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  • MSBuild / PowerShell: Copy SQL Server 2012 database to SQL Azure via BACPAC (for Continuous Integration)

    - by giveme5minutes
    I'm creating a continuous integration MSBuild script which copies a database in on-premise SQL Server 2012 to SQL Azure. Easy right? Methods After a fair bit of research I've come across the following methods: Use PowerShell to access the DAC library directly, then use the MSBuild PowerShell extension to wrap the script. This would require installing PowerShell 3 and working out how to make the MSBuild PowerShell extension work with it, as apparently MS moved the DAC API to a different namespace in the latest version of the library. PowerShell would give direct access to the API, but may require quite a bit of boilerplate. Use the sample DAC Framework Client Side Tools, which requires compiling them myself, as the downloads available from Codeplex only include the Hosted version. It would also require fixing them to use DAC 3.0 classes as they appear to currently use an earlier version of DAC. I could then call these tools from an <Exec Command="" /> in the MSBuild script. Less boilerplate and if I hit any bumps in the road I can just make changes to the source. Processes Using whichever method, the process could be either: Export from on-premise SQL Server 2012 to local BACPAC Upload BACPAC to blog storage Import BACPAC to SQL Azure via Hosted DAC Or: Export from on-premise SQL Server 2012 to local BACPAC Import BACPAC to SQL Azure via Client DAC Question All of the above seems to be quite a lot of effort for something that seems to be a standard feature... so before I start reinventing the wheel and documenting the results for all to see, is there something really obvious that I've missed here? Is there pre-written script that MS has released that I have not yet uncovered? There's an command in the GUI of SQL Server Management Studio 2012 that does EXACTLY what I'm trying to do (right click on local database, click "Tasks", click "Deploy Database to SQL Azure"). Surely if it's a few clicks in the GUI it must be a single command on the command line somewhere??

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  • NHibernate. DTO -> Domain

    - by Andrew Kalashnikov
    Hello guys. I've got SOA which processing data for diff clients(asp,sl). The base of this design is domains of my business model. For transporting,showing it to clients I use DTO. For mapping domain to DTO I use AutoMapper. Now I should persist new entities from clients. I want use my DTO's at this scenario too. So i've got some questions as I'm not much familiar with this design 1) Is it a good practice build DTO on client and send it to web-service on the wire? MayBe i should pass my domains? 2) Is it possible have several DTO's to one domain (one show at grid, and one to save). For saving I need set all nonprimitive props at client. 3) DTO - to Domain. If I've got int can I use AutoMapper to generate NHibernate Proxy for this ID, or I should do i manually. Your expierence and practice are very interesting. Thanks for answer!!!

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  • In App Purchase Problem

    - by Chris
    hi , please help me , i am getting product count 0 in response.product. i have followed all the steps of in app purchase in documentation . 1.Provisioning profile and i allowed in app purchase. 2.Dummy app binary uploaded to itunes and rejected that by myself. 3.Setup 2 products in itunes in app purchase and app identifier was selected. All the things seems fine but i am getting product count 0. Please let me know how can i solve this issue . Thanks

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  • Question about the evolution of interaction paradigm between web server program and content provider program?

    - by smwikipedia
    Hi experts, In my opinion, web server is responsible to deliver content to client. If it is static content like pictures and static html document, web server just deliver them as bitstream directly. If it is some dynamic content that is generated during processing client's request, the web server will not generate the conetnt itself but call some external proram to genearte the content. AFAIK, this kind of dynamice content generation technologies include the following: CGI ISAPI ... And from here, I noticed that: ...In IIS 7, modules replace ISAPI filters... Is there any others? Could anyone help me complete the above list and elabrate on or show some links to their evolution? I think it would be very helpful to understand application such as IIS, TomCat, and Apache. I once wrote a small CGI program, and though it serves as a content generator, it is still nothing but a normal standalone program. I call it normal because the CGI program has a main() entry point. But with the recenetly technology like ASP.NET, I am not writing complete program, but only some class library. Why does such radical change happens? Many thanks.

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  • Load SQL query result data into cache in advance

    - by Marc
    I have the following situation: .net 3.5 WinForm client app accessing SQL Server 2008 Some queries returning relatively big amount of data are used quite often by a form Users are using local SQL Express and restarting their machines at least daily Other users are working remotely over slow network connections The problem is that after a restart, the first time users open this form the queries are extremely slow and take more or less 15s on a fast machine to execute. Afterwards the same queries take only 3s. Of course this comes from the fact that no data is cached and must be loaded from disk first. My question: Would it be possible to force the loading of the required data in advance into SQL Server cache? Note My first idea was to execute the queries in a background worker when the application starts, so that when the user starts the form the queries will already be cached and execute fast directly. I however don't want to load the result of the queries over to the client as some users are working remotely or have otherwise slow networks. So I thought just executing the queries from a stored procedure and putting the results into temporary tables so that nothing would be returned. Turned out that some of the result sets are using dynamic columns so I couldn't create the corresponding temp tables and thus this isn't a solution. Do you happen to have any other idea?

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  • SoapClient throws Wrong version

    - by sivansethu
    When i sending below request, i am getting 'Wrong Version" exception. <OTA_HotelGetMsgRQ xmlns="http://www.opentravel.org/OTA/2003/05" TimeStamp="2001-12-17T09:30:47.0Z" Version="4" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" > <Messages> <Message HotelCode="123" HotelName="Test Hotel" ChainCode="321" ReasonForRequest="Reservation Retrieval" RequestCode="Optional" ChainName="Test Chain" MessageType="All" StartSeqNmbr="1" EndSeqNmbr="10" /> </Messages> </OTA_HotelGetMsgRQ> above request is converted into zend code $client = new zend_soap_client(null, array( 'location' => 'http://url...', 'Uri' =>"http://www.opentravel.org/OTA/2003/05" ) ); $request = array( array('Messages'=> array ('Message' => array ( 'HotelCode' => '123', 'HotelName' => 'Test Hotel', 'ChainCode' => '321', 'ReasonForRequest' => 'Reservation Retrieval', 'RequestCode' => 'Optional', 'ChainName' => 'Test Chain', 'MessageType' => 'All', 'StartSeqNmbr' => '1', 'EndSeqNmbr' => '10' ) ) ) ); $result = $client->OTA_HotelGetMsgRQ ($request); Above line throws exception 'Wrong Version'. Anyone help me how to solve this

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  • ASP.NET inline code in a server control

    - by John
    Ok, we had a problem come up today at work. It is a strange one that I never would have even thought to try. <form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %>" > Ok, it is very ugly and I wouldn't have ever tried it myself. It came up in some code that was written years ago but had been working up until this weekend after a bunch of updates were installed on a client's web server where the code is hosted. The actual result of this is the following html: <form name="form1" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=&lt;%= ID %>" id="form1"> The url ends up like this: http://localhost:6735/Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %> Which as you can see, demonstrates that the "<" symbol is being encoded before ASP.NET actually processes the page. It seems strange to me as I thought that even though it is not pretty by any means, it should work. I'm confused. To make matters worse, the client insists that it is a bug in IE since it appears to work in Firefox. In fact, it is broken in Firefox as well, except for some reason Firefox treats it as a 0. Any ideas on why this happens and how to fix it easily? Everything I try to render within the server control ends up getting escaped. Edit Ok, I found a "fix" <form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action='<%# String.Format("Default.aspx?id={0}", 5) %>' > But that requires me to call DataBind which is adding more of a hack to the original hack. Guess if nobody thinks of anything else I'll have to go with that.

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  • Why do I get empty request from the Jakarta Commons HttpClient?

    - by polyurethan
    I have a problem with the Jakarta Commons HttpClient. Before my self-written HttpServer gets the real request there is one request which is completely empty. That's the first problem. The second problem is, sometimes the request data ends after the third or fourth line of the http request: POST / HTTP/1.1 User-Agent: Jakarta Commons-HttpClient/3.1 Host: 127.0.0.1:4232 For debugging I am using the Axis TCPMonitor. There every things is fine but the empty request. How I process the stream: StringBuffer requestBuffer = new StringBuffer(); InputStreamReader is = new InputStreamReader(socket.getInputStream(), "UTF-8"); int byteIn = -1; do { byteIn = is.read(); if (byteIn > 0) { requestBuffer.append((char) byteIn); } } while (byteIn != -1 && is.ready()); String requestData = requestBuffer.toString(); How I send the request: client.getParams().setSoTimeout(30000); method = new PostMethod(url.getPath()); method.getParams().setContentCharset("utf-8"); method.setRequestHeader("Content-Type", "application/xml; charset=utf-8"); method.addRequestHeader("Connection", "close"); method.setFollowRedirects(false); byte[] requestXml = getRequestXml(); method.setRequestEntity(new InputStreamRequestEntity(new ByteArrayInputStream(requestXml))); client.executeMethod(method); int statusCode = method.getStatusCode(); Have anyone of you an idea how to solve these problems? Alex

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  • Ext JS 4.2.1 loading controller - best practice

    - by Hown_
    I am currently developing a Ext JS application with many views/controlers/... I am wondering myself what the best practice is for loading the JS controllers/views/and so on... currently i have my application defined like this: // enable javascript cache for debugging, otherwise Chrome breakpoints are lost Ext.Loader.setConfig({ disableCaching: false }); Ext.require('Ext.util.History'); Ext.require('app.Sitemap'); Ext.require('app.Error'); Ext.define('app.Application', { name: 'app', extend: 'Ext.app.Application', views: [ // TODO: add views here 'app.view.Viewport', 'app.view.BaseMain', 'app.view.Main', 'app.view.ApplicationHeader', //administration 'app.view.administration.User' ... ], controllers: [ 'app.controller.Viewport', 'app.controller.Main', 'app.controller.ApplicationHeader', //administration 'app.controller.administration.User', ... ], stores: [ // stores in there.. ] }); somehow this forces the client to load all my views and controllers at startup and is calling all init methods of all controllers of course.. i need to load data everytime i chnage my view.. and now i cant load it in my controllers init function. I would have to do something like this i assume: init: function () { this.control({ '#administration_User': { afterrender: this.onAfterRender } }); }, Is there a better way to do this? Or just an other event? Though the main thing i am questioning myself is if it is the best practice to load all the javascript at startup. Wouldnt it be better to only load the controllers/views/... which the client does need right now? Or should i load all the JS at startup? If i do want to load the controllers dynamicly how could i do this? I assume a would have to remove them from my application arrays (views, controllers, stores) and create an instance if i do need it and mby set the view in the controllers init?! What's best practice??

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  • What if you used the wrong language?

    - by HS
    A reply to another question made me remember a project from some years ago when it turned out that Java was not the right tool to use. I typically only learn a new language when I have a problem that it solves better than the ones I already know. [...] Then I write whatever program I wanted to learn that language for in the first place. [...] By the time I've gotten my target program written, I've usually got a decent handle on the language, not to mention any other features it has, and I've got other ideas to use it for. I did just that back then with Java, because the client thought it to be the right language to use (platform independent) and initial evaluation confirmed that. However, much later in the project there were some issue (can't really remember all the details by now). So, the project that started as a nice learning experience turned into a nightmare toward the end. I was at the brink of switching over to my trusted C++ and doing a complete rewrite. The client was not so much of a problem to convince back then, but my supervisor was strongly opposed because of all the work that already went into the Java version. In hindsight, he was right and the project was complete more or less with the intended features kind of working, but it was the project that I am least proud of by now. Long story short: what do you think, when is it too much and the switch to another technology is worthwhile? I personally would estimate the point of no return to be around 50% of the planned effort, but really want to know, if anyone has real experience with such a switch. And to answer the inevitable question: I do not really care, if the technology switched to is proven or another new thing. The latter would basically need more initial scrutiny based on the past experiences in the problematic project.

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  • Converting Python Script to Vb.NET - Involves Post and Input XML String

    - by Jason Shoulders
    I'm trying to convert a Python Script to Vb.Net. The Python Script appears to accept some XML input data and then takes it to a web URL and does a "POST". I tried some VB.NET code to do it, but I think my approach is off because I got an error back "BadXmlDataErr" plus I can't really format my input XML very well - I'm only doing string and value. The input XML is richer than that. Here is an example of what the XML input data looks like in the Python script: <obj is="MyOrg:realCommand_v1/" > <int name="priority" val="1" /> <real name="value" val="9.5" /> <str name="user" val="MyUserName" /> <reltime name="overrideTime" val="PT60S"/> </obj> Here's the Vb.net code I attempted to convert that: Dim reqparm As New Specialized.NameValueCollection reqparm.Add("priority", "1") reqparm.Add("value", "9.5") reqparm.Add("user", "MyUserName") reqparm.Add("overrideTime", "PT60S") Using client As New Net.WebClient Dim sTheUrl As String = "[My URL]" Dim responsebytes = client.UploadValues(sTheUrl, "POST", MyReqparm) Dim responsebody = (New System.Text.UTF8Encoding).GetString(responsebytes) End Using I feel like I should be doing something else. Can anyone point me to the right direction?

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  • How to save timers with connection to OrderId?

    - by Adrian Serafin
    Hi! I have a system where clients can make orders. After making order they have 60 minutes to pay fot it before it will be deleted. On the server side when order is made i create timer and set elapsed time to 60 minutes System.Timer.Timers timer = new System.Timers.Timer(1000*60*60); timer.AutoReset = false; timer.Elapsed += HandleElapsed; timer.Start(); Because I want to be able to dispose timer if client decides to pay and I want to be able to cancel order if he doesn't I keep two Dictionaries: Dictionary<int, Timer> _orderTimer; Dictionary<Timer, int> _timerOrder; Then when client pay's I can access Timer by orderId with O(1) thanks to _orderTimer dictionary and when time elapsed I can access order with O(1) thanks to _timerOrder dictionary. My question is: Is it good aproach? Assuming that max number of rows I have to keep in dictionary in one moment will be 50000? Maybe it would be better to derive from Timer class, add property called OrderId, keep it all in List and search for order/timer using linq? Or maybe you I should do this in different way?

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  • Is there such a thing as IMAP for podcasts?

    - by Gerrit
    Is there such a thing as IMAP for podcasts? I own a desktop, laptop, iPod, smartphone and a web-client all downloading StackOverflow Podcasts. (among others) They all tell me which episodes are available and which are already played. Everything is a horrible mess, ofcourse. My iPod is somewhat in sync with my desktop, but everything else is a random jungle. The same problem with e-mail is solved by IMAP. Every device gets content and meta-information from one server, and stays in sync with it. Per device, I can set preferences (do or do not download the complete archive including junkmail). Can we implement the IMAP approach for podcasts? Or is there a better metaphore/standard to solve this problem? How will the adoption-strategy look like? (by the way: except for the Windows smartphone, I own a full Apple-stack of products. Even then, I run into this problem) UPDATE The RSS-to-Imap link to sourceforge looks promesting, but very alpha/experimental. UPDATE 2 The one thing RSS is missing is the command/method/parameter/attribute to delete/unread items. RSS can only add, not remove. If RSS(N+1) (3?) could add a value for unread="true|false", it would be solved. If I cache all my RSS-feeds on my own server, and add the attribute myself, I only would have to convince iTunes and every other client to respect that.

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  • HttpUtility.HtmlEncode doesn't encode everything

    - by Anthony
    I am interacting with a web server using a desktop client program in C# and .Net 3.5. I am using Fiddler to see what traffic the web browser sends, and emulate that. Sadly this server is old, and is a bit confused about the notions of charsets and utf-8. Mostly it uses Latin-1. When I enter data into the Web browser containing "special" chars, like "O p ? 8 ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ?" fiddler show me that they are being transmitted as follows from browser to server: "&#9800; &#9801; &#9802; &#9803; &#9804; &#9805; &#9806; &#9807; &#9808; &#9809; &#9810; &#9811; " But for my client, HttpUtility.HtmlEncode does not convert these characters, it leaves them as is. What do I need to call to convert "?" to &#9800; and so on?

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  • Duplicate C# web service proxy classes generated for Java types

    - by Sergey
    My question is about integration between a Java web service and a C# .NET client. Service: CXF 2.2.3 with Aegis databinding Client: C#, .NET 3.5 SP1 For some reason Visual Studio generates two C# proxy enums for each Java enum. The generated C# classes do not compile. For example, this Java enum: public enum SqlDialect { GENERIC, SYBASE, SQL_SERVER, ORACLE; } Produces this WSDL: <xsd:simpleType name="SqlDialect"> <xsd:restriction base="xsd:string"> <xsd:enumeration value="GENERIC" /> <xsd:enumeration value="SYBASE" /> <xsd:enumeration value="SQL_SERVER" /> <xsd:enumeration value="ORACLE" /> </xsd:restriction> </xsd:simpleType> For this WSDL Visual Studio generates two partial C# classes (generated comments removed): [System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCodeAttribute("System.Runtime.Serialization", "3.0.0.0")] [System.Runtime.Serialization.DataContractAttribute(Name="SqlDialect", Namespace="http://somenamespace")] public enum SqlDialect : int { [System.Runtime.Serialization.EnumMemberAttribute()] GENERIC = 0, [System.Runtime.Serialization.EnumMemberAttribute()] SYBASE = 1, [System.Runtime.Serialization.EnumMemberAttribute()] SQL_SERVER = 2, [System.Runtime.Serialization.EnumMemberAttribute()] ORACLE = 3, } [System.CodeDom.Compiler.GeneratedCodeAttribute("System.Xml", "2.0.50727.3082")] [System.SerializableAttribute()] [System.Xml.Serialization.XmlTypeAttribute(Namespace="http://somenamespace")] public enum SqlDialect { GENERIC, SYBASE, SQL_SERVER, ORACLE, } The resulting C# code does not compile: The namespace 'somenamespace' already contains a definition for 'SqlDialect' I will appreciate any ideas...

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  • Turning on multiple result sets in an ODBC connection to SQL Server

    - by David Griffiths
    I have an application that originally needed to connect to Sybase (via ODBC), but I've needed to add the ability to connect to SQL Server as well. As ODBC should be able to handle both, I thought I was in a good position. Unfort, SQL Server will not let me, by default, nest ODBC commands and ODBCDataReaders - it complains the connection is busy. I know that I had to specify that multiple active result sets (MARS) were allowed in similar circumstances when connecting to SQL Server via a native driver, so I thought it wouldn't be an issue. The DSN wizard has no entr y when creating a SystemDSN. Some people have provided registry hacks to get around this, but this did not work (add a MARS_Connection with a value of Yes to HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\ODBC\ODBC.INI\system-dsn-name). Another suggestion was to create a file-dsn, and add "MARS_Connection=YES" to that. Didn't work. Finally, a DSN-less connection string. I've tried this one (using MultipleActiveResultSets - same variable as a Sql Server connection would use), "Driver={SQL Native Client};Server=xxx.xxx.xxx.xxx;Database=someDB;Uid=u;Pwd=p;MultipleActiveResultSets=True;" and this one: "Driver={SQL Native Client};Server=192.168.75.33\\ARIA;Database=Aria;Uid=sa;Pwd=service;MARS_Connection=YES;" I have checked the various connection-string sites - they all suggest what I've already tried.

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  • Is Accessing USB from web application for cross browser cross os possible at all ?

    - by Ved
    Hey Guys, I am wondering if there is anyway we can achieve this. I heard different things about Silverlight 4 , Java Script or Active X control but not seen any demo of code for any of them. Does anyone know any web component that is available or how to write one. We really like capture client's USB drive via Web and read/write data on it. This has to work for ANY Operating system in Any web browser. Thanks UPDATED What about WPF in browser mode...I read that I can host my wpf apps inside browser and sort of like smart client. Here is a great example of doing this via silverlight 4 but author mentions about possibility of accessing USB on MAC via 1) Enable executing AppleScripts. This option will let us have the same amount of control on a mac machine as we do on a windows machine. 2) Add an overload to ComAutomationFactory.CreateObject() that calls the “Tell Application” command under the scenes and gets a AppleScript object. This option would work extremely well for Office automation. For any other operating system feature, you’ll have to code OS access twice.  I did not quite understand it. Has any tried this ?

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  • relative url in wcf service binding

    - by Jeremy
    I have a silverlight control which has a reference to a silverlight enabled wcf service. When I add a reference to the service in my silverlight control, it adds the following to my clientconfig file: <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="BasicHttpBinding_DataAccess" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <security mode="None" /> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost:3097/MyApp/DataAccess.svc" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="BasicHttpBinding_DataAccess" contract="svcMyService.DataAccess" name="BasicHttpBinding_DataAccess" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> How do I specify a relative url in the endpoint address instead of the absolute url? I want it to work no matter where I deploy the web app to without having to edit the clientconfig file, because the silverlight component and the web app will always be deployed together. I thought I'd be able to specify just "DataAccess.svc" but it doesn't seem to like that.

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  • Null reference exceptions in .net

    - by Carlo
    Hello, we're having this big problem with our application. It's a rather large application with several modules, and thousands and thousands lines of code. A lot of parts of the application are designed to exist only with a reference to another object, for example a Person object can never exists without a House object, so if you at any point in the app say: bool check = App.Person.House == null; check should always be false (by design), so, to keep using that example, while creating modules, testing, debugging, App.Person.House is never null, but once we shipped the application to our client, they started getting a bunch of NullReferenceException with the objects that by design, should never have a null reference. They tell us the bug, we try to reproduce it here, but 90% of the times we can't, because here it works fine. The app is being developed with C# and WPF, and by design, it only runs on Windows XP SP 3, and the .net framework v3.5, so we KNOW the user has the same operative system, service pack, and .net framework version as we do here, but they still get this weird NullReferenceExceptions that we can't reproduce. So, I'm just wondering if anyone has seen this before and how you fixed it, we have the app running here at least 8 hours a day in 5 different computers, and we never see those exceptions, this only happens to the client for some reason. ANY thought, any clue, any solution that could get us closer to fixing this problem will be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Clickonce redirect

    - by David Hagan
    Is it possible to deploy an application (using an existing clickonce deployment URL, such that users update to that version) which changes the deployment URL of the deployed application? The scenario is that I have a deployed client (A), which is stable and has been in use for over a year, and a new client (B), which is in development and will be used. However, B and A have different UIDs so that they can both be deployed on the same system together. At some point in the future, I'd like to automatically migrate users who have been using A to B, but I'd hope that Clickonce is well-designed enough to not upgrade A to B if I place B's install files in A's install directory (because it should be checking those UIDs). I know that a C# application that's been deployed through clickonce has some access to its own deployment method, and I'm wondering whether I'm able to change the upgrade-location. I'm hoping to do this quietly without much involvement of the user (and I understand that quiet redirects are heavily frowned upon, for good reasons) and am wondering whether anyone has any experience of trying to modify an installed clickonce's deployment/upgrade information with an update.

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  • Java - Problem in deploying Web Application

    - by Yatendra Goel
    I have built a Java Web Application and packed it in a .war file and tested it on my local tomcat server and it is running fine. But when I deployed it on my client's server, it is showing an error. According to the remote server (my client's server), it is not finding a tld file packed in a jar file which I had placed in WEB-INF/lib directory. But when I checked the WEB-INF/lib directory for the jar file, i found that it was there. The contents of META-INF/MANIFEST.MF is as follows: Manifest-Version: 1.0 Class-Path: I think that there is no need to explicitly mention the classpath of WEB-INF/lib directory as it is in the classpath of any web application by default. Then, why the server can't find the jar file in the lib directory when I deployed it on a remote server and why it is working when I deployed the same application on my local server. I posted a question for this at http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2441254/struts-1-struts-taglib-jar-is-not-being-found-by-my-web-application but found that the problem is unusual as nobody could answer it. So my questions are as follows: Q1. Is WEB-INF/lib still remains on the classpath if I leave the classpath entry blank as shown above in the MANIFEST.MF file or I should delete the classpath entry completely from the file or I should explicitly enter Class-Path: /WEB-INF/lib as the classpath entry? Q2. I have JSP pages, Servlets and some helper classes in the web application. Jsp pages are located at the root. Servlets and helper classes are located in WEB-INF/classes folder. So Is there any problem if my helper classes are located in the WEB-INF/classes folder? Note: Please note that this question is not same as my previous question. It is a follow-up question of my previous question. Both the servers (local and remote) are tomcat servers.

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  • Elapsed time of running a C program

    - by yCalleecharan
    Hi, I would like to know what lines of C code to add to a program so that it tells me the total time that the program takes to run. I guess there should be counter initialization near the beginning of main and one after the main function ends. Is the right header clock.h? Thanks a lot... Update I have a Win Xp machine. Is it just adding clock() at the beginning and another clock() at the end of the program? Then I can estimate the time difference. Yes, you're right it's time.h. Here's my code: #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <math.h> #include <share.h> #include <time.h> void f(long double fb[], long double fA, long double fB); int main() { clock_t start, end; start = clock(); const int ARRAY_SIZE = 11; long double* z = (long double*) malloc(sizeof (long double) * ARRAY_SIZE); int i; long double A, B; if (z == NULL) { printf("Out of memory\n"); exit(-1); } A = 0.5; B = 2; for (i = 0; i < ARRAY_SIZE; i++) { z[i] = 0; } z[1] = 5; f(z, A, B); for (i = 0; i < ARRAY_SIZE; i++) printf("z is %.16Le\n", z[i]); free(z); z = NULL; end = clock(); printf("Took %ld ticks\n", end-start); printf("Took %f seconds\n", (double)(end-start)/CLOCKS_PER_SEC); return 0; } void f(long double fb[], long double fA, long double fB) { fb[0] = fb[1]* fA; fb[1] = fb[1] - 1; return; } Some errors with MVS2008: testim.c(16) : error C2143: syntax error : missing ';' before 'const' testim.c(18) :error C2143: syntax error : missing ';' before 'type' testim.c(20) :error C2143: syntax error : missing ';' before 'type' testim.c(21) :error C2143: syntax error : missing ';' before 'type' testim.c(23) :error C2065: 'z' : undeclared identifier testim.c(23) :warning C4047: '==' : 'int' differs in levels of indirection from 'void *' testim.c(28) : error C2065: 'A' : undeclared identifier testim.c(28) : warning C4244: '=' : conversion from 'double' to 'int', possible loss of data and it goes to 28 errors. Note that I don't have any errors/warnings without your clock codes. LATEST NEWS: I unfortunately didn't get a good reply here. But after a search on Google, the code is working. Here it is: #include <stdio.h> #include <stdlib.h> #include <math.h> #include <share.h> #include <time.h> void f(long double fb[], long double fA, long double fB); int main() { clock_t start = clock(); const int ARRAY_SIZE = 11; long double* z = (long double*) malloc(sizeof (long double) * ARRAY_SIZE); int i; long double A, B; if (z == NULL) { printf("Out of memory\n"); exit(-1); } A = 0.5; B = 2; for (i = 0; i < ARRAY_SIZE; i++) { z[i] = 0; } z[1] = 5; f(z, A, B); for (i = 0; i < ARRAY_SIZE; i++) printf("z is %.16Le\n", z[i]); free(z); z = NULL; printf("Took %f seconds\n", ((double)clock()-start)/CLOCKS_PER_SEC); return 0; } void f(long double fb[], long double fA, long double fB) { fb[0] = fb[1]* fA; fb[1] = fb[1] - 1; return; } Cheers

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  • javascript: waiting for an iframe page to load before writing to it (but not from the page that's tr

    - by Bill Dawes
    Apologies if this has been answered elsewhere, but I haven't been able to find it referenced. (Probably because nobody else would want to do such a daft thing, I admit). So, I have a page with three iframes in it. An event on one triggers a javascript function which loads new pages into the other two iframes; ['topright'] and ['bottomright']. However, javascript in the page that is being loaded into iframe 'topright' then needs to send information to elements in the 'bottomright' iframe. window.frames['bottomright'].document.subform.ID_client = client; etc But this will only work if the page has fully loaded into the bottomright frame. So what would be the most efficient way for that code in the 'topright' iframe to check and ensure that that form element in the bottomright frame is actually available to write to, before it does write to it? Bearing in mind that the page load has NOT been triggered from the topright frame, so I can't simply use an onLoad function. (I know this probably sounds like a hideously tortuous route for getting data from one page to another, but that's another story. The client is always right, etc...:-))

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  • PHP: System Timezone Setting error

    - by marknt15
    Hi, I'm trying to use PHP in the terminal under MAMP but I got an error related to the system's timezone settings. How can I fix this error? $/Applications/MAMP/bin/php5/bin/php echo.php PHP Strict Standards: PHP Startup: It is not safe to rely on the system's timezone settings. Please use the date.timezone setting, the TZ environment variable or the date_default_timezone_set() function. In case you used any of those methods and you are still getting this warning, you most likely misspelled the timezone identifier. We selected 'Asia/Manila' for 'PHT/8.0/no DST' instead in Unknown on line 0 Thanks

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  • Does QThread::sleep() require the event loop to be running?

    - by suszterpatt
    I have a simple client-server program written in Qt, where processes communicate using MPI. The basic design I'm trying to implement is the following: The first process (the "server") launches a GUI (derived from QMainWindow), which listens for messages from the clients (using repeat fire QTimers and asynchronous MPI receive calls), updates the GUI depending on what messages it receives, and sends a reply to every message. Every other process (the "clients") runs in an infinite loop, and all they are intended to do is send a message to the server process, receive the reply, go to sleep for a while, then wake up and repeat. Every process instantiates a single object derived from QThread, and calls its start() method. The run() method of these classes all look like this: from foo.cpp: void Foo::run() { while (true) { // Send message to the first process // Wait for a reply // Do uninteresting stuff with the reply sleep(3); // also tried QThread::sleep(3) } } In the client's code, there is no call to exec() anywhere, so no event loop should start. The problem is that the clients never wake up from sleeping (if I surround the sleep() call with two writes to a log file, only the first one is executed, control never reaches the second). Is this because I didn't start the event loop? And if so, what is the simplest way to achieve the desired functionality?

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