Search Results

Search found 44965 results on 1799 pages for 'presenter first'.

Page 417/1799 | < Previous Page | 413 414 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422 423 424  | Next Page >

  • Designing a silverlight dashboard with mef - is it possible? (with dynamic loading of xaps)

    - by Tim Robbin
    Hello! I am just trying to wrap my head around MEF. And as I am really going to love it ( I guess ) I started my first sample project and immediatly stumbled into a big problem and now I am asking myself if I can use MEF for my scenario at all and that is the following: Imagine that one got some kind of dashboard with, let's say, five regions and above each region there are two comboboxes. The values in the first combobox represent different possible views (for example, chartControl, tableControl, pictureControl, ...) and the values of the second combobox represents the different data sources for the currently selected control. As the controls are very big in size one wants to download them as needed. If the user selects one comboboxitem the corresponding control xap should be loaded and displayed in this specific region. If the user selectes another control in the same combobox the control should be removed from the visualtree and the next control should be downloaded and displayed. If the user changes the selection in a different combobox the corresponding control should be loaded again only in this specific region, with perhaps different data. And to make it a little more interesting - as this is some kind of dashboard one can change the layout from five regions to - for example - ten regions. I've seen the video "MVVM with MEF in Silverlight Video Tutorial Part 2: Plugins and Metadata" ( http://csharperimage.jeremylikness.com/2010/03/mvvm-with-mef-in-silverlight-video_09.html ) but he is using an ItemsControl and is working with Visibility and he only got ONE region. So I think that this technique is not working for me... Puh, I hope I could make myself clear! Thanks a lot for any piece of information!!! Greetings, Tim.

    Read the article

  • UIPickerView crashing when switching segemented control

    - by Mattog1456
    Hello, I have four NSDictionaries that I would like to use to populate a pickerview depending on a segemented control. With the code I have, the first segmented control/pickerview works fine but when I switch to the second segment the picker view only loads part of the second dictionary, that is it loads the same number of rows as it counted in the first dictionary. When I change the segmented control to the third or fourth segment it simply crashes with a sigabrt error indicating that it cannot index item43 when only 27 exist. This I suspect stems from a UItextfield population based on the upickerview row and object. I think the problem is with the way I have the data source and delegate set up. #pragma mark - #pragma mark UIPickerViewDelegate - (NSString *)pickerView:(UIPickerView *)pickerView titleForRow:(NSInteger)row forComponent:(NSInteger)component { if ([wine selectedSegmentIndex] == 0) { return [robskeys objectAtIndex:row]; } if ([wine selectedSegmentIndex] == 1) { return [esabskeys objectAtIndex:row]; } if ([wine selectedSegmentIndex] == 2) { return [lebskeys objectAtIndex:row]; } else if ([wine selectedSegmentIndex] == 3) { return [sbskeys objectAtIndex:row]; } return @"Unknown title"; } #pragma mark - #pragma mark UIPickerViewDataSource - (NSInteger)numberOfComponentsInPickerView:(UIPickerView *)pickerView { return 1; } - (NSInteger)pickerView:(UIPickerView *)pickerView numberOfRowsInComponent:(NSInteger)component { if ([wine selectedSegmentIndex] == 0) { return robskeys.count; } if ([wine selectedSegmentIndex] == 1) { return esabskeys.count; } if ([wine selectedSegmentIndex] == 2) { return lebskeys.count; } else if ([wine selectedSegmentIndex] == 3) { return sbskeys.count; } return 1; } #pragma mark - Any help would be much appreciated Thank you

    Read the article

  • how to conditional display a control in asp wizard based on the radiobutton click in a particular st

    - by Pramod
    Hi, I've been stuck with this problem where there are 3 steps in an asp wizard control. The first step has a radiobutton (yes and no) and based on the radio button input chosen by the user, i would need to hide or show a label in the second wizardstep. Example: Step 1: Choose 1 among the two options: Yes No (radStep1) Step 2: if the radiobutton option in the previous step was yes.. then display a label(lblStep2) in this step.. Else hide the label. I've been handling this through the jquery as i want the functionality in the aspx page itself... The jquery code goes like this... $("#<%=radStep1.ClientID %> input").click(function() { if($("#<%= radStep1.ClientID %> input").index(this) == 0) { $("#<%=lblStep2.ClientID %>").show(); } else if($("#<%= radStep1.ClientID %> input").index(this) == 1) { $("#<%=lblStep2.ClientID %>").hide(); } However, in both the cases, the label is getting displayed.. Could you please help me out if there is anything that i'm missing? I'm guessing that the label is getting hidden at first and then getting shown again once i click on the next button... Thanks a ton in advance....

    Read the article

  • Clustered index - multi-part vs single-part index and effects of inserts/deletes

    - by Anssssss
    This question is about what happens with the reorganizing of data in a clustered index when an insert is done. I assume that it should be more expensive to do inserts on a table which has a clustered index than one that does not because reorganizing the data in a clustered index involves changing the physical layout of the data on the disk. I'm not sure how to phrase my question except through an example I came across at work. Assume there is a table (Junk) and there are two queries that are done on the table, the first query searches by Name and the second query searches by Name and Something. As I'm working on the database I discovered that the table has been created with two indexes, one to support each query, like so: --drop table Junk1 CREATE TABLE Junk1 ( Name char(5), Something char(5), WhoCares int ) CREATE CLUSTERED INDEX IX_Name ON Junk1 ( Name ) CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX IX_Name_Something ON Junk1 ( Name, Something ) Now when I looked at the two indexes, it seems that IX_Name is redundant since IX_Name_Something can be used by any query that desires to search by Name. So I would eliminate IX_Name and make IX_Name_Something the clustered index instead: --drop table Junk2 CREATE TABLE Junk2 ( Name char(5), Something char(5), WhoCares int ) CREATE CLUSTERED INDEX IX_Name_Something ON Junk2 ( Name, Something ) Someone suggested that the first indexing scheme should be kept since it would result in more efficient inserts/deletes (assume that there is no need to worry about updates for Name and Something). Would that make sense? I think the second indexing method would be better since it means one less index needs to be maintained. I would appreciate any insight into this specific example or directing me to more info on maintenance of clustered indexes.

    Read the article

  • Can I version dotfiles within a project without merging their history into the main line?

    - by istrasci
    I'm sure this title is fairly obscure. I'm wondering if there is some way in git to tell it that you want a certain file to use different versions of a file when moving between branches, but to overall be .gitignored from the repository. Here's my scenario: I've got a Flash Builder project (for a Flex app) that I control with git. Flex apps in Flash Builder projects create three files: .actionScriptProperties, .flexProperties, and .project. These files contain lots of local file system references (source folders, output folders, etc.), so naturally we .gitignore them from our repo. Today, I wanted to use a new library in my project, so I made a separate git branch called lib, removed the old version of the library and put in the new one. Unfortunately, this Flex library information gets stored in one of those three dot files (not sure which offhand). So when I had to switch back to the first branch (master) earlier, I was getting compile errors because master was now linked to the new library (which basically negated why I made lib in the first place). So I'm wondering if there's any way for me to continue to .gitignore these files (so my other developers don't get them), but tell git that I want it to use some kind of local "branch version" so I can locally use different versions of the files for different branches.

    Read the article

  • Dynamic Control loading at wrong time?

    - by Telos
    This one is a little... odd. Basically I have a form I'm building using ASP.NET Dynamic Data, which is going to utilize several custom field templates. I've just added another field to the FormView, with it's own custom template, and the form is loading that control twice for no apparent reason. Worse yet, the first time it loads the template, the Row is not ready yet and I get the error message: {"Databinding methods such as Eval(), XPath(), and Bind() can only be used in the context of a databound control."} I'm accessing the Row variable in a LinqDataSource OnSelected event in order to get the child object... Now for the wierd part: If I reorder the fields a little, the one causing the problem no longer gets loaded twice. Any thoughts? EDIT: I've noticed that Page_Load gets called on the first load (when Row throws an exception if you try to use it) but does NOT get called the second time around. If that helps any... Right now managing it by just catching and ignoring the exception, but still a little worried that things will break if I don't find the real cause. EDIT 2: I've traced the problem to using FindControl recursively to find other controls on the page. Apparently FindControl can cause the page lifecycle events (at least up to page_load) to fire... and this occurs before that page "should" be loading so it's dynamic data "stuff" isn't ready yet.

    Read the article

  • Jquery problem - cant expand the row above in a table

    - by apg1985
    Hi People, What I cant figure out is how I would toggle a row in a table using the one below it. So say I have a table with 2 rows the first contains content and the one below contains a button, when the page loads the content row is hidden and when you click the button it toggles the content row on and off. In the example the first table works but the second does not, I need the second one to work. <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html> <head> <title>Testing Horizontal Accordion</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".sectionhead").toggle( function() { $(this).next("tr").hide(); }, function() { $(this).next("tr").show(); } ) }); </script> </head> <body> <table> <tr class="sectionhead"><td></td></tr> <tr class="child"><td>child</td></tr> </table> <br> <table> <tr class="child"><td>child</td></tr> <tr class="sectionhead"><td></td></tr> </table> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Problem with document.location.href

    - by novellino
    Hello, I am new to Javascript and Web development and I have a question regarding the document.location.href. I am using a cookie for storing the language the user prefers and then load the english or the swedish version depending on the language. The default language in the beginning is the same as the browser's language, and my index.jsp is the swedish one. The first time everything works fine. The problem is when the cookie exists already. The basic code is: if (language!=null && language!=""){ if (language=="en-US" || language=="en-us") document.location.href = "en/index.jsp"; } else{ //Explorer if (navigator.userLanguage) language = navigator.userLanguage; //other browsers else language = (navigator.language) ? navigator.language : navigator.userLanguage; if (language!=null && language!=""){ setCookie('language', language, 365, '/', 'onCheck'); if (language=="en-US" || language=="en-us") document.location.href = "en/index.jsp"; else if(language=="sv") document.location.href="index.jsp"; } } When the cookie exists we enter the first "if", and there, if the language is swedish it opens the default blabla/index.jsp page. When the language is set to engish it should open the blabla/en/index.jsp but instead it opens the blabla/en/en/index.jsp which of course is wrong. Does anyone know what I am doing wrong?? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Signable, streamable, "readable" archive format?

    - by alexvoda
    Is there any archive format that offers the following: be digitally sign-able with a digital certificate from a trusted source like Verisign - for preventing changes to the file (I am not referring to read only, but in case the file was changed it should no longer be signed telling the user this is not the original file) be stream-able - be able to be opened even if not all of the content has been transfered (also not strictly linearly) be "readable" - be able to read the data without extracting to a temporary folder (AFAIK if you open a file in a zip archive it is extracted first, and this stays true even for zip based formats like OOXML. This is not what I want) be portable - support on at least Windows, Linux and Mac OS X is a must, or at least future support be free of patents - Be open source - also preferably a license that allows commercial use(as far as i know GPL a share-alike licence so it doesn't allow comercial use, BSD on the other hand alows it) Note: Though it may come in handy eventually I can not think right now of a scenario that would require both point 1 and point 2 simultaneously. Or lets leave it a be able to check the signature only when the whole file was downloaded. I am not interested in: being able to be compressed being supported on legacy systems Does any existing archive format fit this description (tar evolutions like DAR and pax come to mind) ? If there is, are there programing libraries available for the above mentioned OSs? If not, would it be hard to create such a thing? EDIT: clarrified piont 5 EDIT 2: added a note to clarify point 1 and 2 P.S.: This is my first question on StackOverflow

    Read the article

  • Server side form validation and POST data

    - by tomcritchlow
    Hi, I have a user input form here: http://www.7bks.com/create (Google login required) When you first create a list you are asked to create a public username. Unfortuantely currently there is no constraint to make this unique. I'm working on the code to enforce unique usernames at the moment and would like to know the best way to do it. Tech details: appengine, python, webapp framework What I'm planning is something like this: first the /create form posts the data to /inputlist/ (this is the same as currently happens) /inputlist/ queries the datastore for the given username. If it already exists then redirect back to /create display the /create page with all the info previously but with an additional error message of "this username is already taken" My question is: Is this the best way of handling server side validation? What's the best way of storing the list details while I verify and modify the username? As I see it I have 3 options to store the list details but I'm not sure which is "best": Store the list details in the session cookie (I am using GAEsessions for cookies) Define a separate POST class for /create and post the list data back from /inputlist/ to the /create page (currently /create only has a GET class) Store the list in the datastore, even though the username is non-unique. Thank you very much for your help :) I'm pretty new to python and coding in general so if I've missed something obvious my apologies. Tom PS - I'm sure I can eventually figure it out but I can't find any documentation on POSTing data using the webapp appengine framework which I'd need in order to do solution 2 above :s maybe you could point me in the right direction for that too? Thanks! PPS - It's a little out of date now but you can see roughly how the /create and /inputlist/ code works at the moment here: 7bks.com Gist

    Read the article

  • Client Web Browser Behavior When Handling 301 Redirect

    - by Jon Swanson
    The RFC seems to suggest that the client should permanently cache the response: http://www.w3.org/Protocols/rfc2616/rfc2616-sec10.html 10.3.2 301 Moved Permanently The requested resource has been assigned a new permanent URI and any future references to this resource SHOULD use one of the returned URIs. Clients with link editing capabilities ought to automatically re-link references to the Request-URI to one or more of the new references returned by the server, where possible. This response is cacheable unless indicated otherwise. The new permanent URI SHOULD be given by the Location field in the response. Unless the request method was HEAD, the entity of the response SHOULD contain a short hypertext note with a hyperlink to the new URI(s). If the 301 status code is received in response to a request other than GET or HEAD, the user agent MUST NOT automatically redirect the request unless it can be confirmed by the user, since this might change the conditions under which the request was issued. Note: When automatically redirecting a POST request after receiving a 301 status code, some existing HTTP/1.0 user agents will erroneously change it into a GET request. I'm having a hard time finding concrete browser documentation for any major browser that states how they handle these. I've started digging through the source code of firefox, but quickly got lost. Is the following scenario true for which (if any) browsers, and is there definitive documentation for either Firefox or IE that states as much?: First Time Around: 1.1: User enters link to site A, or clicks on a link directed at Site A 1.2: Browser interprets link at Site A, first time, no cache. Sends GET to Site A. 1.2: Site A responds with 301 Redirect to Site B 1.3: Browser sends GET to Site B. Any Subsequent Times Around: 2.2: User clicks on a link directed at Site A 2.2: Browser sees that, due to a past 301 redirect, Site A should now be Site B. 2.3: Without initiating any request whatsoever at Site A, browser initiates GET at Site B.

    Read the article

  • Symfony 1.2 to 2.3 migration

    - by Bonswouar
    I've got a pretty big Symfony 1.2 project to migrate. First, I modified my .htaccess so I can have some pages handled by Symfony 2. What I'd like to do, to make the migration smoother, is to be able to render some SF2 action/templates/methods/... inside SF1. I added the autoloader to the SF1 app, so I can access to twig rendering methods and other stuff. But how can I call a SF2 action ? For example, if I want to migrate only the footer first, I would also need some php methods, not only rendering. That was previously in SF1 component, where should it be now ? If you've got any suggestion about the way of migrating, don't hesitate ! EDIT 1 : Apparently, the only way to do something like that is to render a full twig template, and/or in this template call some other partial twig templates with render(url, params). Here is my SF1 code to be able to render twig templates : public static function getTwig() { require_once __DIR__.'SF2_PATH/vendor/twig/extensions/lib/Twig/Extensions/Autoloader.php'; Twig_Autoloader::register(); $loader = new Twig_Loader_Filesystem( __DIR__.'SF2_PATH/sf2/src/VENDOR/BUNDLE/'); $twig = new Twig_Environment($loader, array( 'cache' => __DIR__.'SF2_PATH/sf2/app/cache/dev/twig', )); return $twig; } And so : $twig->loadTemplate('header.html.twig'); EDIT 2 : That doesn't seem to work, if in a twig template I try to render an other one with {{render(controller('BUNDLE:CONTROLER:ACTION', {})) }} for example Twig_Error : The function "controller" does not exist. And if I try to render the url Unknown tag name "render". I guess Symfony 2 twig functionalities are not loaded, how can I do that ? EDIT 3 : Ok, now I can do it, but I've got the following message... Twig_Error_Runtime An exception has been thrown during the rendering of a template ("Rendering a fragment can only be done when handling a master Request.") in ...

    Read the article

  • UIDatePicker date method is picking wrong date: iPhone Dev

    - by prd
    Hi, I am getting very strange behaviour on UIDatePicker. I have a view with date picker declared in .h file as IBOutlet UIDatePicker *datePicker; with property nonatomic and retain. datePicker is properly linked in IB file. In the code I am setting the minimum, maximum, initial date and action to call for UICOntrolEventValueChanged using following code If (!currentDate) { initialDate = [NSDate date]; } else { initialDate = currentdate; } [datePicker setMinimumDate:[NSDate date]]; [datePicker setMaximumDate:[[NSDate date] addTimeInterval:5 * 365.25 * 24 * 60 * 60]]; // to get upto 5 years [datePicker setDate:initialDate animated:YES]; [datePicker addTarget:self action:@selector(getDatePickerValue:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventValueChanged]; In getDatePickerValue, I get the new date using datePicker.date. When the view is closed (using a done button), I get the current value of the date using datePicker.date. Now if the view is called with no 'currentDate', the picker returns 'todays date'. This is what happens the 'first' time my pickerView is called. Each subsequent call to the view, with no 'current date' gives me a different and later date from today. So, first time I get today's date say 9 Jun 2010 second time datePicker.date returns 10 Jun 2010 third time 11 Jun 2010 and so on. Though its not always incremental, but mostly it is. I have put NSLogs, and verified the initial date is set correctly. The problem is only on the device (on OS 3.0), the issue is not replicated on simulator. I can't find what I have done wrong. I hope somebody else has come across similar problem and can help me resolve this.

    Read the article

  • php multidimensional array as name value pair

    - by Ayad Mfs
    For ecommerce, that expected name value pair I have the following approved code: function create_example_purchase() { set_credentials(); $purchase = array( 'name' => 'Digital Good Purchase Example', 'description' => 'Example Digital Good Purchase', 'amount' => '12.00', // sum of all item_amount 'items' => array( array( // First item 'item_name' => 'First item name', 'item_description' => 'a description of the 1st item', 'item_amount' => '6.00', 'item_tax' => '0.00', 'item_quantity' => 1, 'item_number' => 'XF100', ), array( // Second item 'item_name' => 'Second Item', 'item_description' => 'a description of the 2nd item', 'item_amount' => '3.00', 'item_tax' => '0.00', 'item_quantity' => 2, 'item_number' => 'XJ100', ), ) ); return new Purchase( $purchase); } I would like to get $items Array inside associative $purchase array dynamically from shipping cart. Is there a way to generate exactly the same output above? My dirty solution, to write $purchase array as string inclusive the generated $items array in a file and include it later in the called script. Help appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Bidirectional/Loopback UDP in .net

    - by Jason Williams
    I've got an app that needs to transmit and receive on the same port. This can happen in two cases: Where the PC is talking to a piece of remote hardware. It "replies to sender", so the datagrams come back in to my PC via the sending port. Where the PC is talking to itself (loopback mode) for testing and demoing (a test app feeds fake data into our main app via UDP). This only seems to fail when trying to achieve loopback. The only way I can get it working is to ensure that the receiver is set up first - something I cannot guarantee. Can anyone help narrow down my search by suggesting a "correct" way to implement the UdpClient(s) to handle the above situations reliably? (The only solution that I've found to work reliably with the remote hardware is to use a single UdpClient in a bidirectional manner, although I'm working with legacy code that may be influencing that finding. I've tried using two UdpClients, but they step on each others toes - In some cases, once one client is started up, the other client cannot connect. With ExclusiveAddressUse/ReuseAddress set up to allow port sharing, I can almost get it to work, apart from the receiver having to start first)

    Read the article

  • Create bookmark into 1st column of MSWord table

    - by MikeD
    Hello All, does anyone have a VBA code to create a bookmark into the first column of an MSWord table? Let's say I have a table looking like this .-----.----------------. . ref . Title . .-----.----------------. . 1 . Title 1 . .-----.----------------. . 2 . Title 2 . .-----.----------------. . foo . Title 3 . .-----.----------------. . bar . Title 4 . .-----.----------------. and I want a VBA code fragment that creates a bookmark named "T1_1" on the string "1" in row 2 / column 1, and bookmarks named "T1_2", "T1_foo" and "T1_bar" on the strings in the other cells of column 1. I don't mind to hardcode the prefix "T1" (and substitute for other tables each time). I don't mind to select tables before running the macro, I don't mind giving those cells a special format, and I don't mind to get a superfluous bookmark "T1_ref" from the first row - so the code doesn't need to distinguish between table title and table row. Thanks a lot in advance

    Read the article

  • What is the right pattern for a async data fetching method in .net async/await

    - by s093294
    Given a class with a method GetData. A few other clients call GetData, and instead of it fetching data each time, i would like to create a pattern where the first call starts the task to get the data, and the rest of the calls wait for the task to complete. private Task<string> _data; private async Task<string> _getdata() { return "my random data from the net"; //get_data_from_net() } public string GetData() { if(_data==null) _data=_getdata(); _data.wait(); //are there not a problem here. cant wait a task that is already completed ? if(_data.status != rantocompletion) _data.wait() is not any better, it might complete between the check and the _data.wait? return _data.Result; } How would i do the pattern correctly? (Solution) private static object _servertime_lock = new object(); private static Task<string> _servertime; private static async Task<string> servertime() { try { var thetvdb = new HttpClient(); thetvdb.Timeout = TimeSpan.FromSeconds(5); // var st = await thetvdb.GetStreamAsync("http://www.thetvdb.com/api/Updates.php?type=none"); var response = await thetvdb.GetAsync("http://www.thetvdb.com/api/Updates.php?type=none"); response.EnsureSuccessStatusCode(); Stream stream = await response.Content.ReadAsStreamAsync(); XDocument xdoc = XDocument.Load(stream); return xdoc.Descendants("Time").First().Value; } catch { return null; } } public static async Task<string> GetServerTime() { lock (_servertime_lock) { if (_servertime == null) _servertime = servertime(); } var time = await _servertime; if (time == null) _servertime = null; return time; }

    Read the article

  • SQL UNION ALL with a INNER JOIN

    - by kOhm
    I'm looking for the best way to display all rows from two tables while joining first by one field (dwg) then where applicable a 2nd join on part. Table1 data consists of schematics(dwg) along with a list of parts required to build the item depicted in the drawing. Table2 consists of data about the actual parts ordered to build the schematic. Some parts in table2 are a combination of parts in table1 (ex: foo and bar in table1 were ordered as foobar in table2). I can display all rows in both tables with UNION ALL, but this doesn't join on both the dwg and part fields. I looked at FULL OUTER JOIN also, but I haven't figured out how to join first by dwg, then by part. Here is an example of the data. table1 table2 dwg part qty order dwg part qty ----- ----- ----- ----- ----- ----- ----- 123 foo 1 ord1 123 foobar 1 123 bar 1 ord1 123 bracket 2 123 widget 2 ord2 123 screw 4 123 bracket 4 ord2 123 nut 4 456 foo 1 ord2 123 widget 2 ord2 123 bracket 2 ord3 456 foo 1 Desired output: The goal is to create a view that provides visibility to all parts in table1 and the associated orders in table2 (including those parts that appear in one but not the other table) so that I can see all the drawing parts in table1 and the associated records in table2 along with records in table2 where the part wasn't in table1. part_request_order_report dwg part qty order part qty ----- ----- ----- ------ ----- ----- 123 foo 1 123 bar 1 123 widget 2 ord2 widget 2 123 bracket 4 ord1 bracket 2 123 bracket 4 ord2 bracket 2 123 ord1 foobar 1 123 ord1 screw 4 123 ord1 nut 4 456 foo 1 ord3 foo 1 Is this possible? Or am I better off iterating through the data to build the report table? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • The fastest way to iterate through a collection of objects

    - by Trev
    Hello all, First to give you some background: I have some research code which performs a Monte Carlo simulation, essential what happens is I iterate through a collection of objects, compute a number of vectors from their surface then for each vector I iterate through the collection of objects again to see if the vector hits another object (similar to ray tracing). The pseudo code would look something like this for each object { for a number of vectors { do some computations for each object { check if vector intersects } } } As the number of objects can be quite large and the amount of rays is even larger I thought it would be wise to optimise how I iterate through the collection of objects. I created some test code which tests arrays, lists and vectors and for my first test cases found that vectors iterators were around twice as fast as arrays however when I implemented a vector in my code in was somewhat slower than the array I was using before. So I went back to the test code and increased the complexity of the object function each loop was calling (a dummy function equivalent to 'check if vector intersects') and I found that when the complexity of the function increases the execution time gap between arrays and vectors reduces until eventually the array was quicker. Does anyone know why this occurs? It seems strange that execution time inside the loop should effect the outer loop run time.

    Read the article

  • Join two tables with same # of row but sorted for NULL

    - by VISQL
    I need to join two tables with the same number of rows. Each table has 1 column. There is NO CONNECTING COLUMN to reference for a join. I need to join them side by side because each table was sorted separately so that numeric values are at the top in descinding order. The Table Earners has income values from say 200K down to 0. I cannot just select using 2 cases, because then I will have my first row with Incomes above 100K, but the first 20 or so entries in the second row are NULL. I want the second row to also be sorted descending. I looked up using ORDER BY within CASE but there is no such thing. I have tried to read about row_number() but none of the examples seem to match or make sense. drop table #20plus select case when Income >= 20000 AND Income < 100000 then Income end as 'mula' into #20plus from Earners order by mula desc drop table #100plus select case when Income >= 100000 then Income end as 'dinero' into #100plus from Earners order by dinero desc Select A.dinero, B.mula FROM #100plus as A JOIN #20plus as B ON A.????? = B.????? Since both A and B are sorted descending, moving all NULL to the bottom, what can I reference to join the two tables? Previous output using one SELECT statement with 2 CASE statements dinero mula 2.12688e+007 NULL 1.80031e+007 NULL 1.92415e+006 NULL … … NULL 93530.7 NULL 91000 NULL 84500 Desired output using one SELECT statement after creating two temp TABLES dinero mula 2.12688e+007 93530.7 1.80031e+007 91000 1.92415e+006 84500 … 82500 NULL 82000 NULL … NULL NULL This is Microsoft SQL Server 2008. I'm super new to this, so please give an answer as clear and simplified as possible. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Why doesn't this code work correctly?

    - by MisterSir
    I'm working on a website that displays galleries, using jCarousel. But no matter what I try, I can't get it to work, and I need to finish this by today. I have a very urgent schedule. My code basically takes image URLs from a database and sends them to AJAX, which passes it to jCarousel which makes the gallery. But there are a few problems: It doesn't display correctly! I can only get the last item pulled from the database, and it displays on the bottom-most row. After the item pulled from the database is displayed, the first time I click on "prev" there's no scroll effect, and the item just disappears! Only if I click on "next" 2-3 times there's a scroll effect and the item remains visible. My items are always displayed at the end of the carousel! This is urgent.. Please help me fix this. about.html: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en-us"> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.4.4.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/lib/jquery.jcarousel.min.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="/skins/tango/skin.css" /> <!--<style type="text/css"> #wrapper { width: 700px; margin-left: auto; margin-right: auto; } #carousel { margin-top: 120px; padding-left: 120px; } #side { padding-left: 550px; position: absolute; padding-top: 120px; } #hidden { color: #FFFFFF; } </style>--> <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery.easing['BounceEaseOut'] = function(p, t, b, c, d) { if ((t/=d) < (1/2.75)) { return c*(7.5625*t*t) + b; } else if (t < (2/2.75)) { return c*(7.5625*(t-=(1.5/2.75))*t + .75) + b; } else if (t < (2.5/2.75)) { return c*(7.5625*(t-=(2.25/2.75))*t + .9375) + b; } else { return c*(7.5625*(t-=(2.625/2.75))*t + .984375) + b; } }; function mycarousel_initCallback(carousel) { jQuery('#mycarousel-next').bind('click', function() { carousel.next(); return false; }); jQuery('#mycarousel-prev').bind('click', function() { carousel.prev(); return false; }); }; jQuery(document).ready(function() { jQuery('#mycarousel').jcarousel({ easing: 'BounceEaseOut', wrap: "first", initCallback: mycarousel_initCallback, animation: 1000, scroll: 3, visible: 3, buttonNextHTML: null, buttonPrevHTML: null }); jQuery('#mycarousel2').jcarousel({ easing: 'BounceEaseOut', animation: 1000, wrap: "first", initCallback: mycarousel_initCallback, scroll: 3, visible: 3, buttonNextHTML: null, buttonPrevHTML: null }); jQuery('#mycarousel3').jcarousel({ easing: 'BounceEaseOut', animation: 1000, scroll: 3, wrap: "first", initCallback: mycarousel_initCallback, visible: 3, buttonNextHTML: null, buttonPrevHTML: null }); }); var prevButton = null; function getObject(b, el) { var currbutton = b; var http; var url = "about.php"; var parameters = "d=carousel&cat=" + currbutton; try { http = new XMLHttpRequest(); } catch(e) { try { http = new ActiveXObject("Msxml2.XMLHTTP"); } catch(e) { http = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } } function getServer() { if (http.readyState == 4) { var i = 0; var liArr = http.responseText; var built = liArr.split(", "); var li = document.createElement("li"); var ul1 = document.getElementById("mycarousel"); var ul2 = document.getElementById("mycarousel2"); var ul3 = document.getElementById("mycarousel3"); if (el != prevButton) { prevButton = el; while (ul1.hasChildNodes() ) {ul1.removeChild(ul1.lastChild);} while (ul2.hasChildNodes() ) {ul2.removeChild(ul2.lastChild);} while (ul3.hasChildNodes() ) {ul3.removeChild(ul3.lastChild);} } else return 0; while (i < (built.length) / 3) { li.innerHTML = built[i]; ul1.appendChild(li); i++; } while (i < ((built.length) / 3)*2) { li.innerHTML = built[i]; ul2.appendChild(li); i++; } while (i < (built.length)) { li.innerHTML = built[i]; ul3.appendChild(li); i++; } } } http.open("POST", url, true); http.setRequestHeader("Content-type", "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"); http.setRequestHeader("Content-length", parameters.length); http.setRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); http.onreadystatechange = getServer; http.send(parameters); } </script> </head> <body> <span id="hidden"> </span> <div id="wrapper"> <div id="side"> <form name="cats"> <input type="button" value="Hats" onclick="getObject('hats', this);"/><br /> <input type="button" value="Pants" onclick="getObject('pants', this);"/><br /> <input type="button" value="Shirts" onclick="getObject('shirts', this);"/><br /> </form> </div> <div id="carousel"> <ul id="mycarousel" class="jcarousel-skin-tango"> </ul> <ul id="mycarousel2" class="jcarousel-skin-tango"> </ul> <ul id="mycarousel3" class="jcarousel-skin-tango"> </ul> <input type="button" id="mycarousel-prev" value="prev" /> <input type="button" id="mycarousel-next" value="next" /> </div> </div> </body> </html> I commented the CSS because I thought it was giving me trouble, but honestly I have no idea what the hell's going on with jCarousel. about.php: <?php echo "<img width='75' height='75' src='http://static.flickr.com/66/199481236_dc98b5abb3_s.jpg' />, hi, hi, hi, hi, hi, hi, hi, hi"; ?> Also, even if there are no other items than what is displayed, I'm still able to scroll back, but not forward, assumingly because my item is always placed at the end of the carousel. I know it looks like a lot of code but it's really not! My formatting takes a lot of lines, the commented CSS takes a lot, and a lot of the code is HTML and jCarousel configuration, and there's also the BounceEasing effect which takes a few lines. There's not much actual code! So as I said, this is urgent and I need this fixed. But I can't get it to work. Please help me! Thanks for your time! EDIT: I changed the code a bit, but it still does not work. I really need help on this one!! EDIT: I added document.createElement("li"); to each while loop. Now all my items are displayed, but they are displayed vertically and not horizontally on each row. Other than that all other problems are the same. EDIT: Oh and also, in the row my image displays, only the image is there. Maybe jCarousel doesn't accept img and text, I don't know.

    Read the article

  • rails Rake and mysql ssh port forwarding.

    - by rube_noob
    Hello, I need to create a rake task to do some active record operations via a ssh tunnel. The rake task is run on a remote windows machine so I would like to keep things in ruby. This is my latest attempt. desc "Syncronizes the tablets DB with the Server" task(:sync => :environment) do require 'rubygems' require 'net/ssh' begin Thread.abort_on_exception = true tunnel_thread = Thread.new do Thread.current[:ready] = false hostname = 'host' username = 'tunneluser' Net::SSH.start(hostname, username) do|ssh| ssh.forward.local(3333, "mysqlhost.com", 3306) Thread.current[:ready] = true puts "ready thread" ssh.loop(0) { true } end end until tunnel_thread[:ready] == true do end puts "tunnel ready" Importer.sync rescue StandardError => e puts "The Database Sync Failed." end end The task seems to hang at "tunnel ready" and never attempts the sync. I have had success when running first a rake task to create the tunnel and then running the rake sync in a different terminal. I want to combine these however so that if there is an error with the tunnel it will not attempt the sync. This is my first time using ruby Threads and Net::SSH forwarding so I am not sure what is the issue here. Any Ideas!? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Form (or Formset?) to handle multiple table rows in Django

    - by Ben
    Hi, I'm working on my first Django application. In short, what it needs to do is to display a list of film titles, and allow users to give a rating (out of 10) to each film. I've been able to use the {{ form }} and {{ formset }} syntax in a template to produce a form which lets you rate one film at a time, which corresponds to one row in a MySQL table, but how do I produce a form that iterates over all the movie titles in the database and produces a form that lets you rate lots of them at once? At first, I thought this was what formsets were for, but I can't see any way to automatically iterate over the contents of a database table to produce items to go in the form, if you see what I mean. Currently, my views.py has this code: def survey(request): ScoreFormSet = formset_factory(ScoreForm) if request.method == 'POST': formset = ScoreFormSet(request.POST, request.FILES) if formset.is_valid(): return HttpResponseRedirect('/') else: formset = ScoreFormSet() return render_to_response('cf/survey.html', { 'formset':formset, }) And my survey.html has this: <form action="/survey/" method="POST"> <table> {{ formset }} </table> <input type = "submit" value = "Submit"> </form> Oh, and the definition of ScoreForm and Score from models.py are: class Score(models.Model): movie = models.ForeignKey(Movie) score = models.IntegerField() user = models.ForeignKey(User) class ScoreForm(ModelForm): class Meta: model = Score So, in case the above is not clear, what I'm aiming to produce is a form which has one row per movie, and each row shows a title, and has a box to allow the user to enter their score. If anyone can point me at the right sort of approach to this, I'd be most grateful. Thanks, Ben

    Read the article

  • jQuery AJAX request (Rails 3) gets redirected and returns empty message body!

    - by elsurudo
    I'm trying to do a manual jQuery AJAX request the following way: $("#user_plan_id").change(function() { $("#plan_container").load('/plans/' + this.value); }); I have the "rails.js" file included in my header, and a "<%= csrf_meta_tag %". I see from my log that the request IS getting to the server (although without the authenticity token... does rails.js even do this?), but the response is a 302 (Found) rather than 200, and no data actually gets rendered. Any ideas? Edit: I now see that the first request redirects, and the proper partial gets rendered on the redirect. However, the 2nd response's body (on the client-side) is still empty. I'm guessing jQuery uses the first response and doesn't have a listener set up for the redirect. How do I get around this? Also, another note: the page doing the requesting is an HTTPS page. Here is what my log says: Started GET "/plans/221168073" for 127.0.0.1 at Tue Jun 15 01:24:06 -0400 2010 Processing by PlansController#show as HTML Parameters: {"id"=>"221168073"} DEPRECATION WARNING: Using #request_uri is deprecated. Use fullpath instead. (called from ensure_proper_protocol at /Users/ernestsurudo/Sites/vidfolia/vendor/plugins/ssl_requirement/lib/ssl_requirement.rb:57) Redirected to http://vidfolia.com/plans/221168073 Completed 302 Found in 1ms Perhaps it has something to do with the deprecation warning?

    Read the article

  • A weird crash...

    - by Nima
    Hi, I have a piece of code that runs in debug mode in VS2008, C++. The problem is that when I am debugging the code line by line, at a very weird point of the code, it crashes and says: debug assertion faild. Expression: _BLOCK_TYPE_IS_VALID(pHead-nBlockUse) The crash point is on the first closed curly bracket (after mesh-edges[e].needsUpdate=false;) I don't understand why on a curly bracket? does that make sense to you guys? Can anybody help me understanding what is going on..? for(int e=0; e<mesh->edges.size(); e++) { if(mesh->edges[e].valid && mesh->edges[e].v[0]>=0 && mesh->edges[e].v[1]>=0 && mesh->points[mesh->edges[e].v[0]].writable && mesh->points[mesh->edges[e].v[1]].writable) { //update v_hat and its corresponding error DecEdge Current = DecEdge(e); pair<Point, float> ppf = computeVhat(e); Current.v_hat = ppf.first; Current.error = ppf.second; edgeSoup.push(Current); mesh->edges[e].needsUpdate=false; } }

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 413 414 415 416 417 418 419 420 421 422 423 424  | Next Page >