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• Theory of formal languages - Automaton

  - by dader51

  Hi everybody ! I'm wondering about formal languages. I have a kind of parser : It reads à xml-like serialized tree structure and turn it into a multidimmensionnal array. I figured out that i need at least three variables to achieve the job : $tree = array(); // a new array $pTree = array(&$tree); // a new array which the first element points to $tree; $deep = 0; plus the one containing the sentence splitted into words. My point is on the similarities between the algorithm deing used and the differents kinds of automatons ( state machines turing machines stack ... ). The $words variable is the "tape" of the automaton, the test/conditions of the algorithm are transitions, $deep is the state and $tree is the output. I cannont figure what is $pTree. So the question is : which is the automaton I implictly use here, and to which formal languages family does it fit ? And what's about recursion ?

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• Passing control references as ref parameters

  - by Enmanuel

  Hi everyone. Please help me out here because im getting kind of confused.. I have a form in a C# winforms project and a couple of methods that are suposed to perform some tasks for this particular form and all derived ones, so one of those helper methods can make the example.. this one should fill comboboxes with a dataset. Its working properly now but when i coded the method with this signature protected void FillComboBox(kComboBox target, IEntClass_DA entity) { target.DataSource = entity.GetList().Tables[0]; target.DisplayMember = "name"; target.ValueMember = "id"; } I saw that the displayMember and ValueMember in the comboboxes were not holding the values after the method call. I just thought I should use ref parameters so the asignments are not wasted in read-only reference variables. It was ok by then but later, making an exercise of passing the whole form as a parameter I was warned by the compiler with the notice that this could not be passed as a ref parameter because it is read-only. Fine then, I keep working and see that even without the ref keyword i can use the ref variable from the form, update some properties and see the changes. So whats happening here: passing a reference of the control to the helper method gives me ability to change its members even when not using the ref parameter?? Thanks.

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• How can I extend this SQL query to find the k nearest neighbors?

  - by Smigs

  I have a database full of two-dimensional data - points on a map. Each record has a field of the geometry type. What I need to be able to do is pass a point to a stored procedure which returns the k nearest points (k would also be passed to the sproc, but that's easy). I've found a query at http://blogs.msdn.com/isaac/archive/2008/10/23/nearest-neighbors.aspx which gets the single nearest neighbour, but I can't figure how to extend it to find the k nearest neighbours. This is the current query - T is the table, g is the geometry field, @x is the point to search around, Numbers is a table with integers 1 to n: DECLARE @start FLOAT = 1000; WITH NearestPoints AS ( SELECT TOP(1) WITH TIES *, T.g.STDistance(@x) AS dist FROM Numbers JOIN T WITH(INDEX(spatial_index)) ON T.g.STDistance(@x) < @start*POWER(2,Numbers.n) ORDER BY n ) SELECT TOP(1) * FROM NearestPoints ORDER BY n, dist The inner query selects the nearest non-empty region and the outer query then selects the top result from that region; the outer query can easily be changed to (e.g.) SELECT TOP(20), but if the nearest region only contains one result, you're stuck with that. I figure I probably need to recursively search for the first region containing k records, but without using a table variable (which would cause maintenance problems as you have to create the table structure and it's liable to change - there're lots of fields), I can't see how.

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• mod_rewrite with question marks and ampersands (with PHP)

  - by Chris

  I have a PHP-based web app that I'm trying to apply Apache's mod_rewrite to. Original URLs are of the form: http://example.com/index.php?page=home&x=5 And I'd like to transform these into: http://example.com/home?x=5 Note that while rewriting the page name, I'm also effectively "moving" the question mark. When I try to do this, Apache happily performs this translation: RewriteRule ^/([a-z]+)\?(.+)$ /index.php?page=$1&$2 [NC,L] But it messes up the $_GET variables in PHP. For example, a call to http://example.com/home?x=88 yields only one $_GET variable (page => home). Where did x => 88 go? However, when I change my rule to use an ampersand rather than a question mark: RewriteRule ^/([a-z]+)&(.+)$ /index.php?page=$1&$2 [NC,L] a call like http://example.com/home&x=88 will work just as I'd expect it to (i.e. both the page and x $_GET variables are set appropriately). The difference is minimal I know, but I'd like my URL variables to "start" with a question mark, if it's possible. I'm sure this reflects my own misunderstanding of how mod_rewrite redirects interact with PHP, but it seems like I should be able to do this (one way or another). Thanks in advance! Cheers, -Chris

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• Calling PHP functions within HEREDOC strings

  - by Doug Kavendek

  In PHP, the HEREDOC string declarations are really useful for outputting a block of html. You can have it parse in variables just by prefixing them with $, but for more complicated syntax (like $var[2][3]), you have to put your expression inside {} braces. In PHP 5, it is possible to actually make function calls within {} braces inside a HEREDOC string, but you have to go through a bit of work. The function name itself has to be stored in a variable, and you have to call it like it is a dynamically-named function. For example: $fn = 'testfunction'; function testfunction() { return 'ok'; } $string = <<< heredoc plain text and now a function: {$fn()} heredoc; As you can see, this is a bit more messy than just: $string = <<< heredoc plain text and now a function: {testfunction()} heredoc; There are other ways besides the first code example, such as breaking out of the HEREDOC to call the function, or reversing the issue and doing something like: ?> <!-- directly outputting html and only breaking into php for the function --> plain text and now a function: <?PHP print testfunction(); ?> The latter has the disadvantage that the output is directly put into the output stream (unless I'm using output buffering), which might not be what I want. So, the essence of my question is: is there a more elegant way to approach this? Edit based on responses: It certainly does seem like some kind of template engine would make my life much easier, but it would require me basically invert my usual PHP style. Not that that's a bad thing, but it explains my inertia.. I'm up for figuring out ways to make life easier though, so I'm looking into templates now.

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• Cannot read value from SYS_CONTEXT

  - by AppleGrew

  I have a PL/SQL procedure which sets some variable in user session, like the following:- Dbms_Session.Set_Context( NAMESPACE =>'MY_CTX', ATTRIBUTE => 'FLAG_NAME', Value => 'some value'); Just after this (in the same procedure), I try to read the value of this flag, using:- SYS_CONTEXT('MY_CTX', 'FLAG_NAME'); The above returns nothing. How did the DB lose this value? The weirder part is that if I invoke this proc directly from Oracle SQL Developer then it works. It doesn't work when I invoke this proc from my web application from callable statement. --EDIT-- Added an example as to how we are invoking the proc from our Java code. String statement = "Begin package_name.proc_name( flag_val => :1); END;"; OracleCallableStatement st = <some object by some framework> .createCallableStatement(statement); st.setString(1, 'flag value'); st.execute(); st.close();

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• BindingList<T> and reflection!

  - by Aren B

  Background Working in .NET 2.0 Here, reflecting lists in general. I was originally using t.IsAssignableFrom(typeof(IEnumerable)) to detect if a Property I was traversing supported the IEnumerable Interface. (And thus I could cast the object to it safely) However this code was not evaluating to True when the object is a BindingList<T>. Next I tried to use t.IsSubclassOf(typeof(IEnumerable)) and didn't have any luck either. Code /// <summary> /// Reflects an enumerable (not a list, bad name should be fixed later maybe?) /// </summary> /// <param name="o">The Object the property resides on.</param> /// <param name="p">The Property We're reflecting on</param> /// <param name="rla">The Attribute tagged to this property</param> public void ReflectList(object o, PropertyInfo p, ReflectedListAttribute rla) { Type t = p.PropertyType; //if (t.IsAssignableFrom(typeof(IEnumerable))) if (t.IsSubclassOf(typeof(IEnumerable))) { IEnumerable e = p.GetValue(o, null) as IEnumerable; int count = 0; if (e != null) { foreach (object lo in e) { if (count >= rla.MaxRows) break; ReflectObject(lo, count); count++; } } } } The Intent I want to basically tag lists i want to reflect through with the ReflectedListAttribute and call this function on the properties that has it. (Already Working) Once inside this function, given the object the property resides on, and the PropertyInfo related, get the value of the property, cast it to an IEnumerable (assuming it's possible) and then iterate through each child and call ReflectObject(...) on the child with the count variable.

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• Dymanic if statement evaluation problem with string comparison

  - by Mani

  I tried the example given in http://forums.sun.com/thread.jspa?threadID=780576&tstart=67605 to create if statement dynamically. But it is not working fine. Instead of using "age" variable as integer, i have used string in the below example. I am getting "fail" as answer instead of "success". Can anyone help me? / To change this template, choose Tools | Templates and open the template in the editor. / import java.lang.reflect.*; import bsh.Interpreter; public class Main { public static String d; public static void main(String args[]) { try { String age = "30"; String cond = "age==30"; Interpreter i = new Interpreter(); i.set("age", age); System.out.println(" sss" + i.get("age")); if((Boolean)i.eval(cond)) { System.out.println("success"); } else { System.out.println("fail"); } } catch (Throwable e) { System.err.println(e); } } } Thanks, Mani

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• MySQL - NULL value check and Dynamic SQL inside stored procedure

  - by Mithun P

  DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS HaveSomeFun; CREATE PROCEDURE HaveSomeFun(user_id CHAR(50),house_id CHAR(50),room_id CHAR(50),fun_text TEXT,video_url CHAR(100)) BEGIN DECLARE query_full TEXT; SET @fields_part = 'INSERT INTO fun(FunKey,UserKey,FunBody,LastModified'; SET @values_part = CONCAT(') VALUES( NewBinKey(), KeyToBin(\"', user_id, '\"), \"', fun_text, '\", NOW() '); IF (house_id) THEN SET @fields_part = CONCAT(@fields_part, ', HouseKey'); SET @values_part = CONCAT(@values_part, ', KeyToBin(\'', house_id, '\')'); END IF; IF (room_id) THEN SET @fields_part = CONCAT(@fields_part, ', RoomKey'); SET @values_part = CONCAT(@values_part, ', KeyToBin(\'', room_id, '\')'); END IF; IF (video_url IS NOT NULL) THEN SET @fields_part = CONCAT(@fields_part, ', VideoURL'); SET @values_part = CONCAT(@values_part, ', "', video_url, '"'); END IF; SET query_full = CONCAT(@fields_part, @values_part, ' );'); SET @query_full = query_full; PREPARE STMT FROM @query_full; EXECUTE STMT; SELECT query_full; END; And CALL HaveSomeFun('29B455DE-A9BC-102D-9C16-00163EEDFCFC', '', 'F82C47A8-64DE-11DF-9D7E-0026B9481364', 'Jokes apart', ''); will construct the below string in the variable query_full INSERT INTO fun(FunKey,UserKey,FunBody,LastModified, VideoURL) VALUES( NewBinKey(), KeyToBin("29B455DE-A9BC-102D-9C16-00163EEDFCFC"), "Jokes apart", NOW() , "" ); But I need to get INSERT INTO fun(FunKey,UserKey,FunBody,LastModified, RoomKey, VideoURL) VALUES( NewBinKey(), KeyToBin("29B455DE-A9BC-102D-9C16-00163EEDFCFC"), "Jokes apart", NOW() , KeyToBin('F82C47A8-64DE-11DF-9D7E-0026B9481364'), "" ); Something is missing in the check IF (room_id) THEN. But I cannot impose IF (room_id IS NOT NULL) THEN since it will create KeyToBin('') and RoomKey is foreign key , KeyToBin('') will produce an invalid RoomKey. Any Idea?

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• Ruby - encrypted_strings

  - by Tom Andersen

  A bit of a Ruby newbie here - should be an easy question: I want to use the encrypted_strings gem to create a password encrypted string: (from http://rdoc.info/projects/pluginaweek/encrypted_strings) Question is: Everything works fine, but how come I don't need the password to decrypt the string? Say I want to store the string somewhere for a while,like the session. Is the password also stored with it? (which would seem very strange?). And no, I'm not planning on using 'secret-key' or any similar hack as a password. I am planning on dynamically generating a class variable @@password using a uuid, which I don't store other than in memory, and can change from one running of the program to the next. Symmetric: >> password = 'shhhh' => "shhhh" >> crypted_password = password.encrypt(:symmetric, :password => 'secret_key') => "qSg8vOo6QfU=\n" >> crypted_password.class => String >> crypted_password == 'shhhh' => true >> password = crypted_password.decrypt => "shhhh"

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• Should I release NSString before assigning a new value to it?

  - by Elliot Chen

  Hi, Please give me some suggestions about how to change a NSString variable. At my class, I set a member var: NSString *m_movieName; ... @property(nonatomic, retain) NSString *m_movieName; At viewDidLoad method, I assign a default name to this var: -(void)viewDidLoad{ NSString *s1 = [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"Forrest Gump"]; self.m_movieName = s1; ... [s1 release]; [super viewDidLoad] } At some function, I want to give a new name to this var, so I did like: -(void)SomeFunc{ NSString *s2 = [[NSString alloc] initWithFormat:@"Brave Heart"]; //[self.movieName release]; // ??????? Should perform here? self.m_moiveName = s2; [s2 release]; } I know, NSString* var is just a pointer to an allocated memory block, and 'assign' operation will increment this memory block's using count. For my situation, should I release m_movieName before assigning a value to it? If I do not release it (via [self.movieName release]), when and where will the previous block be released? Thanks for your help very much!

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• matching an element's class to another element's ID, or *part* of another element's ID

  - by shecky

  hello again Such a simple concept but I'm struggling to express it ... apologies in advance for my verbosity. I have a container div with a class, e.g., ; I want to use that class to do two things: add a class (e.g., 'active') to the nav element whose ID matches the class of div#container (e.g., #nav-primary li# apples) add the same class to another element if part of this element's ID matches the class of #container (e.g., div#secondary-apples) I assume there's an .each() loop to check the primary nav's list items' IDs, and to check the div IDs of the secondary nav ... though the latter needs to have its prefix trimmed ... or should I say more simply if the secondary nav div IDs contain the class of div#container? I've tried a few variations of something like this: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#nav-primary li').each(function(){ var containerClass = $('#container').attr('class'); var secondaryID = $('#nav-primary li').attr('id'); // something like if ('#nav-primary li id' == (containerClass) { } // or should I first store a variable of the LI's ID and do something like this: if ( secondaryID == containerClass ) { } // and for the trickier part, how do I filter/trim the secondary nav div IDs, something like this: var secondaryNavID = $('#aux-left div[id ... something here to strip the 'secondary-' bit ... ]'); }); // end each }); // end doc.ready.func </script> The markup is, e.g.: ... ... ... ... ... ... ... Many thanks in advance for any suggestions, svs

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• Am I Writing Assembly Or NASM?

  - by cam

  I'm fed up with this. I've been trying to just get a grip on assembly for awhile, but I feel like I'm coding towards my compiler rather than a language. I've been using this tutorial, and so far it's giving me hell. I'm using NASM, which may be the problem, but I figured it was the most popular one. I'm simply trying to learn the most general form of assembly, so I decided to learn x86. I keep running into stupid errors, like not being able to increment a variable. Here's the latest one: not being able to use div. mov bx, 0; mov cx, 0; jmp start; start: inc cx; mov ax, cx; div 3; <-- invalid combination of opcode and operand cmp ah,0; jz totalvalue; mov ax, cx; div 5; <-- invalid combination of opcode and operand cmp ah, 0; jz totalvalue; cmp cx, 1000; jz end; totalvalue: add bx,cx; jmp start; jmp end; end: mov ah,4ch; mov al,00; int 21h; Should I change compilers? It seems like division should be standard. Do I need to read two tutorials (one on NASM, and one on x86?). Any specific help on this problem?

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• Error in creating trigger using PHP script.. Please help!!!! Geeks

  - by Parth

  I've been successful in creating a simple trigger with a PHP script. The problem comes when I have to use "DELIMITER" in my trigger creating because I have nested if/then statements. For example, the following DOES work: $sql = 'CREATE TRIGGER `database`.`detail` BEFORE INSERT on `database`.`vibez_detail` FOR EACH ROW set @a=new.realtime_value'; $junk = mysqli_query($link, $sql); However, if I need to use "DELIMITER" I get errors galore. Here's what works if I go to the MySQL client at the server: DELIMITER $$; DROP TRIGGER `database`.`detail`$$ CREATE TRIGGER `database`.`detail` BEFORE INSERT on `database`.`vibez_detail` FOR EACH ROW BEGIN set new.data_rate = 69; insert into alarm_trips_parent values (null, new.data_rate, 6969, now()); set @tripped_time = now(); set @tripped:=true; end if; end if; END$$ DELIMITER ;$$ How can I construct the PHP code to get this to work? Seems the mysqli_query($link, $sql) chokes as soon as I put "DELIMITER" in the $sql variable. I get the following error when I attempt to do so: Error: You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near 'DELIMITER //; CREATE TRIGGER `database`.`detail` BEFORE INS' at line 1 Even The concept for using mysqli_multi_query(); didn't worked for me.... :(

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• Trying to use Rhino, getEngineByName("JavaScript") returns null in OpenJDK 7

  - by Yuval

  When I run the following piece of code, the engine variable is set to null when I'm using OepnJDK 7 (java-7-openjdk-i386). import javax.script.ScriptEngine; import javax.script.ScriptEngineManager; import javax.script.ScriptException; public class TestRhino { /** * @param args */ public static void main(String[] args) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub ScriptEngineManager factory = new ScriptEngineManager(); ScriptEngine engine = factory.getEngineByName("JavaScript"); try { System.out.println(engine.eval("1+1")); } catch (ScriptException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } } } It runs fine with java-6-openjdk and Oracle's jre1.7.0. Any idea why? I'm using Ubuntu 11.10. All JVMs are installed under /usr/lib/jvm. I noticed OpenJDK 7 has a different directory structure. Perhaps something is not installed right? $ locate rhino.jar /usr/lib/jvm/java-6-openjdk/jre/lib/rhino.jar /usr/lib/jvm/java-7-openjdk-common/jre/lib/rhino.jar /usr/lib/jvm/java-7-openjdk-i386/jre/lib/rhino.jar Edit Since ScriptEngineManager uses a ServiceProvider to find the available script engines, I snooped around resources.jar's META-INF/services. I noticed that in OpenJDK 6, resources.jar has a META-INF/services/javax.script.ScriptEngineFactory entry which is missing from OpenJDK 7. Any idea why? I suspect this is a bug? Here is the contents of that entry (from OpenJDK 6): #script engines supported com.sun.script.javascript.RhinoScriptEngineFactory #javascript Another edit Apparently, according to this thread, the code simply isn't there, perhaps because of merging issues between Sun and Mozilla code. I still don't understand why it was present in OpenJDK 6 and not 7. The class com.sun.script.javascript.RhinoScriptEngineFactory exists in 6's rt.jar but not in 7's. If it was not meant to be included, why is there a OpenJDK 7 rhino.jar then; and why is the source still in the OpenJDK source tree (here)?

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• Passing row from UIPickerView to integer CoreData attribute

  - by Gordon Fontenot

  I'm missing something here, and feeling like an idiot about it. I'm using a UIPickerView in my app, and I need to assign the row number to a 32-bit integer attribute for a Core Data object. To do this, I am using this method: -(void)pickerView:(UIPickerView *)pickerView didSelectRow:(NSInteger)row inComponent:(NSInteger)component { object.integerValue = row; } This is giving me a warning: warning: passing argument 1 of 'setIntegerValue:' makes pointer from integer without a cast What am I mixing up here? --EDIT 1-- Ok, so I can get rid of the errors by changing the method to do the following: NSNumber *number = [NSNumber numberWithInteger:row]; object.integerValue = rating; However, I still get a value of 0 for object.integerValue if I use NSLog to print it out. object.integerValue has a max value of 5, so I print out number instead, and then I'm getting a number above 62,000,000. Which doesn't seem right to me, since there are 5 rows. If I NSLog the row variable, I get a number between 0 and 5. So why do I end up with a completely different number after casting the number to NSNumber?

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• Efficient splitting of elements in a field

  - by Gary

  I have a field in a text file exported from a database. The field contains addresses but sometimes they are quite long and the database allows them to contain multiple lines. When exported, the newline character gets replaced with a dollar sign like this: first part of very long address$second part of very long address$third part of very long address Not every address has multiple lines and no address contains more than three lines. The length of each line is variable. I'm massaging the data for import into MS Access which is used for a mailmerge. I want to split the field on the $ sign if it's there but if the field only contains 1 line, I want to set my two extra output fields to a zero length string so that I don't wind up with blank lines in the address when it gets printed. I have an awk file that's working correctly on all the other data in the textfile but I need to get this last bit working. I tried the below code. Aside from the fact that I get a syntax error at the else, I'm not sure this is a good way to do what I want. This is being done with gawk on Windows. BEGIN { FS = "|" } $1 != "HEADER" { if ($6 ~ /\$/) split($6, arr, "$") address = arr[1] addresstwo = arr[2] addressthree = arr[3] addressLength = length(address) addressTwoLength = length(addresstwo) addressThreeLength = length(addressthree) else { address = $6 addressLength = length($6) addresstwo = "" addressTwoLength = length(addresstwo) addressthree = "" addressThreeLength = length(addressthree) } printf("%*s\t%*s\t\%*s\n", addressLength, address, addressTwoLength, addresstwo, addressThreeLength, addressthree) }

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• Why Sql not bringing back results unless I set varchar size?

  - by Tom

  I've got an SQL script that fetches results based on the colour passed to it, but unless I set the size of the variable defined as a varchar to (50) no results are returned. If I use: like ''+@Colour+'%' then it works but I don't really want to use it in case it brings back results I don't need or want. The column FieldValue has a type of Varchar(Max) (which can't be changed as this field can store different things). It is part of aspdotnetstorefront package so I can't really change the tables or field types. This doesn't work: declare @Col VarChar set @Col = 'blu' select * from dbo.MetaData as MD where MD.FieldValue = @Colour But this does work: declare @Col VarChar (50) set @Col = 'blu' select * from dbo.MetaData as MD where MD.FieldValue = @Colour The code is used in the following context, but should work either way <query name="Products" rowElementName="Variant"> <sql> <![CDATA[ select * from dbo.MetaData as MD where MD.Colour = @Colour ]]> </sql> <queryparam paramname="@ProductID" paramtype="runtime" requestparamname="pID" sqlDataType="int" defvalue="0" validationpattern="^\d{1,10}$" /> <queryparam paramname="@Colour" paramtype="runtime" requestparamname="pCol" sqlDataType="varchar" defvalue="" validationpattern=""/> </query> Any Ideas?

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• C++ Returning a Reference

  - by Devil Jin

  Consider the following code where I am returning double& and a string&. The thing works fine in the case of a double but not in the case of a string. Why is this difference in the behavior? In both the cases compiler does not even throws the Warning: returning address of local variable or temporary as I am returning a reference. #include <iostream> #include <string> using namespace std; double &getDouble(){ double h = 46.5; double &hours = h; return hours; } string &getString(){ string str = "Devil Jin"; string &refStr = str; return refStr; } int main(){ double d = getDouble(); cout << "Double = " << d << endl; string str = getString(); cout << "String = " << str.c_str() << endl; return 0; } Output: $ ./a.exe Double = 46.5 String =

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• Nicely representing a floating-point number in python

  - by dln385

  I want to represent a floating-point number as a string rounded to some number of significant digits, and never using the exponential format. Essentially, I want to display any floating-point number and make sure it “looks nice”. There are several parts to this problem: I need to be able to specify the number of significant digits. The number of significant digits needs to be variable, which can't be done with with the string formatting operator. I need it to be rounded the way a person would expect, not something like 1.999999999999 I've figured out one way of doing this, though it looks like a work-round and it's not quite perfect. (The maximum precision is 15 significant digits.) >>> def f(number, sigfig): return ("%.15f" % (round(number, int(-1 * floor(log10(number)) + (sigfig - 1))))).rstrip("0").rstrip(".") >>> print f(0.1, 1) 0.1 >>> print f(0.0000000000368568, 2) 0.000000000037 >>> print f(756867, 3) 757000 Is there a better way to do this? Why doesn't Python have a built-in function for this?

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• Jquery ajax auto complete problem

  - by squeaker

  Hi all, I'm having newbie problems resolving an ajax autocomplete script if anyone would like to offer advise? In my form i wish for users to select an event type (drop down box) which on selecting then displays a text box. This text box then offers a user the ability to autocomplete as they start typing, the options having been generated through AJAX depending on the event type selected. I'm using a mix of http://pengoworks.com/workshop/jquery/autocomplete.htm - to carry out the autocomplete and some basic jquery to identify the value of the event type selected. The problem I have within the code below is to pass the selected event type value, set as the variable 'caturl', into the 'extraParams:{cat:4}' replacing the 4 with the event type dynamically selected. Any help would be greatly received. $('#select').change(function() { $('.eventtype').hide(); $('#eventtype' + $(this).find('option:selected').attr('id')).show(); caturl = $('#select :selected').val(); }); $("#CityAjax").autocomplete( 'caturl.php', { delay:10, minChars:2, matchSubset:1, matchContains:1, cacheLength:10, onItemSelect:selectItem, onFindValue:findValue, formatItem:formatItem, extraParams:{cat:4}, autoFill:true });

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• Gadget vista error var with flyout

  - by Jiinn

  hello ! i have a problem with a variable for the flyout : var friendsUser = ""; var friendsMdp = ""; System.Gadget.Settings.write("variableName", variableName); System.Gadget.settingsUI = "Settings.html"; System.Gadget.onSettingsClosed = SettingsClosed; System.Gadget.Flyout.visible = SettingsClosed; function SettingsClosed() { variableName = System.Gadget.Settings.read("variableName"); friendsUser = System.Gadget.Settings.read("friendUser"); friendsMdp = System.Gadget.Settings.read("friendMdp"); setContentText(); } function flyFriends() { System.Gadget.Flyout.file = 'friends.htm'; System.Gadget.Flyout.show = true ; var flyoutDiv = System.Gadget.Flyout.document.parentWindow; flyoutDiv.gMyVar = friendsUser; flyoutDiv.gMyVar2 = friendsMdp; } If i use this my flyout var is undefined , and if i write : var friendsUser = "test"; i have Test in var and after use setting i have nothing ... if i write var in flyoutDiv before System.Gadget.Flyout.show = true ; gadget bug . my settings dont have a problem, but the refresh of the var ... have you a idea ? thank you for all !

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• Modify shell script to monitor/ping multiple ip addresses

  - by Alex

  Alright so I need to constantly monitor multiple routers and computers, to make sure they remain online. I have found a great script here that will notify me via growl(so i can get instant notifications on my phone) if a single ip cannot be pinged. I have been attempting to modify the script to ping multiple addresses, with little luck. I'm having trouble trying to figure out how to ping a down server while the script keeps watching the online servers. any help would be greatly appreciated. I haven't done much shell scripting so this is quite new to me. Thanks #!/bin/sh #Growl my Router alive! #2010 by zionthelion73 [at] gmail . com #use it for free #redistribute or modify but keep these comments #not for commercial purposes iconpath="/path/to/router/icon/file/internet.png" # path must be absolute or in "./path" form but relative to growlnotify position # document icon is used, not document content # Put the IP address of your router here localip=192.168.1.1 clear echo 'Router avaiability notification with Growl' #variable avaiable=false com="################" #comment prefix for logging porpouse while true; do if $avaiable then echo "$com 1) $localip avaiable $com" echo "1" while ping -c 1 -t 2 $localip do sleep 5 done growlnotify -s -I $iconpath -m "$localip is offline" avaiable=false else echo "$com 2) $localip not avaiable $com" #try to ping the router untill it come back and notify it while !(ping -c 1 -t 2 $localip) do echo "$com trying.... $com" sleep 5 done echo "$com found $localip $com" growlnotify -s -I $iconpath -m "$localip is online" avaiable=true fi sleep 5 done

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• Publish failed using Ant publisher (Eclipse/datanucleus).

  - by aronp

  Dear All, I am being driven mad the following (apparently hard) error from eclipse. Publish failed using Ant publisher Resource is out of sync with the file system: '/MyServlet/build/classes/com/inver/hotzones/database/BaseNetworkData.class'. I have seen comments on similar errors where refreshing eclipses view of the project helps but it is not helping me. Have tried cleaning the project, removing it from the webserver, deleting war files but cant seem to clear it. I have reset my TMPDIR variable so that it uses a directory on the same filesystem as that appeared to be another possible cause. The error occurs on classes which have been enhanced by datanuculeus. I have auto-enhance on the project. The other references to this problem indicate that it is due to Eclipses view of the project being out of step with the filesystem, and I am guessing that this has something to do with thedata nucleus enhancement. Any ideas? Thanks. I am using Eclipse 3.5.2 with latest datanucleus pluggins. Stack trace org.eclipse.core.runtime.CoreException: Resource is out of sync with the file system: '/MyServlet/build/classes/com/inver/hotzones/database/BaseNetworkData.class'. at org.eclipse.jst.server.generic.core.internal.publishers.AbstractModuleAssembler.copyModule(AbstractModuleAssembler.java:172) at org.eclipse.jst.server.generic.core.internal.publishers.WarModuleAssembler.assemble(WarModuleAssembler.java:31) at org.eclipse.jst.server.generic.core.internal.publishers.AntPublisher.assembleModule(AntPublisher.java:167) at org.eclipse.jst.server.generic.core.internal.publishers.AntPublisher.publish(AntPublisher.java:128) at org.eclipse.jst.server.generic.core.internal.GenericServerBehaviour.publishModule(GenericServerBehaviour.java:82) at org.eclipse.wst.server.core.model.ServerBehaviourDelegate.publishModule(ServerBehaviourDelegate.java:949) at org.eclipse.wst.server.core.model.ServerBehaviourDelegate.publishModules(ServerBehaviourDelegate.java:1039) at org.eclipse.wst.server.core.model.ServerBehaviourDelegate.publish(ServerBehaviourDelegate.java:872) at org.eclipse.wst.server.core.model.ServerBehaviourDelegate.publish(ServerBehaviourDelegate.java:708) at org.eclipse.wst.server.core.internal.Server.publishImpl(Server.java:2731) at org.eclipse.wst.server.core.internal.Server$PublishJob.run(Server.java:278) at org.eclipse.core.internal.jobs.Worker.run(Worker.java:55)

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• Best way for launching html/jsp to communicate with GWT module

  - by h2g2java

  I asked this at the GWT forum but I'm impatient for the answer and I seem to get rather good responses here. A html or jsp file is used to launch the xxx.nocache.js, which then decides which browser "permutation" to use. <head> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html;charset=UTF-8"> <title>xxx</title> <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript" src="xxx.nocache.js"></script> </head> In my case, I am using a jsp. When the JSP is executed, it discovers some conditions. I wish to pass these conditions as values to the GWT module being launched. The "elegant" GWT way to pass these values would be to persist them as request/memcache attributes and then have the GWT module perform RPC to retrieve those values. For example, the JSP discovers that the current user is Whoopy. Shouldn't I simply have the JSP generate javascript to store user = "Whoopy" as a top or namedframe level javascript variable and use JSNI within the module to retrieve the value for user? I have not tried it yet, but I would like to know how anyone might have done it without having to use RPC.

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