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• Can't get Dialog hosting a WebView to layout properly

  - by user246114

  Hi, I'm trying to host a webview on a dialog, without a titlebar, but I'm getting odd layout results. Example test: @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); requestWindowFeature(Window.FEATURE_NO_TITLE); WindowManager wm = (WindowManager)getContext().getSystemService(Context.WINDOW_SERVICE); Display display = wm.getDefaultDisplay(); LinearLayout ll = new LinearLayout(getContext()); ll.setOrientation(LinearLayout.VERTICAL); ll.setLayoutParams(new LayoutParams( LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT, LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT)); ll.setMinimumWidth(display.getWidth() - 10); ll.setMinimumHeight(display.getHeight() - 10); WebView wv = new WebView(getContext()); wv.setLayoutParams(new LayoutParams( LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT, LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT)); wv.getSettings().setJavaScriptEnabled(true); ll.addView(mWebView); setContentView(ll, new LinearLayout.LayoutParams( LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT, LinearLayout.LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT)); } the dialog is inflated at startup, but the webview is not visible. If I rotate the device, it becomes visible, and fills the whole parent layout as requested. What is the right way to do this? I simply want a dialog which occupies most of the device screen, and has a WebView on it which fills the entire space. Thanks

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• eclipse stuck at running program

  - by user1434388

  This is the picture after I end task the eclipse. My Android Program has no errors, and before this problem it was all fine. It happened when I added some code into my program. It gets stuck after I click the run button. This also happens when I run my handphone for debugging the program. Other programs are all working fine, only one is stuck. When I try to remove and import it again seem there is a classes.dex file which I cannot delete, I have to restart my computer for it to allow to delete and I have to force the program to close. I have searched at this website and they said keep open the emulator but it doesn't work for me. below is the connecting coding that i added. //check internet connection private boolean chkConnectionStatus(){ ConnectivityManager connMgr = (ConnectivityManager) this.getSystemService(Context.CONNECTIVITY_SERVICE); final android.net.NetworkInfo wifi = connMgr.getNetworkInfo(ConnectivityManager.TYPE_WIFI); final android.net.NetworkInfo mobile = connMgr.getNetworkInfo(ConnectivityManager.TYPE_MOBILE); if( wifi.isAvailable() ){ return true; } else if( mobile.isAvailable() ){ return true; } else { Toast.makeText(this, "Check your internet" , Toast.LENGTH_LONG).show(); return false; } }

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• Why my linux signal handler run only once

  - by Henry Fané

  #include <iostream> #include <signal.h> #include <fenv.h> #include <string.h> void signal_handler(int sig, siginfo_t *siginfo, void* context) { std::cout << " signal_handler " << fetestexcept(FE_ALL_EXCEPT) << std::endl; throw "exception"; } void divide() { float a = 1000., b = 0., c, f = 1e-300; c = a / b; std::cout << c << " and f = " << f << std::endl; } void init_sig_hanlder() { feenableexcept(FE_ALL_EXCEPT); struct sigaction sa, initial_sa; sa.sa_sigaction = &signal_handler ; sigemptyset( &sa.sa_mask ) ; sa.sa_flags = SA_SIGINFO; // man sigaction(3) // allows for void(*)(int,siginfo_t*,void*) handler sigaction(SIGFPE, &sa, &initial_sa); } int main(int argc, char** argv) { init_sig_hanlder(); while(true) { try { sleep(1); divide(); } catch(const char * a) { std::cout << "Exception in catch: " << a << std::endl; } catch(...) { std::cout << "Exception in ..." << std::endl; } } return 0; } Produce the following results on Linux/g++4.2: signal_handler 0 Exception in catch: exception inf and f = 0 inf and f = 0 inf and f = 0 inf and f = 0 So, signal handler is executed the first time but the next fp exception does not trigger the handler again. Where am I wrong ?

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• Javascript OOP - accessing the inherited property or function from a closure within a subclass

  - by Ali

  Hi All, I am using the javascript inheritance helper provided here: http://ejohn.org/blog/simple-javascript-inheritance/ I have the following code, and I have problem accessing the inherited property or function from a closure within a subclass as illustrated below. I am new to OOP javascript code and I appreciate your advice. I suppose within the closure, the context changes to JQuery (this variable) hence the problem. I appreciate your comments. Thanks, -A PS - Using JQuery 1.5 var Users = Class.extend({ init: function(names){this.names = names;} }); var HomeUsers = Users.extend({ work:function(){ // alert(this.names.length); // PRINTS A // var names = this.names; // If I make a local alias it works $.map([1,2,3],function(){ var newName = this.names.length; //error this.names is not defined. alert(newName); }); } }); var users = new HomeUsers(["A"]); users.work();

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• rails + paperclip: Is a generic "Attachment" model a good idea?

  - by egarcia

  On my application I've several things with attachments on them, using paperclip. Clients have one logo. Stores can have one or more pictures. These pictures, in addition, can have other information such as the date in which they were taken. Products can have one or more pictures of them, categorized (from the font, from the back, etc). For now, each one of my Models has its own "paperclip-fields" (Client has_attached_file) or has_many models that have attached files (Store has_many StorePictures, Product has_many ProductPictures) My client has also told me that in the future we might be adding more attachments to the system (i.e. pdf documents for the clients to download). My application has a rather complex authorization system implemented with declarative_authorization. One can not, for example, download pictures from a product he's not allowed to 'see'. I'm considering re-factoring my code so I can have a generic "Attachment" model. So any model can has_many :attachments. With this context, does it sound like a good idea? Or should I continue making Foos and FooPictures?

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• Risky Business with LINQ to SQL and OR Designer?

  - by Toadmyster

  I have two tables with a one to many relationship in SQL 2008. The first table (BBD) PK | BBDataID | int       | Floor_Qty | tinyint       | Construct_Year | char(4)       | etc, etc describes the data common to all buildings and the second (BBDCerts) PK | BBDCertsID | int       | BBDataID | int       | Certification_Type | varchar(20)       | etc, etc is a collection of certifications for a particular building. Thus, the primary key in BBD (BBDataID) is mapped to the corresponding field in BBDCerts via an FK relationship, but BBDCertsID is the second table's primary key and BBDataID is not because it will not be unique. My problem is that I want to be able to use the OR generated data context to get at the list of certs when I access a particular record in the BBD table. For instance: Dim vals = (From q in db.BBD Where q.BBDataID = x Select q.Floor_Qty, q.Construct_Year, q.BBDCerts).SingleOrDefault and later be able to access a particular certification like this: vals.BBDCerts.Certification_Type.First Now, the automatic associations created when the SQL tables are dropped on the design surface don't generate the EntityRef associations that are needed to access the other table using the dot notation. So, I have to use the OR designer to make the BBDCerts BBDataID a primary key (this doesn't affect the actual database), and then manually change the association properties to the appropriate OneToMany settings. There might be a better way to approach this solution but my question is, is the way I've done it safe? I've done a barrage of tests and the correct cert is referenced or updated every time. Frankly, the whole thing makes me nervous.

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• How to negate a predicate function using operator ! in C++?

  - by Chan

  Hi, I want to erase all the elements that do not satisfy a criterion. For example: delete all the characters in a string that are not digit. My solution using boost::is_digit worked well. struct my_is_digit { bool operator()( char c ) const { return c >= '0' && c <= '9'; } }; int main() { string s( "1a2b3c4d" ); s.erase( remove_if( s.begin(), s.end(), !boost::is_digit() ), s.end() ); s.erase( remove_if( s.begin(), s.end(), !my_is_digit() ), s.end() ); cout << s << endl; return 0; } Then I tried my own version, the compiler complained :( error C2675: unary '!' : 'my_is_digit' does not define this operator or a conversion to a type acceptable to the predefined operator I could use not1() adapter, however I still think the operator ! is more meaningful in my current context. How could I implement such a ! like boost::is_digit() ? Any idea? Thanks, Chan Nguyen

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• RewitePath on IIS7 with .Net 3.5 or 4.0 - The resource cannot be found.

  - by Renso

  In Global.asax handle errors by trying to redirect users to another page without changing the url in the address bar, that's why I am using RewritePath and not Redirect. void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { // Code that runs when an unhandled error occurs Context.RewritePath("~/Error.aspx", false); } Error.apsx in same root folder as About.aspx, and Default.aspx pages which of course work. Not sure I am having this issue. Have the following web.config file settings that I thought may be relevant: IIS7 settings: Application "TestRewriteUrl" under Default Web Site on DefaultAppPool. This example my seem trivial but I cannot use IIS7 HTTP Redirect as I actually was using this example to keep it simple. What I want to ultimately do is have a user type in http://www.somesite.com/myownpage and have it rewrite the path to another page in the same application directory by looking up the "myownpage" in the database to see what database id they have and redirect them to the correct "microsite" based on that without the user noticing a url change. Kind of like when you go to a blogging engine and no matter where in your blog you go the url remains the same. I don't want the user to go from http://www.mysite.com/tomshardware to http://www.mysite.com?id=8734656856. So that is why I used the simply example above to try and understand why the rewrite path does not work.

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• PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer works from Maven command line, but not from Eclipse?

  - by HDave

  I have Eclipse configured to use an external maven instance. Nonetheless I have an integration test that runs fine from the command line, but fails from within Eclipse. The error is a class Spring application context bean error: Cannot convert value of type [java.lang.String] to required type The culprit it a bean that sets property values using a PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer. <!-- property settings for non-JNDI database connections --> <bean id="placeholderConfigUuid" class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer"> <property name="systemPropertiesModeName" value="SYSTEM_PROPERTIES_MODE_OVERRIDE" /> <property name="location" value="classpath:database.properties" /> <property name="placeholderPrefix" value="$DS{" /> </bean> I know which bean is failing because it appears in the stack trace and because when I replace the $DS{hibernate.dialect} with a static value it works. I have two questions: 1) Since M2Eclipse is using the same Maven setup as the command line, why does one work and the other fail? 2) How to fix this? I really like the ability to run a single jUnit test from within Eclipse on demand.

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• NSManagedObject How To Reload

  - by crissag

  I have a view that consists of a table of existing objects and an Add button, which allows the user to create a new object. When the user presses Add, the object is created in the list view controller, so that the object will be part of that managed object context (via the NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName: method). The Add view has a property for the managed object. In the list view controller, I create an Add view controller, set the property to the managed object I created, and then push the Add view on to the navigation stack. In the Add view, I have two buttons for save and cancel. In the save, I save the managed object and pass the managed object back to the list view controller via a delegate method. If the user cancels, then I delete the object and pass nil back to the list view controller. The complication I am having in the add view is related to a UIImagePickerController. In the Add view, I have a button which allows the user to take a photo of the object (or use an existing photo from the photo library). However, the process of transferring to the UIImagePickerController and having the user use the camera, is resulting in a didReceiveMemoryWarning in the add view controller. Further, the view was unloaded, which also caused my NSManagedObject to get clobbered. My question is, how to you go about reloading the NSManagedObject in the case where it was released because of the low memory situation?

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• Managing server instance identity on EC2

  - by kikibobo

  I recently brought up a cluster on EC2, and I felt like I had to invent a lot of things. I'm wondering what kinds of tools, patterns, ideas are out there for how to deal with this. Some context: I had 3 different kinds of servers, so first I created AMIs for each of them. The first AMI had zookeeper, so step one in deploying the system was to get the zookeeper server running. My script then made a note of the mapping between EC2's completely arbitrary and unpredictable hostnames, and the zookeeper server. Then as I brought up new instances of the other 2 kinds of servers, the first thing I would do is ssh to the new server, and add the zookeeper server to its /etc/hosts file. Then as the server software on each instance starts up, it can find zookeeper. Obviously this is a problem that lots of people have to solve, and it probably works a little bit differently in different clouds. Are there products that address this concept? I was pretty surprised that EC2 didn't provide some kind of way to tie your own name to its name. Thanks for any ideas.

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• Android Facebook RequestListener

  - by Marcus King

  I'm new to Java, but have been a .NET developer for years now and I am a bit confused about the point of the RequestListener object as I can't retrieve the results of my asynchronous calls on the UI thread from what I can tell. My research has told me I should not use singletons or the application context object for getting and storing data. I could use sqlLite, but the data I need is too transient to bother. I would like to know how to have the asyncfacebookrunner object report back it's responses to the UI thread so I can proceed to make decisions between my own api and the objects returned to me from the facebook calls I am making in the async calls. Am I missing something? I can't seem to find a way to get data out. I can pass a Bundle in, but I'm not too sure how to get data out. I would think I would pass it an Intent object to retrieve, but I am not seeing it. I think my eyes are crossed from lack of sleep at this point. Any help here?

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• Is it OK to set state within Event Raising methods?

  - by Greg

  I ran across this pattern in the code of a library I'm using. It sets state within the event raising method, but only if the event is not null. protected virtual void OnMyEvent(EventArgs e) { if(MyEvent != null) { State = "Executing"; // Only sets state if MyEvent != null. MyEvent(this,e); } } Which means that the state is not set when overriding the method: protected override void OnMyEvent(EventArgs e) { base.OnMyEvent(e); Debug.Assert( State == "Executing" ); // This fails } but is only set when handling the event: foo.MyEvent += (o, args) => Debug.Assert(State == "Executing"); // This passes Setting state within the if(MyEvent != null) seems like bad form, but I've checked the Event Design Guidelines and it doesn't mention this. Do you think this code is incorrect? If so, why? (Reference to design guidelines would be helpful). Edit for Context: It's a Control, I'm trying to create subclass of it, and the state that it's setting is calling EnsureChildControls() conditionally based upon there being an event handler. I can call EnsureChildControls() myself, but I consider that something of a hack.

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• Defining EditText imeOptions when using InputMethodManager.showSoftInput(View, int, ResultReceiver)

  - by TuomasR

  In my application I have a custom view which requires some text input. As the view in itself doesn't contain any actual views (it's a Surface with custom drawing being done), I have a FrameLayout which contains the custom view and underneath it an EditText -view. When the user does a specific action, the custom view is hidden and the EditText takes over for user input. This works fine, but android:imeOptions seem to be ignored for this view. I'm currently doing this: InputMethodManager inputMethodManager = (InputMethodManager)parent.getSystemService(Context.INPUT_METHOD_SERVICE); EditText t = (EditText)parent.findViewById(R.id.DummyEditor); t.setImeOptions(EditorInfo.IME_ACTION_DONE); inputMethodManager.showSoftInput(t, 0, new ResultReceiver(mHandler) { @Override protected void onReceiveResult( int resultCode, Bundle resultData) { // We're done System.out.println("Editing done : " + ((EditText)parent.findViewById(R.id.DummyEditor)).getText()); } } ); It seems that the setImeOptions(EditorInfo.IME_ACTION_DONE) has no effect. I've also tried adding the option to the layout XML with android:imeOptions="actionDone". No help. Any ideas?

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• Flash Player, security: If a URL starts with "http://" will the SWF always be loaded into REMOTE san

  - by Pavel

  Seems to be a question for a Flash security guru. Suppose we are loading an external SWF movie with MovieClipLoader.loadMovie(url:String) Is it safe to assume that if url starts with "http://", the movie will be loaded in REMOTE sandbox? We need to tell local SWFs from remote ones to close a security hole. If you need the context read on. We have developed a Projector, written in C++ embedding Flash Player ActiveX. Our Flash application runs inside the Projector. Soon we want to give our users a way to create plugins for the application. The plugins are obviously will be SWF movies. The case I'm afraid of is the following. A bad person creates a malicious evil.swf pretending it to be nice plugin for our app. In case evil.swf is loaded from the local file system it is granted an access to the whole MovieClip tree and Projector API, opening C++ file access operations. On the other hand if evil.swf is loaded from the internet, remotely, it will be locked in REMOTE sandbox by Flash security model. Because of this, we need a reliable way to tell local SWF from remote one before loading it. And we must not make a mistake. So again, is it safe to assume that if url begins with "http://", the clip will be loaded inside REMOTE sandbox?

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• HTML form never calls Javascript

  - by user1205577

  I have a set of radio buttons defined in HTML like so: <input type="radio" name="group" id="rad1" value="rad1" onClick="doStuff(this.id)">Option 1<br> <input type="radio" name="group" id="rad2" value="rad2" onClick="doStuff(this.id)">Option 2<br> Just before the </body> tag, I have the following JavaScript behavior defined: <script type="text/javascript"> /*<![CDATA[*/ function doStuff(var id){ alert("Doing stuff!"); } /*]]>*/ </script> When I run the program, the page loads as expected in my browser window and the radio buttons allow me to click them. The doStuff() function, however, is never called (I validated this using breakpoints as well). I also tried the following just to see if inline made the difference, but it seems the JavaScript is never called at all: <script type="text/javascript"> /*<![CDATA[*/ alert("JavaScript called!"); main(); function main(){ var group = document.getElementsByName('group'); for(var i=0; i<group.length; i++){ group[i].onclick = function(){ doStuff(this.id); }; } } /*]]>*/ </script> My question is, is there something special I need to do using HTML and JavaScript in this context? My question is not whether I should be using inline function calls or whether this is your favorite way to write code.

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• Jquery plugin seems to leak memory no matter what I do

  - by ddombrow

  I've recently been tasked with ferreting out some memory leaks in an application for my work. I've narrowed down one of the big leaks to a jquery plugin. It appears we're using a modified version of a popular context menu jquery plugin. It looks like one of the developers before me attempted to add a destroy method. I noticed it wasn't very well written and attempted to rewrite. Here's the meat of my destroy method: if (menu.childMenus) { for (var i = 0; i < menu.childMenus.length; i++) { $(menu.childMenus[i]).destroy(menu.childMenus[i], 'contextmenu'); } } var recursiveUnbind = function(node) { $(node).unbind(); //$(node).empty().remove(); $.each(node, function(obj) { recursiveUnbind(obj); }); }; $.each(menu, function() { recursiveUnbind(menu); }); $(menu).empty().remove(); In my mind this code should blow away all the jquery event binding and remove the dom elements, yet still the plugin leaks gobs of memory in IE7. The modified plugin with a test page can be found here: http://www.olduglyhead.com/jquery/leaks/ Clicking the button repeatedly will cause IE7 to leak a bunch of memory.

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• Assign a static function to a variable in PHP

  - by Felipe Almeida

  I would like to assign a static function to a variable so that I can send it around as a parameter. For example: class Foo{ private static function privateStaticFunction($arg1,$arg2){ //compute stuff on the args } public static function publicStaticFunction($foo,$bar){ //works $var = function(){ //do stuff }; //also works $var = function($someArg,$someArg2){ //do stuff }; //Fatal error: Undefined class constant 'privateStaticFunction' $var = self::privateStaticMethod; //same error $var = Foo::privateStaticFunction; //compiles, but errors when I try to run $var() somewhere else, as expected //Fatal error: Call to private method Foo::privateStaticMethod() from context '' $var = function(){ return Foo::privateStaticMethod(); }; } } I've tried a few more variations but none of them worked. I don't even expect this sort of functional hacking to work with PHP but hey, who knows? Is it possible to do that in PHP or will I need to come up with some hack using eval? P.S.: LawnGnome on ##php mentioned something about it being possible to do what I want using array('Foo','privateStaticMethod') but I didn't understand what he meant and I didn't press him further as he looked busy.

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• How to change the picture of CustomButtonField on click event?

  - by Ujjal boruah Vinod

  I have posted this question previously but the answer is not appropiate. The solution provided just change the picture when the custombutton has focus and unfocus. Suppose in my application I need to change the picture if the user clicks on the customButton, n i m doing this by calling the same screen (ie UiApplication.getUiApplication().pushScreen(new Screen2(b));) . Screen2 is the screen which holds the customButton. On the click evevt i m pushing the same screen by passing aint variable pic_status that determines which picture to be drawn in the CustomButton in the new screen. Is there any way to update the picture in the CustomButtonField on click event without pushing the same Screen again and again. //code in Screen2 public void fieldChanged(Field field, int context) { if(field == bf1) { if(pic_status == 0) { pic_status=1; } UiApplication.getUiApplication().pushScreen(new Screen2(pic_status)); } //code in CustomButtonField CustomButtonField(String label,int pic_status,long style) { super(style); this.label = label; this.labelHeight = getFont().getHeight(); this.labelWidth = getFont().getAdvance(label); this.notice = s; if(pic_status ==0) { currentPicture1 = onPicture; currentPicture2 = onPicture; } if(pic_status ==1) { currentPicture1 = clickPicture; currentPicture2 = onPicture; } if( pic_status==2 ) { currentPicture1 = onPicture; currentPicture2 = clickPicture; } } I need a way to update the customButtonField text and picture on the buttonClick event not on focus/unfocus event without pushing the same Screen again and again. If my above description of problem is not satisfactory, plz add a comment n i can give more details explanation of my problem?

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• LINQ To SQL Dynamic Select

  - by mcass20

  Can someone show me how to indicate which columns I would like returned at run-time from a LINQ To SQL statement? I am allowing the user to select items in a checkboxlist representing the columns they would like displayed in a gridview that is bound to the results of a L2S query. I am able to dynamically generate the WHERE clause but am unable to do the same with the SELECT piece. Here is a sample: var query = from log in context.Logs select log; query = query.Where(Log => Log.Timestamp > CustomReport.ReportDateStart); query = query.Where(Log => Log.Timestamp < CustomReport.ReportDateEnd); query = query.Where(Log => Log.ProcessName == CustomReport.ProcessName); foreach (Pair filter in CustomReport.ExtColsToFilter) { sExtFilters = "<key>" + filter.First + "</key><value>" + filter.Second + "</value>"; query = query.Where(Log => Log.FormattedMessage.Contains(sExtFilters)); }

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• Considering moving from Java/Spring MVC to Grails

  - by MDS

  I'm currently using Java & Spring (MVC) to create a webapp, and I'm considering moving to Grails. I'd appreciate feedback/insight on the following: I have multiple application contexts in the current Java/Spring webapp that I load through the web.xml ContextLoaderListener; is it possible to have multiple application contexts in Grails? If, yes, how? This webapp extensively uses a CXF restful web service and the current Java/Spring webapp uses the bundled CXF HTTP client. Can I continue to use the (Java) CXF HTTP Client in Grails? I implemented Spring Security using a custom implementation of UserDetails and UserDetailsService, can I re-use these implementations in Grails "as is" or must I re-implement them? There is an instance where I've relied on Spring's jdbc template (rather than the available ORM) and an additional data source I defined in app context, can I re-use this in Grails? I plan on using Maven as the project management tool; are there any issues of using Maven with Grails where there is a combination of groovy and java?

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• How to access parents' members from a inner class in WPF?

  - by black sensei

  Hello Experts! I'm trying to do scheduled operation let's say to check for user's credit left via web service call and update the user interface. i've tried with quartz.net to implement the scheduling bit.i created an inner class in the window class i need to update.That inner class has the method that calls the webservice and the result needs to be displayed back to the UI. here is an example of what i did. public partial class Window2 : Window { private int i; public Window2() { InitializeComponent(); } public class Myclass :IJob { public void Execute(JobExecutionContext context) { string result = doMyOperation(); //i'll like to call parent label member of name lblNotif //is something like parent.lblNotif.Content = result; //possible? } public string doMyOperation() { //calling the wermethod to retreive user's balance return result = service.GetUsersBalace(user); } } } Well the quartz bit is working and this post is not about quartz. here are my questions Question 1 : How is it possible to access Window2 controls, for instace lable lblNotif? Question 2 : If my thinking about this is wrong, what is done as best practice to solve my kind of problem, where an application need to do an operation let's say every 5mn and update the the UI. Question 3 : i at first tried to use the backgroundworker and i felt like i can't do the scheduling bit with it.Is that correct or i'm wrong. thanks for those who commented already and sorry for those who didn't get the meaning of my post.I hope this will be a bit clearer.Thanks for reading

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• Experiences wanted: producing a jar artifact in IntelliJ

  - by skiaddict1

  Developing with IntelliJ 9.0.2 Community Edition, on the Mac. This is a follow-up to this post about including jar files in an artifact, which has not received any replies. I'm hoping that the reason is that somehow, in creating my artifact (or setting my project settings), I unwittingly did something which people don't tend to do, and which is causing my problem, and that by asking people here to share how they create jar artifacts and set up projects, I will discover what it is. To recap: I have a Java project which depends on two library files. I need to package up the entire thing, with the jars inlined (such that on doing jar -tfv <filename> I see ALL the classes listed, including the ones in the two libraries), into a single jar file. I can make an artifact, I can add the library files to the Output Layout pane, but I CANNOT, no matter what I do, I cannot get the "Inline Artifact" item in the context menu to be selectable (i.e. non-grey) when I right-click on one or other library file. The thing is, making a jar which contains library files as well as the project code is NOT an unusual situation in the Java world! So I figure there are lots of IntelliJ folks out there who have done what I need to do. And I would really like to hear from you folks. What project settings do you use? (be specific, please :-) And exactly how do you set up your jar artifacts? (again, as many specific details as possible, please :-) Clearly, I'd be particularly interested to hear from folks with similar setups to mine (above) who are successfully doing what I need to do. Grateful thanks in advance, folks.

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• How security of the systems might be improved using database procedures?

  - by Centurion

  The usage of Oracle PL/SQL procedures for controlling access to data often emphasized in PL/SQL books and other sources as being more secure approach. I'v seen several systems where all business logic related with data is performed through packages, procedures and functions, so application code becomes quite "dumb" and is only responsible for visualization part. I even heard some devs call such approaches and driving architects as database nazi :) because all logic code resides in database. I do know about DB procedure performance benefits, but now I'm interested in a "better security" when using thick client model. I assume such design mostly used when Oracle (and maybe MS SQL Server) databases are used. I do agree such approach improves security but only if there are not much users and every system user has a database account, so we might control and monitor data access through standard database user security. However, how such approach could increase the security for an average web system where thick clients are used: for example one database user with DML grants on all tables, and other users are handled using "users" and"user_rights" tables? We could use DB procedures, save usernames into context use that for filtering but vulnerability resides at the root - if the main database account is compromised than nothing will help. Of course in a real system we might consider at least several main users (for example frontend_db_user, backend_db_user).

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• .net remoting - Better solution to wait for a service to initialize ?

  - by CitizenInsane

  Context I have a client application (which i cannot modify, i.e. i only have the binary) that needs to run from time to time external commands that depends on a resource which is very long to initialize (about 20s). I thus decided to initialize this resource once for all in a "CommandServer.exe" application (single instance in the system tray) and let my client application call an intermediate "ExecuteCommand.exe" program that uses .net remoting to perform the operation on the server. The "ExecuteCommand.exe" is in charge for starting the server on first call and then leave it alive to speed up further commands. The service: public interface IMyService { void ExecuteCommand(string[] args); } The "CommandServer.exe" (using WindowsFormsApplicationBase for single instance management + user friendly splash screen during resource initializations): private void onStartupFirstInstance(object sender, StartupEventArgs e) { // Register communication channel channel = new TcpServerChannel("CommandServerChannel", 8234); ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(channel, false); // Register service var resource = veryLongToInitialize(); service = new MyServiceImpl(resource); RemotingServices.Marshal(service, "CommandServer"); // Create icon in system tray notifyIcon = new NotifyIcon(); ... } The intermediate "ExecuteCommand.exe": static void Main(string[] args) { startCommandServerIfRequired(); var channel = new TcpClientChannel(); ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(channel, false); var service = (IMyService)Activator.GetObject(typeof(IMyService), "tcp://localhost:8234/CommandServer"); service.RunCommand(args); } Problem As the server is very long to start (about 20s to initialize the required resources), the "ExecuteCommand.exe" fails on service.RunCommand(args) line because the server is yet not available. Question Is there a elegant way I can tune the delay before to receive "service not available" when calling service.RunCommand ? NB1: Currently I'm working around the issue by adding a mutex in server to indicate for complete initiliazation and have "ExecuteCommand.exe" to wait for this mutex before to call service.RunCommand. NB2: I have no background with .net remoting, nor WCF which is recommended replacer. (I chose .net remoting because this looked easier to set-up for this single shot issue in running external commands).

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