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• Pattern for sharing data between views (MVP or MVVM)

  - by Dovix

  What is a good pattern for sharing data between related views?. I have an application where 1 form contains many small views, each views behaves independently from each other more or less (they communicate/interact via an event bus). Every so often I need to pass the same objects to the child views. Sometimes I need this same object to be passed to a child view and then the child passes it onto another child itself contains. What is a good approach to sharing this data between all the views contained within the parent form (view) ? I have looked into CAB and their approach and every "view" has a "root work item" this work item has dictionary that contains a shared "state" between the views that are contained. Is this the best approach? just a shared dictionary all the views under a root view can access? My current approach right now is to have a function on the view that allows one to set the object for that view. Something like view.SetCustomer(Customer c); then if the view contains a child view it knows to set it on the child view ala: this.childview1.SetCustomer(c); The application is written in C# 3.5, for winforms using MVP with structure map as a IoC/DI provider.

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• IE7 - visited links revert to unvisted after page refresh

  - by Gerald

  Hello, A number of our users have just upgraded from IE6 to IE7. the upgreaded users are reporting an issue with visited links reverting to their unvisited color after a page refresh. This only happens to links that are using javascript instead of a hard coded URL: <script lang="JavaScript"> <!-- function LoadGoogle() { var LoadGoogle = window.open('http://www.google.com'); } --> </script> <a href="javascript:LoadGoogle()">Google using javascript</a> <a href="#" OnClick="javascript:LoadGoogle()">Google using javascript OnClick</a> The above links will revert back to the unvisited color whenever the page is refreshed. It doesn't matter if the page is refreshed because of a post back, manually hitting the refresh or f5 button, or from an auto-refresh function. Please note, the above code is an over simplification of what is actually happening, but I believe it illustrates the issue well enough. This is causing a problem for our users because we are providing them with a list of items that are all opened into new windows via javascript when they are clicked; and refresh the parent page when the users are finished with them. Each time the parent page is refreshed all of these links revert back to their unvisited color, so our users are losing track of which items they've worked on. I've been digging around and it looks like this is intended behavior. IE7 doesn't register these links with the browsers history. Does anyone know a work around that will allow us to keep these javascript links in the visited state without having to do a major overhaul of the apps code? Thank you.

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• Has the recent version of subversion dealt with "Access Denied" errors from windows services that mo

  - by Eric LaForce

  Does anyone know if this subversion "bug" has been dealt with? https://svn.apache.org/repos/asf/subversion/tags/1.6.9/www/faq.html#windows-access-denied I'm getting occasional "Access Denied" errors on Windows. They seem to happen at random. Why? These appear to be due to the various Windows services that monitor the filesystem for changes (anti-virus software, indexing services, the COM+ Event Notification Service). This is not really a bug in Subversion, which makes it difficult for us to fix. A summary of the current state of the investigation is available here. A workaround that should reduce the incidence rate for most people was implemented in revision 7598; if you have an earlier version, please update to the latest release. Currently I am experiencing this same behavior in version 1.5.6 when I try and do a SVN switch (I have suspected McAfee as the culprit for a while and when I saw this I feel it validates my suspicions). I read through the link given but it seems pretty old, so I didn't know if this FAQ was just outdated and the issue has actually be resolved. Thanks for any help. Configuration: SVN 1.5.6 TortoiseSVN 1.5.9 Build 15518 Windows XP SP3 32-bit

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• ASP.NET MVC - Entending the Authorize Attribute

  - by Mad Halfling

  Hi folks, currently I use [Authorize(Roles = ".....")] to secure my controller actions on my ASP.NET MVC 1 app, and this works fine. However, certain search views need to have buttons that route to these actions that need to be enabled/disabled based on the record selected on the search list, and also the security privs of the user logged in. Therefore I think I need to have a class accessing a DB table which cross-references these target controller/actions with application roles to determine the state of these buttons. This will, obviously, make things messy as privs will need to be maintained in 2 places - in that class/DB table and also on the controller actions (plus, if I want to change the access to the action I will have to change the code and compile rather than just change a DB table entry). Ideally I would like to extend the [Authorize] functionality so that instead of having to specify the roles in the [Authorize] code, it will query the security class based on the user, controller and action and that will then return a boolean allowing or denying access. Are there any good articles on this - I can't imagine it's an unusual thing to want to do, but I seem to be struggling to find anything on how to do it (could be Monday-morning brain). I've started some code doing this, looking at article http://schotime.net/blog/index.php/2009/02/17/custom-authorization-with-aspnet-mvc/ , and it seems to be starting off ok but I can't find the "correct" way to get the calling controller and action values from the httpContext - I could possibly fudge a bit of code to extract them from the request url, but that doesn't seem right to me and I'd rather do it properly. Cheers MH

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• javascript class calling XMLHttpRequest internally, then handling onreadystatechange

  - by Radu M

  this thing almost works: function myClass(url) { this.source = url; this.rq = null; this.someOtherProperty = "hello"; // open connection to the ajax server this.start = function() { if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { this.rq = new XMLHttpRequest(); if (this.rq.overrideMimeType) this.rq.overrideMimeType("text/xml"); } else this.rq = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); try { this.rq.onreadystatechange = connectionEvent; this.rq.open("GET", this.source, true); this.rq.send(null); this.state = 1; } catch (err) { // some error handler here } } function connectionEvent() { alert("i'm here"); alert("this doesnt work: " + this.someOtherProperty); } } // myClass so it's nothing more than having the XMLHttpRequest object as a member of my class, instead of globally defined, and invoking it in the traditional way. however, inside my connectionEvent callback function, the meaning of "this" is lost, even though the function itself is scoped inside myClass. i also made sure that the object that i instantiate from myClass is kept alive long enough (declared global in the script). in all the examples of using javascript classes that i saw, "this" was still available inside the inner functions. for me, it is not, even if i take my function outside and make it a myClass.prototype.connectionEvent. what am i doing wrong? thank you.

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• android checkbox box issue

  - by raqz

  i have this check box in a alertdialog. when i try to check the state of the checkbox, the application force closes. any idea why? LayoutInflater factory = LayoutInflater.from(NewActivity.this); final View textDisplayView = factory.inflate(R.layout.nearestlocs, null); final AlertDialog.Builder newAlert = new AlertDialog.Builder(NewActivity.this); newAlert.setView(textDisplayView); final CheckBox checkBoxLab = (CheckBox) findViewById(R.id.checkboxlab); newAlert.setPositiveButton("Display on Map", new DialogInterface.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(DialogInterface dialog, int whichButton) { if(checkBoxLab.isChecked()){ libDisplayFlag = true; } error log 03-13 08:01:58.273: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6188): Uncaught handler: thread main exiting due to uncaught exception 03-13 08:01:58.292: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6188): java.lang.NullPointerException 03-13 08:01:58.292: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6188): at com.isproj3.NewActivity$3.onClick(NewActivity.java:158) 03-13 08:01:58.292: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6188): at com.android.internal.app.AlertController$ButtonHandler.handleMessage(AlertController.java:158) 03-13 08:01:58.292: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(6188): at android.os.Handler.dispatchMessage(Handler.java:99) xml <LinearLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent"> <LinearLayout android:orientation="horizontal" android:gravity="center" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_weight="1"> <CheckBox android:id="@+id/checkboxlib" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="Library" android:gravity="left" android:textColor="#FF0000" android:paddingBottom="5px" android:textSize="07pt" android:checked="true" /> <TextView android:id="@+id/librarytext" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:gravity="center" android:paddingBottom="5px" android:textSize="8pt" /> </LinearLayout> </LinearLayout>

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• How to edit files directly on webdav in windows.

  - by phazei

  I have a webDAV setup with the cPanel webdisk. I can connect to it through NetHood and I can drag and drop files to/from there. What I can't do is simply edit any of the files directly. I need to copy it somewhere else, edit it, then copy it back. That's essentially what is needed with ftp, though smart clients will monitor the file, making it easier than webDAV in the current state I'm using it in. I was under the impression that webdav was supposed to let me work on the files as if it were a local drive. But nothing can actually open the files. How can I go about bringing more functionality around to it? Or is this as good as it gets? I have tried 'net use q:\ https://myserver.com:2083' and 'net use q:\ '\myserver.com@SSL:2083\' but neither work and only throws: "System error 67 has occurred. The network name cannot be found." I ultimately want to use TortiseSVN with the webDAV so I can have my working copy running on the server.

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• Type error while trying to implement the (>>=) function in order to create a custom monad transforme

  - by CharlieP

  Hello, I'm trying to create a monad transformer for a future project, but unfortunately, my implementation of the Monad typeclasse's (=) function doesn't work. First of all, here is the underlying monad's implementation : newtype Runtime a = R { unR :: State EInfo a } deriving (Monad) Here, the implementation of the Monad typeclasse is done automatically by GHC (using the GeneralizedNewtypeDeriving language pragma). The monad transformer is defined as so : newtype RuntimeT m a = RuntimeT { runRuntimeT :: m (Runtime a) } The problem comes from the way I instanciate the (=) function of the Monad typeclasse : instance (Monad m) => Monad (RuntimeT m) where return a = RuntimeT $ (return . return) a x >>= f = runRuntimeT x >>= id >>= f The way I see it, the first >>= runs in the underlying m monad. Thus, runRuntimeT x >>= returns a value of type Runtime a (right ?). Then, the following code, id >>=, should return a value of type a. This value is the passed on to the function f of type f :: (Monad m) => a -> RuntimeT m b. And here comes the type problem : the f function's type doesn't match the type required by the (=) function. Jow can I make this coherent ? I can see why this doesn't work, but I can't manage to turn it into something functionnal. Thank you for you help, and do not hesitate to correct any flaws in my message, Charlie P.

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• UIImagePickerController shows last picture taken instead of camera input

  - by jules

  I'm having a strange behaviour within my app. For taking pictures i'm using the following pretty standard code for displaying the UIImagePickerController: UIImagePickerController *picker = [[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; picker.delegate = self; picker.allowsEditing = NO; picker.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera; [self presentViewController:picker animated:YES completion:nil]; It works perfectly fine the first time I tap the button which calls this action. The strange behaviour starts when I tap that button again. The UIImagePickerController starts again BUT it doesnt show the input from the camera anymore. It shows the last picture I've taken. More Details of this state: Tapping on the image shows the yellow square of the auto focus. (which it actually uses to focus the camera correctly) When I tap on the ImageCapture button - the correct image is taken and presented on the screen. If I take a picture and press 'Retake' the regular camera image is presented as input. More weirdness: It has nothing to do with the iPad I'm using. Creating a new example app which only has button which calls the code from above everything works perfectly fine. I assume it has something to do with the configuration of the app. Therefore I checked everything but could not find any differences which may cause this issue. Thanks in advance for any advice! Update: I do implement the UIImagePickerControllerDelegate in order to dismiss the UIImagePickerController.

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• Javascript Detect Control Key Held on Mouseup

  - by Michael Mikowski

  I've searched a good deal, and can't seem to find a satisfactory solution. I hope someone can help. While I am using jQuery, I am also writing many thousands of lines of Javascript. So a "pure" javascript solution is just fine. I'm trying to determine if the control key is physically held down on a mouseup event. That's it; there are no other preconditions. Does anyone know how to do this reliably, cross-browser? I've tried storing this in a state variable by noting when the key is pressed and released: // BEGIN store control key status in hash_state $().bind('keydown','ctrl',function( arg_obj_e ){ hash_state.sw_ctrldn = true; console.debug( hash_state.sw_ctrldn ); }); $().bind('keyup','ctrl',function( arg_obj_e ){ hash_state.sw_ctrldn = false; console.debug( hash_state.sw_ctrldn ); }); // END store control key status in hash_state However, this really doesn't work. If you test this using firebug and watch the console, you will see that auto-repeat seems to happen, and the value toggles. I inspected the mouseup event to see if there is anything useful there, but to no avail: var debugEvent = function( arg_obj_e ){ var str = ''; for ( var attr in arg_obj_e ){ str += attr + ': ' + arg_obj_e[attr] + '\n'; } console.debug(str); } Any help would be appreciated.

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• Which knowledge base/rule-based inference engine to choose for real time Runway incursion prevention

  - by Piligrim

  Hello, we are designing a project that would listen to dialog between airport controllers and pilots to prevent runway incursions (eg. one airplane is taking off while other is crossing the runway). Our professor wants us to use Jena for knowledge base (or anything else but it should be some sort of rule-based engine). Inference is not the main thing in Jena and there's not much documentation and examples of this. So we need an engine that would get messages from pilots as input and output possible risks of incursion or any other error in message protocol. It should be easy to write rules, and should be easy to provide engine with real time data. I image it something like this: A pilot sends a message that he lands on some runway, the system remembers that the runway is busy and no one should cross it If someone is given an instruction to cross this runway, the engine should fire a rule that something is wrong When the pilot sends a message that he left the runway and goes to the gate, the system clears the runway and lets other planes to use it. So is Jena, or prolog or any other rules engine suitable for this? I mean it is suitable, but do we really need to use it? I asked the prof. if we could just keep state of the runway and use some simple checks based on messages we receive and he said that it is not scalable and we need the knowledge base. Can someone give me any advise on which approach to use for this system? If you recommend k.b., then which one should we use? The project is written in java. Thank you.

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• Need help with Javascript....I think

  - by Mikey

  I'm trying to bypass going through a bunch of menus, to get to the data I want directly. Here are the links I want to go to: http://factfinder.census.gov/servlet/MapItDrawServlet?geo_id=14000US53053072904&tree_id=4001&context=dt&_lang=en&_ts=288363511701 factfinder.census.gov/servlet/MapItDrawServlet?geo_id=14000US53025981400&tree_id=4001&context=dt&_lang=en&_ts=288363511701 factfinder.census.gov/servlet/MapItDrawServlet?geo_id=14000US53067011620&tree_id=4001&context=dt&_lang=en&_ts=288363511701 Notice, if you pull that up right now, you simply see a GIF outline of the map, however there is no map data "behind" it. However, if you go to: factfinder.census.gov/servlet/DTGeoSearchByListServlet?ds_name=DEC_2000_SF1_U&_lang=en&_ts=288392632118 Select Geographic Type: ..... ..... Census Tract Select a State: Washington Select a County: Pierce Select one or more geographic areas: Census Tract 729.04 Hit "Map It" The map will load perfectly. Also, until you close your browser, any of the other links will work perfectly. What I want to do, is be able to bypass these 5 steps, but obviously something is preventing this. Is there a feasible workaround? I have my own domain that I would be able to upload new Javascript or HTML files or whatever is needed.

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• Facebook Graph API authentication in canvas app and track session

  - by cdpnet

  Short question is: how can i use graph api oauth redirects mechanism to authenticate user and save retrieved access_token and also use javascript SDK when needed (the problem is javascript SDK will have different access_token when initialized). I have initially setup my facebook iframe canvas app, with single sign on. This works well with graph api, as I am able to use access_token saved by facebook's javascript when it detects sessionchange(user logged in). But, I want to rather not do single sign-on. But, use graph api redirect and force user to send to a permissions dialog. But, if he has already given permissions, I shouldn't redirect user. How to handle this? Another question: I have done graph api redirects for authentication and have retrieved access_token also. But then, what if I want to use javascript call FB.ui to do stream.Publish? I think it will use it's own access_token which is set during FB.init and detecting session. So, I am looking for some path here. How to use graph api for authentication and also use facebook's javascript SDK when needed. P.S. I'm using ASP .NET MVC 2. I have an authentication filter developed, which needs to detect the user's authentication state and redirect.(currently it does this to graph api authorize url)

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• Is this a good approach to address double-base64-encoding?

  - by Freiheit

  My software understands attachments, like PNGs attached to user records. These attachments are usually sent in from outside sources as a Base64 encoded string. The database stores whatever data it is given, Base64 encoded or not. When I serve up the attachment for download I do this: if (Base64.isBase64(data)) { data = Base64.decodeBase64(data); } There is a potential for data that is double encoded. For instance the sender of a message had base64 encoded data, then encoded it again when building the message to send to me. I think the following code would address that circumstance: while (Base64.isBase64(data)) { data = Base64.decodeBase64(data); } So if data is encoded multiple times, it would be decoded until its in its 'raw' state and then served up for download. Is this approach an acceptable way to address that problem? Ideally some sort of checking could happen at the edge when I receive attachment data, but that will take more time. This looping seems to be a faster way to do it. The 'Base64' library is Apache Commons: http://commons.apache.org/codec/apidocs/org/apache/commons/codec/binary/Base64.html I trust it to properly identify Base64 encoded data.

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• Javascript redeclared global variable overrides old value

  - by Yousuf Haider

  I ran into an interesting issue the other day and was wondering if someone could shed light on why this is happening. Here is what I am doing (for the purposes of this example I have dumbed down the example somewhat): I am creating a globally scoped variable using the square bracket notation and assigning it a value. Later I declare a var with the same name as the one I just created above. Note I am not assigning a value. Since this is a redeclaration of the same variable the old value should not be overriden as described here: http://www.w3schools.com/js/js_variables.asp //create global variable with square bracket notation window['y'] = 'old'; //redeclaration of the same variable var y; if (!y) y = 'new'; alert(y); //shows New instead of Old The problem is that the old value actually does get overriden and in the above eg. the alert shows 'new' instead of 'old'. Why ? I guess another way to state my question is how is the above code different in terms of semantics from the code below: //create global variable var y = 'old'; //redeclaration of the same variable var y; if (!y) y = 'new'; alert(y); //shows Old

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• Entity Framework with ASP.NET MVC. Updating entity problem

  - by Kitaly

  Hi people. I'm trying to update an entity and its related entities as well. For instance, I have a class Car with a property Category and I want to change its Category. So, I have the following methods in the Controller: public ActionResult Edit(int id) { var categories = context.Categories.ToList(); ViewData["categories"] = new SelectList(categories, "Id", "Name"); var car = context.Cars.Where(c => c.Id == id).First(); return PartialView("Form", car); } [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(Car car) { var category = context.Categories.Where(c => c.Id == car.Category.Id).First(); car.Category = category; context.UpdateCar(car); context.SaveChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } The UpdateCar method, in ObjectContext class, follows: public void UpdateCar(Car car) { var attachedCar = Cars.Where(c => c.Id == car.Id).First(); ApplyItemUpdates(attachedCar, car); } private void ApplyItemUpdates(EntityObject originalItem, EntityObject updatedItem) { try { ApplyPropertyChanges(originalItem.EntityKey.EntitySetName, updatedItem); ApplyReferencePropertyChanges(updatedItem, originalItem); } catch (InvalidOperationException ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.ToString()); } } public void ApplyReferencePropertyChanges(IEntityWithRelationships newEntity, IEntityWithRelationships oldEntity) { foreach (var relatedEnd in oldEntity.RelationshipManager.GetAllRelatedEnds()) { var oldRef = relatedEnd as EntityReference; if (oldRef != null) { var newRef = newEntity.RelationshipManager.GetRelatedEnd(oldRef.RelationshipName, oldRef.TargetRoleName) as EntityReference; oldRef.EntityKey = newRef.EntityKey; } } } The problem is that when I set the Category property after the POST in my controller, the entity state changes to Added instead of remaining as Detached. How can I update one-to-one relationship with Entity Framework and ASP.NET MVC without setting all the properties, one by one like this post?

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• Workflow engine BPMN, Drools, etc or ESB?

  - by Tom

  We currently have an application that is based on an in-house developed workflow engine with YAML based DSL. We are looking to move parts of it to Java. I have discovered a number of java solutions like Intalio, JBPM, Drools Expert, Drools Flow etc. They appear to be aimed at businesses where the business analyst creates the workflows using a graphical editor and submits them to the workflow engine. They seem geared towards ease of use for non-technical people rather than for developers with a focus on human interaction. The workflows tend to look like. Discover-a-file -\ -> join -> process-file -> move-file -> register-file Discover-some-metadata -/ If any step fails we need to retry it X times. We also need to be able to stop the system and be able to restart it and have it continue from where it was (durable). Some of our workflows can be defined by a set of goals we need to achieve so Jess's backwards rule chaining sounds interesting but it is not open source. It might be that what we are after is a Finite State Machine engine or just an Enterprise Service Bus and do everything as JMS queues. Is there a good open source workflow engine that is both standards-based but also geared towards developers. We don't particular want to use a graphical workflow designer or write reams of XML and it should ideally be in Java or language agnostic (makes REST/Soap calls to external services). Thanks, Tom

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• vimscript: calling dictionary functions with call()

  - by intuited

  I'm hoping to call a "static" dictionary function using call(). By "static" I mean that the keyword 'dict' is not used in the function's definition. I use this nomenclature in the hopes that the effect of this keyword is to declare a static member function as is possible in java/C++/etc, ie to put the function name in the class namespace but allow it to be called without referencing an object. However this doesn't seem to work. For example: " Setup: let testdict = { } funct! testdict.funct() echo "called" endfunct " Tests: " Following each line is an indented comment " containing its output in message land, ie what was echoed. call testdict.funct() " called echo testdict.funct " 667 echo string(testdict.funct) " function('667') echo function('667') " E475: Invalid argument: 667 echo function('testdict.funct') " testdict.funct call call(testdict.funct, [ ]) " E725: Calling dict function without Dictionary: 667 " Same deal if there's an intermediate variable involved. let TestdictDotFunct = testdict.funct echo TestdictDotFunct " 667 echo string(TestdictDotFunct) " function('667') call TestdictDotFunct() " E725: Calling dict function without Dictionary: 667 From the help topic E725: It is also possible to add a function without the "dict" attribute as a Funcref to a Dictionary, but the "self" variable is not available then. So logic would seem to indicate that if "self" is not available, then it should be possible to call the function referenced by the Funcref without a Dictionary. However this doesn't seem to be the case. Am I missing something? Vim version info: $ aptitude show vim-gnome Package: vim-gnome State: installed Automatically installed: no Version: 2:7.2.245-2ubuntu2

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• ActiveX control loading but not activating correctly (only when using in Reg Free COM)

  - by embnut

  I have an ActiveX control (created using C#) that I am adding to a form in Visual FoxPro using late binding. It works without problems when I register the control. I want to use reg free COM and created necessary manifest files. Now it load and displays in an inactive state until I double click or programatically activate it. I don't think it has anything to do with the reg free com manifest files. However is there something I need to do to set it up before/after making the late binding call AddObject()? this.AddObject('OleControl1', 'oleControl', 'SomeCompany.SomeOleControl') When I check the OleTypeAllowed Property of the OleControl created by AddObject() it is 1 (Embedded OLE object) instead of -2 (ActiveX object). So the OleControl got instantiated to the wrong type. I also tried the following: DEFINE(d) a subclass of OleControl and set the property OleTypeAllowed = -2. Used late binding to load the control. It did not work as required. The OleTypeAllowed came back as 1 Registered the ActiveX control. Added the ActiveX control to the project as a subclass using the visual editor. Unregistered the control. Used late binding to load the control. It did not work as required. The OleTypeAllowed came back as 1. Is it possible to load the OleControl as a ActiveX control? Any input from VB that I can convert to FoxPro would also be appreciated.

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• Automation Error upon running VBA script in Excel

  - by brohjoe

  Hi guys, I'm getting an Automation error upon running VBA code in Excel 2007. I'm attempting to connect to a remote SQL Server DB and load data to from Excel to SQL Server. The error I get is, "Run-time error '-2147217843(80040e4d)': Automation error". I checked out the MSDN site and it suggested that this may be due to a bug associated with the sqloledb provider and one way to mitigate this is to use ODBC. Well I changed the connection string to reflect ODBC provider and associated parameters and I'm still getting the same error. Here is the code with ODBC as the provider: Dim cnt As ADODB.Connection Dim rst As ADODB.Recordset Dim stSQL As String Dim wbBook As Workbook Dim wsSheet As Worksheet Dim rnStart As Range Public Sub loadData() 'This was set up using Microsoft ActiveX Data Components version 6.0. 'Create ADODB connection object, open connection and construct the connection string object. Set cnt = New ADODB.Connection cnt.ConnectionString = _ "Driver={SQL Server}; Server=onlineSQLServer2010.foo.com; Database=fooDB Uid=logonalready;Pwd='helpmeOB1';" cnt.Open On Error GoTo ErrorHandler 'Open Excel and run query to export data to SQL Server. strSQL = "SELECT * INTO SalesOrders FROM OPENDATASOURCE('Microsoft.ACE.OLEDB.12.0', & _ "'Data Source=C:\Database.xlsx; Extended Properties=Excel 12.0')...[SalesOrders$]" cnt.Execute (strSQL) 'Error handling. ErrorExit: 'Reclaim memory from the connection objects Set rst = Nothing Set cnt = Nothing Exit Sub ErrorHandler: MsgBox Err.Description, vbCritical Resume ErrorExit 'clean up and reclaim memory resources. cnt.Close If CBool(cnt.State And adStateOpen) Then Set rst = Nothing Set cnt = Nothing End If End Sub

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• Android: How to get a custom view to redraw partially?

  - by Peterdk

  I have a custom view that fills my entire screen. (A piano keyboard) When a user touches the key, it would cause a invalidate() to be called and the whole keyboard gets redrawn to show the new state with a touched key. Currently the view is very simple, but I plan to add a bit more nice graphics. Since the whole keyboard is dynamically rendered this would make redrawing the entire keyboard more expensive. So I thought, let's look into partial redrawing. Now I call invalidate(Rect dirty) with the correct dirty region. I set my onDraw(Canvas canvas) method to only draw the keys in the dirty region if I do indeed want a partial redraw. This results in those keys being drawn, but the rest of the keyboard is totally black/not drawn at all. Am I wrong in expecting that calling invalidate(Rect dirty) would "cache" the current canvas, and only "allows" drawing in the dirty region? Is there any way I can achieve what I want? (A way to "cache" the canvas and only redraw the dirty area?"

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• How to bind data from a view of type List<List<MyViewModelClass>>?

  - by Robert Koritnik

  I have a strong type view of type List<List<MyViewModelClass>> The outer list will always have two lists of List<MyViewModelClass>. For each of the two outer lists I want to display a group of checkboxes. Each set can have an arbitrary number of choices. My view model class looks similar to this: public class MyViewModelClass { public Area Area { get; set; } public bool IsGeneric { get; set; } public string Code { get; set; } public bool IsChecked { get; set; } } So the final view will look something like: Please select those that apply: First set of choices: x Option 1 x Option 2 x Option 3 etc. Second set of choices: x Second Option 1 x Second Option 2 x Second Option 3 x Second Option 4 etc. Checkboxes should display MyViewModelClass.Area.Name, and their value should be related to MyViewModelClass.Area.Id. Checked state is of course related to MyViewModel.IsChecked. Question I wonder how should I use Html.CheckBox() or Html.CheckBoxFor() helper to display my checkboxes? I have to get these values back to the server on a postback of course. If it makes things simpler, I could make a separate view model type like: public class Options { public List<MyViewModelClass> General { get; set; } public List<MyViewModelClass> Others { get; set; } }

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• managed beans as managed properties

  - by Sean

  I am using JSF 1.1 on WebSphere 6.1. I am building search functionality within an application and am having some issues. I've stripped out the extras, and have left myself with the following: 4 managed beans: SearchController - Controller bean, session scope SearchResults - session scope (store the results) ProductSearch - session scope (store the search conditions) ResultsBacking - Backing bean for DataTable, used to determine which row was clicked, request scope The SearchController bean has, as managed properties, the other 3. All except ResultsBacking are session scoped. If there is only 1 item in the search results, I want to bring up that record directly. I call setFirst(0) for the data table in the ResultsBacking method (I want to use the existing method that handle which item was clicked, so this is called right after the setFirst). When I go to do another search, I get an IllegalArgumentException when calling getRowData in the data table. According to the api, this is thrown 'if now(sic) row data is available at the currently specified row index'. I'm confused as to why this happens. It works the first time but not the second. Do I need to remove the ResultsBacking on a new search to get rid of the old state?

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• PCA extended face recognition

  - by cMinor

  The state of the art says that we can use PCA to perform face recognition. like this, this or this I am working with a project that involves training a classifier to detect a person who is wearing glasess or hats or even a mustache. The purpose of doing this is to detect when a person that has robbed a bank, store, or have commeted some sort of crime(s) (we have their image in a database), enters a certain place ( historically we know these guys have robbed, so we should take care to avoid problems). We came first to have a distributed database with all images of criminals, then I thought to have a layer of them clasifying these criminals using accesories like hats, mustache or anything that hides their face etc... Then, to apply that knowledge to detect when a particular or a suspect person enters a comercial place. ( In practice when someone is going to rob not all the times they are using an accesorie...) What do you think about this idea of doing PCA to first detect principal components of the face and then the components of an accesory. I was thinking that maybe a probabilistic approach is better so we can compute the probability the criminal is the person that entered a place and call the respective authorities.

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• ASP Classic, SQL 2008, XML Output, and DSN vs DSN-Less Produces Chinese Letters

  - by RoLYroLLs

  I've been having a problem for the past month and can't seem to figure out what is wrong. Here's the setup and a little background. Background: I have a web-host who was running my website on Windows Server 2003 and SQL Server 2000. One of my webpages returned a result set from a stored procedure from the SQL server as xml. Below is the code: Stored Procedure: select top 10 1 as tag , null as parent , column1 as [item!1!column1!element] , column2 as [item!1!column2!element] from table1 for XML EXPLICIT ASP Page: index.asp Call OpenConn Set cmd = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Command") With cmd .ActiveConnection = dbc .CommandText = "name of proc" .CommandType = adCmdStoredProc .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@RetVal", adInteger, adParamReturnValue, 4) .Parameters.Append .CreateParameter("@Level", adInteger, adParamInput, 4, Level) End With Set rsItems = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Recordset") With rsItems .CursorLocation = adUseClient .CursorType = adOpenStatic .LockType = adLockBatchOptimistic Set .Source = cmd .Open Set .ActiveConnection = Nothing End With If NOT rsItems.BOF AND NOT rsItems.EOF Then OutputXMLQueryResults rsItems,"items" End If Set rsItems = Nothing Set cmd = Nothing Call CloseConn Sub OpenConn() strConn = "Provider=SQLOLEDB;Data Source=[hidden];User Id=[hidden];Password=[hidden];Initial Catalog=[hidden];" Set dbc = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") dbc.open strConn End Sub Sub CloseConn() If IsObject(dbc) Then If dbc.State = adStateOpen Then dbc.Close End If Set dbc = Nothing End If End Sub Sub OutputXMLQueryResults(RS,RootElementName) Response.Clear Response.ContentType = "text/xml" Response.Codepage = 65001 Response.Charset = "utf-8" Response.Write "" Response.Write "" While Not RS.EOF Response.Write RS(0).Value RS.MoveNext WEnd Response.Write "" Response.End End Sub Present: All was working great, until my host upgraded to Windows Server 2008 and SQL Server 2008. All of the sudden I was getting results like this: From Browser: From View Source: However, I found that if I use a DSN connection strConn = "DSN=[my DSN Name];User Id=[hidden];Password=[hidden];Initial Catalog=[hidden];" it works perfectly fine! My current host is not going to support DSN any longer, but that's out of scope for this issue. Someone told me to use an ADO.Stream object instead of a Recordset object, but I'm unsure how to implement that. Question: Has anyone run into this and found a way to fix it? What about that ADO.Stream object, can someone help me with a sample that would fit my code?

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