.

    - by Scott Chamberlain
    I have a checkbox who's checked value is bound to a binding source which is bound to a boolean data table column. When I click my save button to push my changes in my data table to my sql server the value in the data table is never changed. Designer code. this.cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges = new System.Windows.Forms.CheckBox(); this.preProductionBindingSource = new System.Windows.Forms.BindingSource(); // // cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges // this.cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges.AutoSize = true; this.cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges.DataBindings.Add(new System.Windows.Forms.Binding("Checked", this.preProductionBindingSource, "WEBINFINTY_CHANGES", true, System.Windows.Forms.DataSourceUpdateMode.OnPropertyChanged)); this.cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges.Location = new System.Drawing.Point(6, 98); this.cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges.Name = "cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges"; this.cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges.Size = new System.Drawing.Size(152, 17); this.cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges.TabIndex = 30; this.cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges.Text = "Keep WebInfinity Changes"; this.cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges.UseVisualStyleBackColor = true; this.cbxKeepWebInfinityChanges.CheckedChanged += new System.EventHandler(this.CauseApplyChangesActivation); // // preProductionBindingSource // this.preProductionBindingSource.AllowNew = false; this.preProductionBindingSource.DataMember = "PreProduction"; this.preProductionBindingSource.DataSource = this.salesLogix; Save Code //the comments are the debugger values before the call in going from checked when loaded to unchecked when saved. private void btnApplyChanges_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { (...) // non related saving logic for other controls preProductionBindingSource.EndEdit(); // checked = false, databinding = true, datatable = true preProductionTableAdapter.Update(salesLogix.PreProduction); // checked = false, databinding = true, datatable = true } After the saving code the box rechecks itself. The same things happens when going from unchecked to checked. does not save the change and reverts to the old value. Other items I have bound to the same data-binding source (I have two combo boxes) are updating correctly.

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  • Layout of Ant build.xml with junit tests

    - by Derk
    In a project I have a folder src for all application source code and a different folder test for all junit test (both with a simular package hierarchy). Now I want that Ant can run all tests in in test folder, bot the problem is that now also files in the src folder with "Test" in the filename are included. This is the test target in the build.xml: <target name="test" depends="build"> <mkdir dir="reports/tests" /> <junit fork="yes" printsummary="yes"> <formatter type="xml"/> <classpath> <path location="${build}/WEB-INF/classes"/> <fileset dir="${projectname.home}/lib"> <include name="servlet-api.jar"/> <include name="httpunit.jar"/> <include name="Tidy.jar"/> <include name="js.jar"/> <include name="junit.jar"/> </fileset> </classpath> <batchtest todir="reports/tests"> <fileset dir="${build}/WEB-INF/classes"> <include name="**/*Test.class"/> </fileset> </batchtest> </junit> And I have added the test folder to the build target: <target name="build" depends="init,init-props,prepare"> <javac source="1.5" debug="true" destdir="${build}/WEB-INF/classes"> <src path="src" /> <src path="test" /> <classpath refid="classpath"/> </javac> </target>

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  • Scripts to parse and download iTunes Connect and AppStore data

    - by bradhouse
    I'm looking for recommendations of a script or series of scripts that download and parse iTunes Connect sales data and AppStore comments, ratings and rankings data for a defined app. I'm also aware of solutions like: AppViz appsales-mobile iphone-stats Heartbeat.app I'm sure I'll find a few more with more searching. I can't help but feel there must be a really decent set of open source scripts out there to do this, given how many developers are now writing apps for the AppStore. Would be interested to hear any commercial offerings as well (although my personal preference is for open source, so I can at least see what it is doing with my iTunes Connect login credentials). To be clear, I'm really looking for something that hits all of the areas mentioned: App Store (per store) Comments Ratings Category/store rankings iTunes Connect The contents of the sales reports Analysis/graphs of the data is not necessary (but would be a nice to have I guess). I'm not really looking for something like AppSales Mobile above, I would like the raw data so I can do my own analysis and formatting. So far it looks like AppViz (listed above) is the best out there. Any suggestions on what is good/available or should I just go roll my own?

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  • Field specific errors for ETL

    - by AaronLS
    I am creating a ETL process in MS SQL Server and I would like to have errors specific to a particular column of a particular row. For example, the data is initially loaded from excel files into a table(we'll call the Initial table) where all columns are varchar(2000) and then I stage the data to another table(the DataTypedTable) that contains more specific data types (datetime,int, etc.) or more tightly constrained varchar lengths. I need to be able to create error messages for a specific field such as: "Jan. 13th" is not a valid date format for the submission date. Please use a format of MM/DD/YYYY These error messages would need to be stored in some way such that later in the process a automated process can create reports with the error messages such that each message references a specific row and field(someone will need to go back and correct the data in the source system and resubmit the excel file). So ideally it would be inserted into a Failures tables of some sort and contain the primary key of the failed row, the column name, and the error message. Question: So I am wondering if this can be accomplished with SSIS, or some open source tool like Talend, and if so, what would be your general approach? Or what hand coded approach you would take? Couple approaches I've thought of using SQL(up until no I have done ETL by hand in SQL procs, but I want to consider other approaches. Possible C# even.): Use a cursor to read through the Initial table, and for each row insert a blank record with only the primary key into the DataTyped table, then use a single update statement for each column, such that if that update fails I can insert a very specific error message specific to that column in the error messages table. Insert all the data as is into the DataTyped table, but have duplicate columns like SubmissionDate and SubmissionDateOld. After the initial insert the *Old columns have data, the rest are blank, and I have a single update for each column that sets the SubmissionDate based on the SubmissionDateOld. In addition to suggesting an approach, I'd like to know if you are using that approach or something similar already in the work you do.

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  • Timer a usage in msp430 in high compiler optimization mode

    - by Vishal
    Hi, I have used timer A in MSP430 with high compiler optimization, but found that my timer code is failing when high compiler optimization used. When none optimization is used code works fine. This code is used to achieve 1 ms timer tick. timeOutCNT is increamented in interrupt. Following is the code, //Disable interrupt and clear CCR0 TIMER_A_TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL | // set the clock source as SMCLK TIMER_A_ID | // set the divider to 8 TACLR | // clear the timer MC_1; // continuous mode TIMER_A_TACTL &= ~TIMER_A_TAIE; // timer interrupt disabled TIMER_A_TACTL &= 0; // timer interrupt flag disabled CCTL0 = CCIE; // CCR0 interrupt enabled CCR0 = 500; TIMER_A_TACTL &= TIMER_A_TAIE; //enable timer interrupt TIMER_A_TACTL &= TIMER_A_TAIFG; //enable timer interrupt TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL + MC_1 + ID_3; // SMCLK, upmode timeOutCNT = 0; //timeOutCNT is increased in timer interrupt while(timeOutCNT <= 1); //delay of 1 milisecond TIMER_A_TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL | // set the clock source as SMCLK TIMER_A_ID | // set the divider to 8 TACLR | // clear the timer MC_1; // continuous mode TIMER_A_TACTL &= ~TIMER_A_TAIE; // timer interrupt disabled TIMER_A_TACTL &= 0x00; // timer interrupt flag disabled Can anybody help me here to resolve this issue? Is there any other way we can use timer A so it works fine in optimization modes? Or do I have used is wrongly to achieve 1 ms interrupt? Thanks in advanced. Vishal N

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  • Spring configuration of C3P0 with Hibernate?

    - by HDave
    I have a Spring/JPA application with Hibernate as the JPA provider. I've configured a C3P0 data source in Spring via: <bean id="myJdbcDataSource" class="com.mchange.v2.c3p0.ComboPooledDataSource" destroy-method="close"> <!-- Connection properties --> <property name="driverClass" value="$DS{database.class}" /> <property name="jdbcUrl" value="$DS{database.url}" /> <property name="user" value="$DS{database.username}" /> <property name="password" value="$DS{database.password}" /> <!-- Pool properties --> <property name="minPoolSize" value="5" /> <property name="maxPoolSize" value="20" /> <property name="maxStatements" value="50" /> <property name="idleConnectionTestPeriod" value="3000" /> <property name="loginTimeout" value="300" /> I then specified this data source in the Spring entity manager factory as follows: <bean id="myLocalEmf" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="myapp-core" /> <property name="dataSource" ref="myJdbcDataSource" /> </bean> However, I recently noticed while browsing maven artifacts a "hibernate-c3p0". What is this? Is this something I need to use? Or do I already have this configured properly?

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  • Ultrawingrid - how to display #1/1/1800# as blank ( as if null )

    - by Charles Hankey
    Ultrawingrid 9.2 VS2008 .net 3.5 My wingrid uses a bindingsource. All datetimes which are null in SQL Server are delivered to the bindingsource as #1/1/1800# I would like Ultrawingrid to display this date as blank as it would a null from source. Also, if the date is null in the grid ( i.e. blanked out ) I would like to update the data source to the date #1/1/1800# ( the framework takes care of getting that date back into the backend as a null ) This seems like it should be a trivial matter but I can find no documentation on just where to intervene so the grid will see a particular date as a null and save a null as a particular date. This is the direction I've been headed but I don't think either is the right place and I can't even get the syntax to work in the BeforeRowUpdate as I cannot see how to set a value that is passed to the data binding without setting the value of control itself, which I think has to remain null in order to display as blank Private Sub ugPropMaster_BeforeRowUpdate(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As _ Infragistics.Win.UltraWinGrid.CancelableRowEventArgs) Handles _ ugPropMaster.BeforeRowUpdate If e.Row.Cells.Item("Exdate").Value Is Nothing Then e.Row.Cells("Exdate").Value = CDate(#1/1/1800#) End If End Sub Private Sub ugPropMaster_InitializeRow(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As _ Infragistics.Win.UltraWinGrid.InitializeRowEventArgs) Handles _ ugPropMaster.InitializeRow If CDate(e.Row.Cells.Item("Exdate").Value) = CDate(#1/1/1800#) Then e.Row.Cells.Item("Exdate").Value = Nothing End If End Sub Guidance much appreciated

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  • Problems with GData Request Token

    - by Dan Delgado
    We have successfully used GData libraries to access a user's Google Docs. But we encountered problems when many users log in to our site and authorize our web app at the same time or successively. Here's what happens: First user successful logs in, authorizes our web app via OAuth and is able to add rubric (or google spreadsheet). Second user, immediately after first user adds a rubric, successfully logs in then webapp fails on authorize (Token not given. I tried to log it.) Third user fails on login. Fourth user was able to log in, authorize via OAuth, and create rubrics successfully. Fifth user was able to log in but like the second user, gets an invalid token on authorize (Token not given.) And the list goes on. Results were unpredicatable. Below is an excerpt of the stack trace we get when the fail scenario happens: Nested in org.springframework.web.util.NestedServletException: Request processing failed; nested exception is java.lang.NullPointerException: java.lang.NullPointerException at com.google.gdata.client.authn.oauth.OAuthUtil.normalizeParameters(OAuthUtil.java:158) at com.google.gdata.client.authn.oauth.OAuthUtil.getSignatureBaseString(OAuthUtil.java:81) at com.google.gdata.client.authn.oauth.OAuthHelper.addCommonRequestParameters(OAuthHelper.java:649) at com.google.gdata.client.authn.oauth.OAuthHelper.getOAuthUrl(OAuthHelper.java:592) at com.google.gdata.client.authn.oauth.OAuthHelper.getUnauthorizedRequestToken(OAuthHelper.java:276) at com.projectrix.controller.OAuthController.authorize(OAuthController.java:59) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(Unknown Source) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(Unknown Source) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:40) Help!

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  • SFINAE failing with enum template parameter

    - by zeroes00
    Can someone explain the following behaviour (I'm using Visual Studio 2010). header: #pragma once #include <boost\utility\enable_if.hpp> using boost::enable_if_c; enum WeekDay {MONDAY, TUESDAY, WEDNESDAY, THURSDAY, FRIDAY, SATURDAY, SUNDAY}; template<WeekDay DAY> typename enable_if_c< DAY==SUNDAY, bool >::type goToWork() {return false;} template<WeekDay DAY> typename enable_if_c< DAY!=SUNDAY, bool >::type goToWork() {return true;} source: bool b = goToWork<MONDAY>(); compiler this gives error C2770: invalid explicit template argument(s) for 'enable_if_c<DAY!=6,bool>::type goToWork(void)' and error C2770: invalid explicit template argument(s) for 'enable_if_c<DAY==6,bool>::type goToWork(void)' But if I change the function template parameter from the enum type WeekDay to int, it compiles fine: template<int DAY> typename enable_if_c< DAY==SUNDAY, bool >::type goToWork() {return false;} template<int DAY> typename enable_if_c< DAY!=SUNDAY, bool >::type goToWork() {return true;} Also the normal function template specialization works fine, no surprises there: template<WeekDay DAY> bool goToWork() {return true;} template<> bool goToWork<SUNDAY>() {return false;} To make things even weirder, if I change the source file to use any other WeekDay than MONDAY or TUESDAY, i.e. bool b = goToWork<THURSDAY>(); the error changes to this: error C2440: 'specialization' : cannot convert from 'int' to 'const WeekDay' Conversion to enumeration type requires an explicit cast (static_cast, C-style cast or function-style cast)

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  • Why Spark viewengine renders unnecessary (or unexpected) quotes?

    - by Arnis L.
    If i add pageBaseType="Spark.Web.Mvc.SparkView" in my web.config (necessary to fix intellisense), somehow it does not render links (probably not only) correctly anymore. This is how it's supposed to look like (and does, if page base type is not specified)= This is how it looks when base type is specified= Chrome source viewer shows identical page source code for both cases= <body> <div class="content"> <div class="navigation"> <a href="/Employee/List">Employees</a> <a href="/Product/List">Products</a> <a href="/Store/List">Stores</a> <div class="navigation_title"> Navigation</div> </div> <div class="main"> <div class="content"> <h2>Employees</h2>Nothing found... &lt;a href=&quot;/Employee/Create&quot;&gt;Create&lt;/a&gt; </div> </div> </div> </body> Developer tools does not= So - why my link gets htmlencoded (if that's what happens)? If it's default behavior, then how to render raw html? Using latest Spark version, rebuilt with Asp.Net Mvc2 RC assemblies.

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  • Problems using Maven to initialize a local thoughtsite (App Engine sample) project in Eclipse

    - by ovr
    This sample app ("thoughtsite") for App Engine contains a pom.xml in its trunk: http://code.google.com/p/thoughtsite/source/browse/#svn/trunk I ran mvn eclipse:eclipse and also tried using m2eclipse to import this source code into an Eclipse project. But I end up with this error despite the fact that I have the Google App Engine plugin and the Google App Engine SDK installed: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.ExceptionInInitializerError at com.google.appengine.tools.info.SdkImplInfo.<clinit>(SdkImplInfo.java:19) at com.google.appengine.tools.util.Logging.initializeLogging(Logging.java:36) at com.google.appengine.tools.development.DevAppServerMain.main(DevAppServerMain.java:82) Caused by: java.lang.RuntimeException: Unable to discover the Google App Engine SDK root. This code should be loaded from the SDK directory, but was instead loaded from file:~/.m2/repository/com/google/appengine/appengine-tools-sdk/1.3.0/appengine-tools-sdk-1.3.0.jar. Specify -Dappengine.sdk.root to override the SDK location. at com.google.appengine.tools.info.SdkInfo.findSdkRoot(SdkInfo.java:106) at com.google.appengine.tools.info.SdkInfo.<clinit>(SdkInfo.java:24) ... 3 more When I go into the project settings under "Google" and try to set it to use the default App Engine SDK it always reverts to trying to use Maven's App Engine SDK instead. No idea how to get this project working.

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  • Import package problem in GWT

    - by Krt_Malta
    Hi! I'm developing an app using GWT Eclipse plug-in. (I'm also using GWT Designer but I don't think the problem is here). Previously when I wanted to communicate with a web service I created, I produced the "skeleton" classes from the WSDL url using Sun's wsimport tool. Then I would add the classes generated to a class folder in my Eclipse project. All worked well. However this doesn't seem to be working with GWT. I have these: VideoTutorialServiceService service = new VideoTutorialServiceService(); VideoTutorialService port = service.getVideoTutorialServicePort(); and I have VideoTutorialServiceService and VideoTutorialService underlined in red, the error saying videotutorialservice.VideoTutorialServiceService can not be found in source packages. Check the inheritance chain from your module; it may not be inheriting a required module or a module may not be adding its source path entries properly. .... I googled about it but I got confused. I'm a beginnier in GWT. How can I resolve this please? Thanks and regards, Krt_Malta

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  • Unpacking gems [Rails 2.3.5]

    - by yuval
    I have the following gems defined in my environment.rb file: config.gem "authlogic" config.gem "paperclip" config.gem "pauldix-feedzirra", :lib => "feedzirra", :source => "http://gems.github.com" config.gem 'whenever', :lib => false, :source => 'http://gemcutter.org/' I have them installed on my local computer and everything is working well. Since I am working on a shared-server (DreamHost), I need to unpack those gems to get them to work (can't install them as I did on my own computer to get them to work). Before uploading, I ran the following on my local machine: rake gems:unpack This created the following folders in /vender/gems: authlogic-2.1.3, paperclip-2.3.1.1, pauldix-feedzirra-0.0.18, whenever-0.4.1 So it looks like they're all there. When I run rake db:migrate on the server, though, I get these following error: Missing these required gems: pauldix-feedzirra For some reason, the feedzirra unpacked gem is not detected. Could anybody give me a clue as to why this is happening and how to solve it? Thanks!

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  • My timer code is failing when IAR is configured to do max optimization

    - by Vishal
    Hi, I have used timer A in MSP430 with high compiler optimization, but found that my timer code is failing when high compiler optimization used. When none optimization is used code works fine. This code is used to achieve 1 ms timer tick. timeOutCNT is increamented in interrupt. Following is the code [Code] //Disable interrupt and clear CCR0 TIMER_A_TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL | // set the clock source as SMCLK TIMER_A_ID | // set the divider to 8 TACLR | // clear the timer MC_1; // continuous mode TIMER_A_TACTL &= ~TIMER_A_TAIE; // timer interrupt disabled TIMER_A_TACTL &= 0; // timer interrupt flag disabled CCTL0 = CCIE; // CCR0 interrupt enabled CCR0 = 500; TIMER_A_TACTL &= TIMER_A_TAIE; //enable timer interrupt TIMER_A_TACTL &= TIMER_A_TAIFG; //enable timer interrupt TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL + MC_1 + ID_3; // SMCLK, upmode timeOutCNT = 0; //timeOutCNT is increased in timer interrupt while(timeOutCNT <= 1); //delay of 1 milisecond TIMER_A_TACTL = TIMER_A_TASSEL | // set the clock source as SMCLK TIMER_A_ID | // set the divider to 8 TACLR | // clear the timer MC_1; // continuous mode TIMER_A_TACTL &= ~TIMER_A_TAIE; // timer interrupt disabled TIMER_A_TACTL &= 0x00; // timer interrupt flag disabled [/code] Can anybody help me here to resolve this issue? Is there any other way we can use timer A so it works fine in optimization modes? Or do I have used is wrongly to achieve 1 ms interrupt? Thanks in advanced. Vishal N

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  • MVVM and Ribbon Command

    - by user312372
    I am trying to change the source property of the frame in Page1.xaml when the SampleCommand is excecuted. How do I acheive this in the View Model? Page1.xaml: <r:RibbonTab.Groups> <r:RibbonGroup GroupSizeDefinitions="{StaticResource RibbonLayout}"> <r:RibbonGroup.Command> <r:RibbonCommand LabelTitle="RibbonButton"/> </r:RibbonGroup.Command> <r:RibbonButton x:Name="RibbonButton1" Command="{Binding Path=SampleCommand}"/> </r:RibbonGroup> </r:RibbonTab.Groups> </r:RibbonTab> </r:Ribbon> <Border Name="PageBorder" Grid.Row="0" Grid.Column="1"> <Frame Name="pageFrame" Source="FirstPage.xaml" /> </Border> </DockPanel> c# Page1ViewModel.cs: RelayCommand _sampleCommand; public ICommand SampleCommand { get { // create command ?? return _sampleCommand } page1.xaml.cs : Page1ViewModel pageViewModel; this.DataContext = pageViewModel; // when pageloads

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  • WPF In-Memory Image Display

    - by Aren B
    Im trying to build an Item Template for my list-view and im bound to a list of Entities. The entity I have has a System.Drawing.Image that I'd like to display, but so far I cannot for the life of me figure out how to bind it to the <Image> block. Every example and documentation I can find on the internet pertains to Images accessible via an uri i.e. File on HDD or On Website <DataTemplate x:Key="LogoPreviewItem"> <Border BorderBrush="Black" BorderThickness="1"> <DockPanel Width="150" Height="100"> <Image> <Image.Source> <!-- {Binding PreviewImage} is where the System.Drawing.Image is in this context --> </Image.Source> </Image> <Label DockPanel.Dock="Bottom" Content="{Binding CustomerName}" /> </DockPanel> </Border> </DataTemplate>

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  • Pseudo code for instruction description

    - by Claus
    Hi, I am just trying to fiddle around what is the best and shortest way to describe two simple instructions with C-like pseudo code. The extract instruction is defined as follows: extract rd, rs, imm This instruction extracts the appropriate byte from the 32-bit source register rs and right justifies it in the destination register. The byte is specified by imm and thus can take the values 0 (for the least-significant byte) and 3 (for the most-significant byte). rd = 0x0; // zero-extend result, ie to make sure bits 31 to 8 are set to zero in the result rd = (rs && (0xff << imm)) >> imm; // this extracts the approriate byte and stores it in rd The insert instruction can be regarded as the inverse operation and it takes a right justified byte from the source register rs and deposits it in the appropriate byte of the destination register rd; again, this byte is determined by the value of imm tmp = 0x0 XOR (rs << imm)) // shift the byte to the appropriate byte determined by imm rd = (rd && (0x00 << imm)) // set appropriate byte to zero in rd rd = rd XOR tmp // XOR the byte into the destination register This looks all a bit horrible, so I wonder if there is a little bit a more elegant way to describe this bahaviour in C-like style ;) Many thanks, Claus

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  • SqlCe odd results why? -- Same SQL, different results in different apps. Issue with

    - by NitroxDM
    When I run this SQl in my mobile app I get zero rows. select * from inventory WHERE [ITEMNUM] LIKE 'PUMP%' AND [LOCATION] = 'GARAGE' When I run the same SQL in Query Analyzer 3.5 using the same database I get my expected one row. Why the difference? Here is the code I'm using in the mobile app: SqlCeCommand cmd = new SqlCeCommand(Query); cmd.Connection = new SqlCeConnection("Data Source="+filePath+";Persist Security Info=False;"); DataTable tmpTable = new DataTable(); cmd.Connection.Open(); SqlCeDataReader tmpRdr = cmd.ExecuteReader(); if (tmpRdr.Read()) tmpTable.Load(tmpRdr); tmpRdr.Close(); cmd.Connection.Close(); return tmpTable; UPDATE: For the sake of trying I used the code found in one of the answers found here and it works as expected. So my code looks like this: SqlCeConnection conn = new SqlCeConnection("Data Source=" + filePath + ";Persist Security Info=False;"); DataTable tmpTable = new DataTable(); SqlCeDataAdapter AD = new SqlCeDataAdapter(Query, conn); AD.Fill(tmpTable); The issue appears to be with the SqlCeDataReader. Hope this helps someone else out!

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  • Updating Multiple Drop-Down Lists in AjaxTags

    - by Berin
    I'm using AjaxTags as a defined set of JSP tags to facilitate AJAX programming, saving me from some heavy lifting. The project is in trial mode, so I may not adopt the technology and write my own solution. Here's what I'm running into (code abbreviated) I have a drop-down list that defines an item that populates numerous other drop-down lists. <form> ... <select id="item1" name="item1"> <c:forEach items="${list1}" var="item"> <option value="${item}">${item}</option> </c:forEach> </select> <select id="item2" name="items2"></select> <select id="item3" name="items3"></select> ... </form> <ajax:select source="item1" target="item2" baseUrl="${pageContext.request.contextPath}/doAction.view" parameters="action1 = {item}" /> <ajax:select source="item1" target="item3" baseUrl="${pageContext.request.contextPath}/doAction.view" parameters="action2 = {item}" /> The code above works with my back-end, initiating a call to a servlet class that is listening for calls, parses the parameter and takes action based upon the name of the parameter passed. The problem comes from adding the second ajax:select tag above. An action in drop-down "item 1" only causes "item 3" to be populated with new values. What I want is for an action in "item 1" to populate "item 2" and "item 3" (and 4, 5, 6...). Has anyone else used AjaxTags (ajaxtags.sourceforge.net) and solved a similar solution? Environment Details: Tomcat 5.5.27, Spring 2.0.8, Struts 1.2.9, Java 6

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  • aspnet_compiler -fixednames does not work?

    - by Terrence
    I am unable to get the -fixednames switch to create dlls for the cs code behind files. The files in the bin folder are compiled aspx pages, but the code behind files are all compiled into one large websitename.dll file. Here is my command with switches. aspnet_compiler -v / -p E:\Source\DotNet4\mysolution\website -f -d -fixednames E:\Source\DotNet4\CompiledWebSite This produces many files in the bin folder. website.dll and website.pdb (contains code behind) myform1.aspx.643c7876.dll (compiled aspx layout ui) I have tested this over and over to make sure I am not missing anything. The test is place a label on myform1.aspx, and in the codebehind populate the label with some text. Compile the website with the above switches and deploy the website. Make a change to the myform1 codebehind and change the label text. Compile and only deploy the myform1.aspx.643c7876.dll to the website. Result: label is still the same. Now deploy the website.dll and pdb and the label changes. Can anyone tell me how to get -fixednames to create sinle dlls for codebehind?

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  • Simulating O_NOFOLLOW (2): Is this other approach safe?

    - by Daniel Trebbien
    As a follow-up question to this one, I thought of another approach which builds off of @caf's answer for the case where I want to append to file name and create it if it does not exist. Here is what I came up with: Create a temporary directory with mode 0700 in a system temporary directory on the same filesystem as file name. Create an empty, temporary, regular file (temp_name) in the temporary directory (only serves as placeholder). Open file name for reading only, just to create it if it does not exist. The OS may follow name if it is a symbolic link; I don't care at this point. Make a hard link to name at temp_name (overwriting the placeholder file). If the link call fails, then exit. (Maybe someone has come along and removed the file at name, who knows?) Use lstat on temp_name (now a hard link). If S_ISLNK(lst.st_mode), then exit. open temp_name for writing, append (O_WRONLY | O_APPEND). Write everything out. Close the file descriptor. unlink the hard link. Remove the temporary directory. (All of this, by the way, is for an open source project that I am working on. You can view the source of my implementation of this approach here.) Is this procedure safe against symbolic link attacks? For example, is it possible for a malicious process to ensure that the inode for name represents a regular file for the duration of the lstat check, then make the inode a symbolic link with the temp_name hard link now pointing to the new, symbolic link? I am assuming that a malicious process cannot affect temp_name.

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  • Community License Agreement for Commercial (SaaS) software?

    - by indomitablehef
    I've got a commercial SaaS application, an online collaboration/lean project mgmt tool. I want to offer a "Community Edition", with specific limitations on how the software can be used, for free. For example free for groups using it to manage open source projects free to K-12 teachers to use in the classroom free for authors collaborating on Lean/Kanban/AgileSoftwareDevelopment books and research papers. free for community conference organizers, user group organizers, etc. The license would grant use of the software with limitations. The software itself can enforce limitations on the number of users/projects. I'm looking for a license agreement / EULA that I can use to specify what uses the software can be used for (see above). It would restrict the users from using it in different ways, such as for commercial use, managing consulting projects, client work, etc. I've been combing the web for good examples of such agreements, and so far coming up short. Any ideas? To be clear, this would not be an open source license of any kind. It would cover the use of commercial software, for specific "community" uses, as we define them.

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  • Convert a Relative URL to an Absolute URL in Actionscript / Flex

    - by Bear
    I am working with Flex, and I need to take a relative URL source property and convert it to an absolute URL before loading it. The specific case I am working with involves tweaking SoundEffect's load method. I need to determine if a file will be loaded from the local file system or over the network from looking at the source property, and the easiest way I've found to do this is to generate the absolute URL. I'm having trouble generating the absolute URL for sound effect in particular. Here were my initial thoughts, which haven't worked. Look for the DisplayObject that the Sound Effect targets, and use its loaderInfo property. The target is null when the SoundEffect loads, so this doesn't work. Look at FlexGlobals.topLevelApplication, at the url or loaderInfo properties. Neither of these are set, however. Look at the FlexGlobals.topLevelApplication.systemManager.loaderInfo. This was also not set. The SoundEffect.as code basically boils down to var url:String = "mySound.mp3"; /*>> I'd like to convert the URL to absolute form here and tweak it as necessary <<*/ var req:URLRequest = new URLRequest(url); var loader:Loader = new Loader(); loader.load(req); Does anyone know how to do this? Any help clarifying the rules of how relative urls are resolved for URLRequests in ActionScript would also be much appreciated. edit I would also be perfectly satisfied with some way to tell whether the url will be loaded from the local file system or over the network. Looking at an absolute URL it would just be easy to look at the prefix, like file:// or http://.

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  • How to float a <div> echoed in the footer over a <div> located elsewhere (PHP/jQuery/HTML/CSS)

    - by PlasmaFlux
    Hello All! I'm embarking on a major project, but am stuck on a tiny issue at the very start. I'll try to be as concise as possible. I have a PHP script that will be echoing into the footer of the page (the last stuff before a bunch of s containing visible buttons and s containing hidden dialog boxes. The plan is to have the buttons float in the upper-right corner of corresponding s in the main content area of the page. i.e. - button-1 echoed into the footer will float in the corner of content-box-1, and will be tied to the hidden 'dialog-1'. I'll be using jQuery and jQuery UI Dialog throughout the page(s). I'm not sure if that's particularly relevant to this question, but thought it worth mentioning just in case. So my question, put simply, is how do I echo a Button 1 into the footer with PHP, but have it float in the upper-right corner (with maybe 5px margin) of Content 1 is full of content? A picture says a thousand words: As shown above, I want the little blue gear button things in the corner of content pieces, locked and loaded with hidden s containing dialog boxes. Again, the catch is that all buttons and hidden divs will be the very last items echoed into the page footer. I've found plenty of info on how to float divs on top of divs, but all the examples I saw showed the s in close proximity to each other in the page source; not with a hundred lines of source code between the two s I'm not sure if the solution is pure CSS, pure jQuery/jQueryUI or a combination of the two. Any advice will be much appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Converting FoxPro Date type to SQL Server 2005 DateTime using SSIS

    - by Avrom
    Hi, When using SSIS in SQL Server 2005 to convert a FoxPro database to a SQL Server database, if the given FoxPro database has a date type, SSIS assumes it is an integer type. The only way to convert it to a dateTime type is to manually select this type. However, that is not practical to do for over 100 tables. Thus, I have been using a workaround in which I use DTS on SQL Server 2000 which converts it to a smallDateTime, then make a backup, then a restore into SQL Server 2005. This workaround is starting to be a little annoying. So, my question is: Is there anyway to setup SSIS so that whenever it encounters a date type to automatically assume it should be converted to a dateTime in SQL Server and apply that rule across the board? Update To be specific, if I use the import/export wizard in SSIS, I get the following error: Column information for the source and the destination data could not be retrieved, or the data types of source columns were not mapped correctly to those available on the destination provider. Followed by a list of a given table's date columns. If I manually set each one to a dateTime, it imports fine. But I do not wish to do this for a hundred tables.

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